Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

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Chapter 04 Homework Due: 11:59pm on Friday, May 23, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Activity: Investigating Survivorship Curves Click here to complete this activity. Then answer the questions. Part A Which of these species typically has a mortality rate that remains fairly constant over an individual’s life span? ANSWER: Correct The mortality rate of robins remains relatively constant throughout their life span. Part B Oyster populations are primarily, if not exclusively, composed of _____. ANSWER: Correct Young oysters have a very high mortality rate; older oysters have a much lower mortality rate. Thus, most oyster populations consist primarily of older individuals. Part C Which of these organisms has a survivorship curve similar to that of oysters? ANSWER: grasses oysters elephants robins humans juveniles adults prereproductive oysters larval and juvenile oysters larvae Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 1 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Correct Grasses, like oysters, have a relatively high mortality rate early in their life span, after which the mortality rate decreases. Part D Which of these organisms has a survivorship curve similar to that of humans? ANSWER: Correct The mortality rate of elephants, like that of humans, remains relatively low for much of their life span and then dramatically increases for older individuals. BioFlix Quiz: Population Ecology Watch the animation at left before answering the questions below. cats robins elephants grasses humans cats oysters grasses robins elephants Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 2 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Part A An ideal habitat with unlimited resources is associated with Hint 1. Review the animation or your Study Sheet for Population Ecology ANSWER: Correct Populations grow exponentially with unlimited resources. Part B The maximum population a habitat can support is its Hint 1. Review the animation or your Study Sheet for Population Ecology ANSWER: Correct Part C Logistic growth involves Hint 1. Review the animation or your Study Sheet for Population Ecology ANSWER: Both exponential growth and logistic growth. Population crashes. Exponential growth. Logistic growth. Neither exponential growth nor logistic growth. Logistic growth. Death rate. Birth rate. Carrying capacity. Exponential growth. A population crash. Population growth continuing forever. Population growth reaching carrying capacity and then speeding up. Population size decreasing to zero. Population growth slowing down as the population approaches carrying capacity. Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 3 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Correct Part D In exponential growth Hint 1. Review the animation or your Study Sheet for Population Ecology ANSWER: Correct Part E Which of the following would NOT cause population size to decrease? Hint 1. Review the animation. ANSWER: Correct An increased birth rate would cause population size to increase. BioFlix Activity: Photosynthesis — Inputs and Outputs Can you fill in the photosynthesis equation? To review photosynthesis, watch this BioFlix animation: Photosynthesis. Part A – Photosynthesis equation Drag the labels onto the equation to identify the inputs and outputs of photosynthesis. ANSWER: Population size grows more and more slowly as the population gets bigger. Population size grows faster and faster as the population gets bigger. Population size stays constant. Population growth slows as the population gets close to its carrying capacity. None of these are correct. Increased death rate A exponentially growing population outgrowing its food supply and crashing Poor weather, resulting in less food being available Increase in the number of predators Increased birth rate Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 4 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM BioFlix Activity: Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis — Energy Flow Can you identify how energy flows through an ecosystem? To review energy flow in cellular respiration and photosynthesis, watch these BioFlix animations: Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis. Part A – Energy flow through an ecosystem Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify how energy flows through an ecosystem. ANSWER: BioFlix Activity: Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis — Chemical Cycling Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 5 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Can you identify how chemicals cycle in an ecosystem? To review the chemical inputs and outputs of cellular respiration and photosynthesis, watch these BioFlix animations: Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis. Part A – Chemical cycling in an ecosystem Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify how chemicals cycle in an ecosystem. ANSWER: BioFlix Activity: Cellular Respiration — Inputs and Outputs Can you fill in the cellular respiration equation? To review cellular respiration, watch this BioFlix animation: Cellular Respiration. Part A – Cellular respiration equation Drag the labels onto the equation to identify the inputs and outputs of cellular respiration. ANSWER: Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 6 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM BioFlix Activity: Population Ecology — Types of Population Growth Can you identify the different ways in which populations grow? To review types of population growth, watch this BioFlix animation: Population Ecology. Part A – Types of population growth Drag the correct label under each graph to identify the type of population growth shown. ANSWER: Concept Review: Calculating Doubling Time Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 7 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Can you calculate doubling times and growth rates for exponentially growing populations? Remember that the doubling time (in years) for an exponentially growing population is estimated by dividing 70 by the growth rate of the population (as a percentage): Doubling time (in years) = 70 / annual growth rate (%) Part A Drag the values on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Not all values will be used. ANSWER: Concept Review: Calculating Population Growth Rates Populations grow larger from births and immigration and grow smaller from deaths and emigration. The growth rate for a population is determined by adding the birth rate and the immigration rate, and then subtracting the death rate and the emigration rate (all rates expressed as the number per 1,000 individuals per year): (birth rate + immigration rate) (death rate + emigration rate) = growth rate Positive population growth rates lead to population increases, and negative population growth rates lead to population declines. Part A Suppose you are studying a population with the following characteristics: Birth rate = 14 per 1,000/year Death rate = 6 per 1,000/year Immigration rate = 5 per 1,000/year Emigration rate = 1 per 1,000/year What is the growth rate for this population? ANSWER: Part B Suppose you are studying a population with the following characteristics: 4 per 1,000/year 12 per 1,000/year 14 per 1,000/year 26 per 1,000/year Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 8 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Birth rate = 11 per 1,000/year Death rate = 10 per 1,000/year Immigration rate = 4 per 1,000/year Emigration rate = 3 per 1,000/year What is the growth rate for this population? ANSWER: Part C Suppose you are studying a population with the following characteristics: Birth rate = 10 per 1,000/year Death rate = 12 per 1,000/year Immigration rate = 2 per 1,000/year Emigration rate = 3 per 1,000/year What is the growth rate for this population? ANSWER: Part D This question will be shown after you complete previous question(s). Part E This question will be shown after you complete previous question(s). Part F This question will be shown after you complete previous question(s). Concept Review: Levels of Ecological Organization Can you identify the example that corresponds to each level of ecological organization? Part A Drag the labels to the appropriate targets in the table. ANSWER: 0 per 1,000/year 2 per 1,000/year 14 per 1,000/year 28 per 1,000/year 3 per 1,000/year 1 per 1,000/year 17 per 1,000/year 27 per 1,000/year Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 9 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM BioFlix Activity: Mechanisms of Evolution — Natural Selection: Pesticides Can you identify the process by which natural selection acts on an insect population exposed to pesticides? To review the process of natural selection, watch this BioFlix animation: Mechanisms of Evolution: Natural Selection. Part A – Natural selection: Pesticides Drag the labels onto the flowchart to place them in the correct sequence. ANSWER: Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 10 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM ABC News Video: Protecting the Galapagos Islands Watch the ABC News video (2:07 minutes). Then answer the questions below. Part A Where are the Galapagos Islands located? ANSWER: Part B Which of the following sets of animals are likely to be found on the Galapagos Islands? ANSWER: near the tip of South Africa northeast of Australia along the Great Barrier Reef 600 miles west of Ecuador, near the equator in the Mediterranean Sea, as part of the Greek Islands frogs, lungfish, mountain goats tortoises, finches, blue-footed boobies ostriches, cougars, porcupines beaver, snakes, armadillos Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 11 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Part C Which species is threatening the natural wildlife on the Galapagos Islands? ANSWER: Part D The Galapagos Islands were the first place on Earth to _____. ANSWER: Part E Tourism on the Galapagos Islands is being restricted by requiring tourists to _____. ANSWER: Current Events: A Surplus Washington Could Do Without: A Capital Park’s Rapacious Deer (New York Times, 2/28/2012) Read this New York Times article and then answer the questions. A Surplus Washington Could Do Without: A Capital Park’s Rapacious Deer (2/28/2012) Registration with The New York Times provides instant access to breaking news on NYTimes.com. To register, go to http://www.nytimes.com/register. Visit http://www.nytimes.com/content/help/rights/terms/terms-of-service.html to review the current NYT Terms of Service. Part A Which of the following is true? ANSWER: Part B What predator currently feeds on deer in Rock Creek Park? humans zebra mussels Asian carp mountain lions suffer the complete extinction of all native species be declared off-limits to all humans be declared a world heritage site be invaded by human-introduced species visit each island in groups of only ten individuals at a time view the islands only from the water be escorted by trained guides at all times stay at least 100 feet away from all animals on the islands Deer have always been a problem in Rock Creek Park. Deer are not a problem in Rock Creek Park. Deer are not native to Rock Creek Park, and have been a problem since they were introduced in 1952. Deer were once absent from Rock Creek Park, and have only become a problem in the last 20 years. Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 12 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM ANSWER: Part C Why isn’t the deer population controlled by hunting in Rock Creek Park? ANSWER: Part D It is hoped that the deer herd can be reduced by how much? ANSWER: Part E Which of the following is true? ANSWER: Part F Because the park is changing in response to the increasing deer population, this is an example of ______________. ANSWER: Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 21.2%. You received 9.1 out of a possible total of 43 points. There are no predators of deer in Rock Creek Park. mountain lion coyote wolf Hunting has been attempted in the park, but the trees are too thick. Hunting is prohibited in the park. There is no public interest in hunting in the park. Deer are a protected species. one-quarter one-half three-quarters the entire herd Animals cannot be killed on federally managed public lands. Only Congress can decide to have animals killed on federally managed public lands. The federal agency in charge of management of the land in question decides if animals should be killed. Only the National Park Service can decide to have animals killed on federally managed public lands. succession artificial selection recession progression Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 13 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM

Chapter 04 Homework Due: 11:59pm on Friday, May 23, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Activity: Investigating Survivorship Curves Click here to complete this activity. Then answer the questions. Part A Which of these species typically has a mortality rate that remains fairly constant over an individual’s life span? ANSWER: Correct The mortality rate of robins remains relatively constant throughout their life span. Part B Oyster populations are primarily, if not exclusively, composed of _____. ANSWER: Correct Young oysters have a very high mortality rate; older oysters have a much lower mortality rate. Thus, most oyster populations consist primarily of older individuals. Part C Which of these organisms has a survivorship curve similar to that of oysters? ANSWER: grasses oysters elephants robins humans juveniles adults prereproductive oysters larval and juvenile oysters larvae Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 1 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Correct Grasses, like oysters, have a relatively high mortality rate early in their life span, after which the mortality rate decreases. Part D Which of these organisms has a survivorship curve similar to that of humans? ANSWER: Correct The mortality rate of elephants, like that of humans, remains relatively low for much of their life span and then dramatically increases for older individuals. BioFlix Quiz: Population Ecology Watch the animation at left before answering the questions below. cats robins elephants grasses humans cats oysters grasses robins elephants Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 2 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Part A An ideal habitat with unlimited resources is associated with Hint 1. Review the animation or your Study Sheet for Population Ecology ANSWER: Correct Populations grow exponentially with unlimited resources. Part B The maximum population a habitat can support is its Hint 1. Review the animation or your Study Sheet for Population Ecology ANSWER: Correct Part C Logistic growth involves Hint 1. Review the animation or your Study Sheet for Population Ecology ANSWER: Both exponential growth and logistic growth. Population crashes. Exponential growth. Logistic growth. Neither exponential growth nor logistic growth. Logistic growth. Death rate. Birth rate. Carrying capacity. Exponential growth. A population crash. Population growth continuing forever. Population growth reaching carrying capacity and then speeding up. Population size decreasing to zero. Population growth slowing down as the population approaches carrying capacity. Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 3 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Correct Part D In exponential growth Hint 1. Review the animation or your Study Sheet for Population Ecology ANSWER: Correct Part E Which of the following would NOT cause population size to decrease? Hint 1. Review the animation. ANSWER: Correct An increased birth rate would cause population size to increase. BioFlix Activity: Photosynthesis — Inputs and Outputs Can you fill in the photosynthesis equation? To review photosynthesis, watch this BioFlix animation: Photosynthesis. Part A – Photosynthesis equation Drag the labels onto the equation to identify the inputs and outputs of photosynthesis. ANSWER: Population size grows more and more slowly as the population gets bigger. Population size grows faster and faster as the population gets bigger. Population size stays constant. Population growth slows as the population gets close to its carrying capacity. None of these are correct. Increased death rate A exponentially growing population outgrowing its food supply and crashing Poor weather, resulting in less food being available Increase in the number of predators Increased birth rate Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 4 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM BioFlix Activity: Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis — Energy Flow Can you identify how energy flows through an ecosystem? To review energy flow in cellular respiration and photosynthesis, watch these BioFlix animations: Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis. Part A – Energy flow through an ecosystem Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify how energy flows through an ecosystem. ANSWER: BioFlix Activity: Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis — Chemical Cycling Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 5 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Can you identify how chemicals cycle in an ecosystem? To review the chemical inputs and outputs of cellular respiration and photosynthesis, watch these BioFlix animations: Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis. Part A – Chemical cycling in an ecosystem Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify how chemicals cycle in an ecosystem. ANSWER: BioFlix Activity: Cellular Respiration — Inputs and Outputs Can you fill in the cellular respiration equation? To review cellular respiration, watch this BioFlix animation: Cellular Respiration. Part A – Cellular respiration equation Drag the labels onto the equation to identify the inputs and outputs of cellular respiration. ANSWER: Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 6 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM BioFlix Activity: Population Ecology — Types of Population Growth Can you identify the different ways in which populations grow? To review types of population growth, watch this BioFlix animation: Population Ecology. Part A – Types of population growth Drag the correct label under each graph to identify the type of population growth shown. ANSWER: Concept Review: Calculating Doubling Time Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 7 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Can you calculate doubling times and growth rates for exponentially growing populations? Remember that the doubling time (in years) for an exponentially growing population is estimated by dividing 70 by the growth rate of the population (as a percentage): Doubling time (in years) = 70 / annual growth rate (%) Part A Drag the values on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Not all values will be used. ANSWER: Concept Review: Calculating Population Growth Rates Populations grow larger from births and immigration and grow smaller from deaths and emigration. The growth rate for a population is determined by adding the birth rate and the immigration rate, and then subtracting the death rate and the emigration rate (all rates expressed as the number per 1,000 individuals per year): (birth rate + immigration rate) (death rate + emigration rate) = growth rate Positive population growth rates lead to population increases, and negative population growth rates lead to population declines. Part A Suppose you are studying a population with the following characteristics: Birth rate = 14 per 1,000/year Death rate = 6 per 1,000/year Immigration rate = 5 per 1,000/year Emigration rate = 1 per 1,000/year What is the growth rate for this population? ANSWER: Part B Suppose you are studying a population with the following characteristics: 4 per 1,000/year 12 per 1,000/year 14 per 1,000/year 26 per 1,000/year Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 8 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Birth rate = 11 per 1,000/year Death rate = 10 per 1,000/year Immigration rate = 4 per 1,000/year Emigration rate = 3 per 1,000/year What is the growth rate for this population? ANSWER: Part C Suppose you are studying a population with the following characteristics: Birth rate = 10 per 1,000/year Death rate = 12 per 1,000/year Immigration rate = 2 per 1,000/year Emigration rate = 3 per 1,000/year What is the growth rate for this population? ANSWER: Part D This question will be shown after you complete previous question(s). Part E This question will be shown after you complete previous question(s). Part F This question will be shown after you complete previous question(s). Concept Review: Levels of Ecological Organization Can you identify the example that corresponds to each level of ecological organization? Part A Drag the labels to the appropriate targets in the table. ANSWER: 0 per 1,000/year 2 per 1,000/year 14 per 1,000/year 28 per 1,000/year 3 per 1,000/year 1 per 1,000/year 17 per 1,000/year 27 per 1,000/year Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 9 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM BioFlix Activity: Mechanisms of Evolution — Natural Selection: Pesticides Can you identify the process by which natural selection acts on an insect population exposed to pesticides? To review the process of natural selection, watch this BioFlix animation: Mechanisms of Evolution: Natural Selection. Part A – Natural selection: Pesticides Drag the labels onto the flowchart to place them in the correct sequence. ANSWER: Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 10 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM ABC News Video: Protecting the Galapagos Islands Watch the ABC News video (2:07 minutes). Then answer the questions below. Part A Where are the Galapagos Islands located? ANSWER: Part B Which of the following sets of animals are likely to be found on the Galapagos Islands? ANSWER: near the tip of South Africa northeast of Australia along the Great Barrier Reef 600 miles west of Ecuador, near the equator in the Mediterranean Sea, as part of the Greek Islands frogs, lungfish, mountain goats tortoises, finches, blue-footed boobies ostriches, cougars, porcupines beaver, snakes, armadillos Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 11 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM Part C Which species is threatening the natural wildlife on the Galapagos Islands? ANSWER: Part D The Galapagos Islands were the first place on Earth to _____. ANSWER: Part E Tourism on the Galapagos Islands is being restricted by requiring tourists to _____. ANSWER: Current Events: A Surplus Washington Could Do Without: A Capital Park’s Rapacious Deer (New York Times, 2/28/2012) Read this New York Times article and then answer the questions. A Surplus Washington Could Do Without: A Capital Park’s Rapacious Deer (2/28/2012) Registration with The New York Times provides instant access to breaking news on NYTimes.com. To register, go to http://www.nytimes.com/register. Visit http://www.nytimes.com/content/help/rights/terms/terms-of-service.html to review the current NYT Terms of Service. Part A Which of the following is true? ANSWER: Part B What predator currently feeds on deer in Rock Creek Park? humans zebra mussels Asian carp mountain lions suffer the complete extinction of all native species be declared off-limits to all humans be declared a world heritage site be invaded by human-introduced species visit each island in groups of only ten individuals at a time view the islands only from the water be escorted by trained guides at all times stay at least 100 feet away from all animals on the islands Deer have always been a problem in Rock Creek Park. Deer are not a problem in Rock Creek Park. Deer are not native to Rock Creek Park, and have been a problem since they were introduced in 1952. Deer were once absent from Rock Creek Park, and have only become a problem in the last 20 years. Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 12 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM ANSWER: Part C Why isn’t the deer population controlled by hunting in Rock Creek Park? ANSWER: Part D It is hoped that the deer herd can be reduced by how much? ANSWER: Part E Which of the following is true? ANSWER: Part F Because the park is changing in response to the increasing deer population, this is an example of ______________. ANSWER: Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 21.2%. You received 9.1 out of a possible total of 43 points. There are no predators of deer in Rock Creek Park. mountain lion coyote wolf Hunting has been attempted in the park, but the trees are too thick. Hunting is prohibited in the park. There is no public interest in hunting in the park. Deer are a protected species. one-quarter one-half three-quarters the entire herd Animals cannot be killed on federally managed public lands. Only Congress can decide to have animals killed on federally managed public lands. The federal agency in charge of management of the land in question decides if animals should be killed. Only the National Park Service can decide to have animals killed on federally managed public lands. succession artificial selection recession progression Chapter 04 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 13 of 13 5/21/2014 7:59 PM

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Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 Assignment 4 – Noise and Correlation 1. If a signal is measured as 2.5 V and the noise is 28 mV (28 × 10−3 V), what is the SNR in dB? 2. A single sinusoidal signal is found with some noise. If the RMS value of the noise is 0.5 V and the SNR is 10 dB, what is the RMS amplitude of the sinusoid? 3. The file signal_noise.mat contains a variable x that consists of a 1.0-V peak sinusoidal signal buried in noise. What is the SNR for this signal and noise? Assume that the noise RMS is much greater than the signal RMS. Note: “signal_noise.mat” and other files used in these assignments can be downloaded from the content area of Brightspace, within the “Data Files for Exercises” folder. These files can be opened in Matlab by copying into the active folder and double-clicking on the file or using the Matlab load command using the format: load(‘signal_noise.mat’). To discover the variables within the files use the Matlab who command. 4. An 8-bit ADC converter that has an input range of ±5 V is used to convert a signal that ranges between ±2 V. What is the SNR of the input if the input noise equals the quantization noise of the converter? Hint: Refer to Equation below to find the quantization noise: 5. The file filter1.mat contains the spectrum of a fourth-order lowpass filter as variable x in dB. The file also contains the corresponding frequencies of x in variable freq. Plot the spectrum of this filter both as dB versus log frequency and as linear amplitude versus linear frequency. The frequency axis should range between 10 and 400 Hz in both plots. Hint: Use Equation below to convert: Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 6. Generate one cycle of the square wave similar to the one shown below in a 500-point MATLAB array. Determine the RMS value of this waveform. [Hint: When you take the square of the data array, be sure to use a period before the up arrow so that MATLAB does the squaring point-by-point (i.e., x.^2).]. 7. A resistor produces 10 μV noise (i.e., 10 × 10−6 V noise) when the room temperature is 310 K and the bandwidth is 1 kHz (i.e., 1000 Hz). What current noise would be produced by this resistor? 8. A 3-ma current flows through both a diode (i.e., a semiconductor) and a 20,000-Ω (i.e., 20-kΩ) resistor. What is the net current noise, in? Assume a bandwidth of 1 kHz (i.e., 1 × 103 Hz). Which of the two components is responsible for producing the most noise? 9. Determine if the two signals, x and y, in file correl1.mat are correlated by checking the angle between them. 10. Modify the approach used in Practice Problem 3 to find the angle between short signals: Do not attempt to plot these vectors as it would require a 6-dimensional plot!

Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 Assignment 4 – Noise and Correlation 1. If a signal is measured as 2.5 V and the noise is 28 mV (28 × 10−3 V), what is the SNR in dB? 2. A single sinusoidal signal is found with some noise. If the RMS value of the noise is 0.5 V and the SNR is 10 dB, what is the RMS amplitude of the sinusoid? 3. The file signal_noise.mat contains a variable x that consists of a 1.0-V peak sinusoidal signal buried in noise. What is the SNR for this signal and noise? Assume that the noise RMS is much greater than the signal RMS. Note: “signal_noise.mat” and other files used in these assignments can be downloaded from the content area of Brightspace, within the “Data Files for Exercises” folder. These files can be opened in Matlab by copying into the active folder and double-clicking on the file or using the Matlab load command using the format: load(‘signal_noise.mat’). To discover the variables within the files use the Matlab who command. 4. An 8-bit ADC converter that has an input range of ±5 V is used to convert a signal that ranges between ±2 V. What is the SNR of the input if the input noise equals the quantization noise of the converter? Hint: Refer to Equation below to find the quantization noise: 5. The file filter1.mat contains the spectrum of a fourth-order lowpass filter as variable x in dB. The file also contains the corresponding frequencies of x in variable freq. Plot the spectrum of this filter both as dB versus log frequency and as linear amplitude versus linear frequency. The frequency axis should range between 10 and 400 Hz in both plots. Hint: Use Equation below to convert: Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 6. Generate one cycle of the square wave similar to the one shown below in a 500-point MATLAB array. Determine the RMS value of this waveform. [Hint: When you take the square of the data array, be sure to use a period before the up arrow so that MATLAB does the squaring point-by-point (i.e., x.^2).]. 7. A resistor produces 10 μV noise (i.e., 10 × 10−6 V noise) when the room temperature is 310 K and the bandwidth is 1 kHz (i.e., 1000 Hz). What current noise would be produced by this resistor? 8. A 3-ma current flows through both a diode (i.e., a semiconductor) and a 20,000-Ω (i.e., 20-kΩ) resistor. What is the net current noise, in? Assume a bandwidth of 1 kHz (i.e., 1 × 103 Hz). Which of the two components is responsible for producing the most noise? 9. Determine if the two signals, x and y, in file correl1.mat are correlated by checking the angle between them. 10. Modify the approach used in Practice Problem 3 to find the angle between short signals: Do not attempt to plot these vectors as it would require a 6-dimensional plot!

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Objective: Persuade readers that they should fear a threat of your choosing, real or fabricated. Due Date: Wednesday, November 18th Length: 4-5 pages Format: typed, double-spaced, standard font and margins For this essay, you will be putting together all the aspects of argument that we have been learning about over the last few weeks. You will be using those elements to convince your readers that some issue of your choosing is a threat to them. This issue can be a real threat that you believe people should actually be aware of, or it can be a threat that is not real but that you treat as real (whether it be a fictional/legendary threat or something that is perhaps a small threat but that you present as a big one). Your job is to convince your audience to take this threat seriously, and to do that, you will need to make use of emotional appeal (especially to fear—think back to essays one and two), logical appeal (partly use of details/facts/ evidence we discussed in essay four, but also through definition such as we worked on in essay three), and ethical appeal (your own credibility—think back to issues besides logic and evidence covered in essay four). You may choose to include outside sources if you wish, but you must cite them if you use them and indicate when you are using the words of the original source. We will discuss how to find and to cite them to prepare you to use them correctly. If writing about a fictional threat, you may wish to make up sources. If you do so, I leave it up to you whether you formally cite them (though you must do this if you are using real sources) or informally refer to them in a manner similar to what we saw in the articles we read for essay four. Turning in an essay in which significant portions are not written by you and/or without outside sources cited will result in an essay grade of zero (and not revisable for a higher grade). If you are unsure what to cite, let me know. For ideas, you may want to browse the website snopes.com. This site contains lists and research about many feasible topics for this essay. Try not to use Snopes itself as a source—most entries there contain a list of sources that would be more appropriate for you to utilize and credit in your research. You may also choose to write about a topic covered by one of the essay four articles—if you liked an issue but felt that the warning about it was not very credible, you can use this paper as an opportunity to write about that topic but in a believable, convincing way. Whatever you choose as your topic, by the end of it, you want your reader to believe that what you discuss is a real threat to them. Essay Five: Argument Paper/Warning Assignment Description English 101, Sections 26 & 30 Fall 2015 Skills We Will Cover In This Unit: • finding & citing sources • utilizing emotional, logical, and ethical appeal SCHEDULE GRADING Incomplete papers or papers that stray from the assigned topic/purpose will receive a D or F. C B A To earn at least a C, the paper should: • have a clearly established threat that it attempts to warn the reader about • cite any information obtained from outside sources • be written in such a way as it can be easily understood by the reader To earn a B, the paper should fulfill the criteria above, plus: • include at least one section intended to appeal to the reader’s emotions (especially fear) • include logical support in the form of evidence, details, or other forms of establishing logical reasoning • be organized well, which includes having a clear sense of structure and transitioning into new ideas • include only the information and discussion necessary to accomplish the purpose of the assignment • have only a few grammatical errors, and those should not interfere with understanding To earn an A, the paper should fulfill the criteria for a B paper, plus: • possess strong unity of ideas • skillfully utilize all three rhetorical appeals • make a convincing case that the threat is real • be nearly free of grammatical or wording problems FRI OCT 30 MON NOV 2 discuss “We Are Training Our Kids to Kill” (p. 481) WED NOV 4 discuss “How Bingeing Became the New College Sport” (p. 476) FRI NOV 6 Homecoming—no classes after noon, no Blackboard assignment MON NOV 9 Discuss “The Real Skinny” (p. 492) No class—Blackboard assignment: online scavenger hunt (opens Monday, due by 11:59pm on Sunday 11/1) WED NOV 11 FRI NOV 13 No class—Blackboard assignment: essay five peer review. Post your draft by noon Friday, respond to two classmates’ by 11:59pm on Monday 11/16. You may wish to review skills from previous assignments as you work on this essay: • essay one: telling a story, creating an emotional response • essay two: how to create emotional response, utilizing evidence • essay three: defining important terms, using logic • essay four: establishing character and credibility WED OCT 28 Discuss “Our Unhealthy Obsession with Sickness (p. 469) MON OCT 26 Essay Four Due; Essay Five Assigned; meet in 70-122 MON NOV 16 No class—Dr. Hill at BTW Symposium (you can attend, too!) Meet in 70-122 for research time and citing instruction MON NOV 18 Essay five due; final portfolio assigned

Objective: Persuade readers that they should fear a threat of your choosing, real or fabricated. Due Date: Wednesday, November 18th Length: 4-5 pages Format: typed, double-spaced, standard font and margins For this essay, you will be putting together all the aspects of argument that we have been learning about over the last few weeks. You will be using those elements to convince your readers that some issue of your choosing is a threat to them. This issue can be a real threat that you believe people should actually be aware of, or it can be a threat that is not real but that you treat as real (whether it be a fictional/legendary threat or something that is perhaps a small threat but that you present as a big one). Your job is to convince your audience to take this threat seriously, and to do that, you will need to make use of emotional appeal (especially to fear—think back to essays one and two), logical appeal (partly use of details/facts/ evidence we discussed in essay four, but also through definition such as we worked on in essay three), and ethical appeal (your own credibility—think back to issues besides logic and evidence covered in essay four). You may choose to include outside sources if you wish, but you must cite them if you use them and indicate when you are using the words of the original source. We will discuss how to find and to cite them to prepare you to use them correctly. If writing about a fictional threat, you may wish to make up sources. If you do so, I leave it up to you whether you formally cite them (though you must do this if you are using real sources) or informally refer to them in a manner similar to what we saw in the articles we read for essay four. Turning in an essay in which significant portions are not written by you and/or without outside sources cited will result in an essay grade of zero (and not revisable for a higher grade). If you are unsure what to cite, let me know. For ideas, you may want to browse the website snopes.com. This site contains lists and research about many feasible topics for this essay. Try not to use Snopes itself as a source—most entries there contain a list of sources that would be more appropriate for you to utilize and credit in your research. You may also choose to write about a topic covered by one of the essay four articles—if you liked an issue but felt that the warning about it was not very credible, you can use this paper as an opportunity to write about that topic but in a believable, convincing way. Whatever you choose as your topic, by the end of it, you want your reader to believe that what you discuss is a real threat to them. Essay Five: Argument Paper/Warning Assignment Description English 101, Sections 26 & 30 Fall 2015 Skills We Will Cover In This Unit: • finding & citing sources • utilizing emotional, logical, and ethical appeal SCHEDULE GRADING Incomplete papers or papers that stray from the assigned topic/purpose will receive a D or F. C B A To earn at least a C, the paper should: • have a clearly established threat that it attempts to warn the reader about • cite any information obtained from outside sources • be written in such a way as it can be easily understood by the reader To earn a B, the paper should fulfill the criteria above, plus: • include at least one section intended to appeal to the reader’s emotions (especially fear) • include logical support in the form of evidence, details, or other forms of establishing logical reasoning • be organized well, which includes having a clear sense of structure and transitioning into new ideas • include only the information and discussion necessary to accomplish the purpose of the assignment • have only a few grammatical errors, and those should not interfere with understanding To earn an A, the paper should fulfill the criteria for a B paper, plus: • possess strong unity of ideas • skillfully utilize all three rhetorical appeals • make a convincing case that the threat is real • be nearly free of grammatical or wording problems FRI OCT 30 MON NOV 2 discuss “We Are Training Our Kids to Kill” (p. 481) WED NOV 4 discuss “How Bingeing Became the New College Sport” (p. 476) FRI NOV 6 Homecoming—no classes after noon, no Blackboard assignment MON NOV 9 Discuss “The Real Skinny” (p. 492) No class—Blackboard assignment: online scavenger hunt (opens Monday, due by 11:59pm on Sunday 11/1) WED NOV 11 FRI NOV 13 No class—Blackboard assignment: essay five peer review. Post your draft by noon Friday, respond to two classmates’ by 11:59pm on Monday 11/16. You may wish to review skills from previous assignments as you work on this essay: • essay one: telling a story, creating an emotional response • essay two: how to create emotional response, utilizing evidence • essay three: defining important terms, using logic • essay four: establishing character and credibility WED OCT 28 Discuss “Our Unhealthy Obsession with Sickness (p. 469) MON OCT 26 Essay Four Due; Essay Five Assigned; meet in 70-122 MON NOV 16 No class—Dr. Hill at BTW Symposium (you can attend, too!) Meet in 70-122 for research time and citing instruction MON NOV 18 Essay five due; final portfolio assigned

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Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

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If the alternating current in a circuit is described by the equation I=28sin60t, what is the peak current and frequency? 1) 20A;30Hz 2) 28 A; 30Hz 3) 20 A; 60Hz 4) 28 A; 9.55 Hz 5) 28 A; 60 Hz.

If the alternating current in a circuit is described by the equation I=28sin60t, what is the peak current and frequency? 1) 20A;30Hz 2) 28 A; 30Hz 3) 20 A; 60Hz 4) 28 A; 9.55 Hz 5) 28 A; 60 Hz.

You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Exercise 2.5 Starting from the front door of your ranch house, you walk 60.0 due east to your windmill, and then you turn around and slowly walk 35.0 west to a bench where you sit and watch the sunrise. It takes you 27.0 to walk from your house to the windmill and then 49.0 to walk from the windmill to the bench. Part A For the entire trip from your front door to the bench, what is your average velocity? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B For the entire trip from your front door to the bench, what is your average speed? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.7 A car is stopped at a traffic light. It then travels along a straight road so that its distance from the light is given by , where = 2.40 and = 0.110 . = -0.329 average speed = 1.25 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 1 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Part A Calculate the average velocity of the car for the time interval = 0 to = 10.0 . ANSWER: Correct Part B Calculate the instantaneous velocity of the car at =0. ANSWER: Correct Part C Calculate the instantaneous velocity of the car at =5.00 . ANSWER: Correct Part D Calculate the instantaneous velocity of the car at =10.0 . ANSWER: Correct Part E How long after starting from rest is the car again at rest? ANSWER: = 13.0 = 0 = 15.8 = 15.0 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 2 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Exercise 2.9 A ball moves in a straight line (the x-axis). The graph in the figure shows this ball’s velocity as a function of time. Part A What are the ball’s average velocity during the first 2.8 ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Answer Requested Part B What are the ball’s average speed during the first 2.8 ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct = 14.5 = 2.3 = 2.3 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 3 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Part C Suppose that the ball moved in such a way that the graph segment after 2.0 was -3.0 instead of +3.0 . Find the ball’s and average velocity during the first 2.8 in this case. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: All attempts used; correct answer displayed Part D Suppose that the ball moved in such a way that the graph segment after 2.0 was -3.0 instead of +3.0 . Find the ball’s average speed during the first 2.8 in this case. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.13 Part A The table shows test data for the Bugatti Veyron, the fastest car made. The car is moving in a straight line (the x-axis). Time 0 2.10 20.0 53.0 Speed 0 60.0 205 259 Calculate the car’s average acceleration (in ) between 0 and 2.1 . ANSWER: Correct Part B Calculate the car’s average acceleration (in ) between 2.1 and 20.0 . = 0.57 = 2.3 = 12.8 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 4 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM ANSWER: Correct Part C Calculate the car’s average acceleration (in ) between 20.0 and 53 . ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.19 An antelope moving with constant acceleration covers the distance 79.0 between two points in time 7.00 . Its speed as it passes the second point is 14.5 . Part A What is its speed at the first point? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the acceleration? ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.22 In the fastest measured tennis serve, the ball left the racquet at 73.14 . A served tennis ball is typically in contact with = 3.62 = 0.731 = 8.07 = 0.918 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 5 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM the racquet for 27.0 and starts from rest. Assume constant acceleration. Part A What was the ball’s acceleration during this serve? ANSWER: Correct Part B How far did the ball travel during the serve? ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.30 A cat walks in a straight line, which we shall call the x-axis with the positive direction to the right. As an observant physicist, you make measurements of this cat’s motion and construct a graph of the feline’s velocity as a function of time (the figure ). Part A Find the cat’s velocity at = 5.0 . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: = 2710 = 0.987 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 6 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part B Find the cat’s velocity at = 8.0 . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the cat’s acceleration at ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the cat’s acceleration at ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part E What is the cat’s acceleration at ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: = 1.3 = -2.7 = -1.3 = -1.3 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 7 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part F What distance does the cat move during the first 4.5 ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part G What distance does the cat move from to ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part H Sketch clear graph of the cat’s acceleration as function of time, assuming that the cat started at the origin. ANSWER: = -1.3 = 23 = 26 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 8 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part I Sketch clear graph of the cat’s position as function of time, assuming that the cat started at the origin. ANSWER: Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 9 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM All attempts used; correct answer displayed Exercise 2.35 Part A If a flea can jump straight up to a height of 0.510 , what is its initial speed as it leaves the ground? ANSWER: Correct Part B How long is it in the air? ANSWER: Correct = 3.16 = 0.645 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 10 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Exercise 2.36 A small rock is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 18.0 from the edge of the roof of a 39.0 tall building. The rock doesn’t hit the building on its way back down and lands in the street below. Air resistance can be neglected. Part A What is the speed of the rock just before it hits the street? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B How much time elapses from when the rock is thrown until it hits the street? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.38 You throw a glob of putty straight up toward the ceiling, which is 3.00 above the point where the putty leaves your hand. The initial speed of the putty as it leaves your hand is 9.70 . Part A What is the speed of the putty just before it strikes the ceiling? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B = 33.0 = 5.20 = 5.94 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 11 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM How much time from when it leaves your hand does it take the putty to reach the ceiling? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 3.1 A squirrel has x- and y-coordinates ( 1.2 , 3.3 ) at time and coordinates ( 5.3 , -0.80 ) at time = 2.6 . Part A For this time interval, find the x-component of the average velocity. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part B For this time interval, find the y-component of the average velocity. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part C Find the magnitude of the average velocity. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: = 0.384 = 1.6 = -1.6 = 2.2 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 12 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part D Find the direction of the average velocity. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 3.3 A web page designer creates an animation in which a dot on a computer screen has a position of 4.1 2.1 4.7 . Part A Find the average velocity of the dot between and . Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part B Find the instantaneous velocity at . Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part C = 45 below the x-axis = 4.2,4.7 = 0,4.7 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 13 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Find the instantaneous velocity at . Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part D Find the instantaneous velocity at . Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 3.5 A jet plane is flying at a constant altitude. At time it has components of velocity 89 , 108 . At time 32.5 the components are 165 , 37 . Part A For this time interval calculate the average acceleration. Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part B Find the magnitude of the average acceleration. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: = 4.2,4.7 = 8.4,4.7 = 2.3,-2.2 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 14 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part C Find the direction of the average acceleration (let the direction be the angle that the vector makes with the +x-axis, measured counterclockwise). ANSWER: Correct Exercise 3.4 The position of a squirrel running in a park is given by . Part A What is , the -component of the velocity of the squirrel, as function of time? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is , the y-component of the velocity of the squirrel, as function of time? ANSWER: = 3.2 = -43.1 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 15 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part C At 4.51 , how far is the squirrel from its initial position? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: All attempts used; correct answer displayed Part D At 4.51 , what is the magnitude of the squirrel’s velocity? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part E At 4.51 , what is the direction (in degrees counterclockwise from +x-axis) of the squirrel’s velocity? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 90.1%. You received 14.42 out of a possible total of 16 points. = 2.65 = 1.31 = 62.5 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 16 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM

You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Exercise 2.5 Starting from the front door of your ranch house, you walk 60.0 due east to your windmill, and then you turn around and slowly walk 35.0 west to a bench where you sit and watch the sunrise. It takes you 27.0 to walk from your house to the windmill and then 49.0 to walk from the windmill to the bench. Part A For the entire trip from your front door to the bench, what is your average velocity? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B For the entire trip from your front door to the bench, what is your average speed? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.7 A car is stopped at a traffic light. It then travels along a straight road so that its distance from the light is given by , where = 2.40 and = 0.110 . = -0.329 average speed = 1.25 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 1 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Part A Calculate the average velocity of the car for the time interval = 0 to = 10.0 . ANSWER: Correct Part B Calculate the instantaneous velocity of the car at =0. ANSWER: Correct Part C Calculate the instantaneous velocity of the car at =5.00 . ANSWER: Correct Part D Calculate the instantaneous velocity of the car at =10.0 . ANSWER: Correct Part E How long after starting from rest is the car again at rest? ANSWER: = 13.0 = 0 = 15.8 = 15.0 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 2 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Exercise 2.9 A ball moves in a straight line (the x-axis). The graph in the figure shows this ball’s velocity as a function of time. Part A What are the ball’s average velocity during the first 2.8 ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Answer Requested Part B What are the ball’s average speed during the first 2.8 ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct = 14.5 = 2.3 = 2.3 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 3 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Part C Suppose that the ball moved in such a way that the graph segment after 2.0 was -3.0 instead of +3.0 . Find the ball’s and average velocity during the first 2.8 in this case. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: All attempts used; correct answer displayed Part D Suppose that the ball moved in such a way that the graph segment after 2.0 was -3.0 instead of +3.0 . Find the ball’s average speed during the first 2.8 in this case. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.13 Part A The table shows test data for the Bugatti Veyron, the fastest car made. The car is moving in a straight line (the x-axis). Time 0 2.10 20.0 53.0 Speed 0 60.0 205 259 Calculate the car’s average acceleration (in ) between 0 and 2.1 . ANSWER: Correct Part B Calculate the car’s average acceleration (in ) between 2.1 and 20.0 . = 0.57 = 2.3 = 12.8 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 4 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM ANSWER: Correct Part C Calculate the car’s average acceleration (in ) between 20.0 and 53 . ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.19 An antelope moving with constant acceleration covers the distance 79.0 between two points in time 7.00 . Its speed as it passes the second point is 14.5 . Part A What is its speed at the first point? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the acceleration? ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.22 In the fastest measured tennis serve, the ball left the racquet at 73.14 . A served tennis ball is typically in contact with = 3.62 = 0.731 = 8.07 = 0.918 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 5 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM the racquet for 27.0 and starts from rest. Assume constant acceleration. Part A What was the ball’s acceleration during this serve? ANSWER: Correct Part B How far did the ball travel during the serve? ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.30 A cat walks in a straight line, which we shall call the x-axis with the positive direction to the right. As an observant physicist, you make measurements of this cat’s motion and construct a graph of the feline’s velocity as a function of time (the figure ). Part A Find the cat’s velocity at = 5.0 . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: = 2710 = 0.987 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 6 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part B Find the cat’s velocity at = 8.0 . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the cat’s acceleration at ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the cat’s acceleration at ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part E What is the cat’s acceleration at ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: = 1.3 = -2.7 = -1.3 = -1.3 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 7 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part F What distance does the cat move during the first 4.5 ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part G What distance does the cat move from to ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part H Sketch clear graph of the cat’s acceleration as function of time, assuming that the cat started at the origin. ANSWER: = -1.3 = 23 = 26 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 8 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part I Sketch clear graph of the cat’s position as function of time, assuming that the cat started at the origin. ANSWER: Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 9 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM All attempts used; correct answer displayed Exercise 2.35 Part A If a flea can jump straight up to a height of 0.510 , what is its initial speed as it leaves the ground? ANSWER: Correct Part B How long is it in the air? ANSWER: Correct = 3.16 = 0.645 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 10 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Exercise 2.36 A small rock is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 18.0 from the edge of the roof of a 39.0 tall building. The rock doesn’t hit the building on its way back down and lands in the street below. Air resistance can be neglected. Part A What is the speed of the rock just before it hits the street? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B How much time elapses from when the rock is thrown until it hits the street? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 2.38 You throw a glob of putty straight up toward the ceiling, which is 3.00 above the point where the putty leaves your hand. The initial speed of the putty as it leaves your hand is 9.70 . Part A What is the speed of the putty just before it strikes the ceiling? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B = 33.0 = 5.20 = 5.94 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 11 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM How much time from when it leaves your hand does it take the putty to reach the ceiling? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 3.1 A squirrel has x- and y-coordinates ( 1.2 , 3.3 ) at time and coordinates ( 5.3 , -0.80 ) at time = 2.6 . Part A For this time interval, find the x-component of the average velocity. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part B For this time interval, find the y-component of the average velocity. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part C Find the magnitude of the average velocity. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: = 0.384 = 1.6 = -1.6 = 2.2 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 12 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part D Find the direction of the average velocity. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 3.3 A web page designer creates an animation in which a dot on a computer screen has a position of 4.1 2.1 4.7 . Part A Find the average velocity of the dot between and . Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part B Find the instantaneous velocity at . Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part C = 45 below the x-axis = 4.2,4.7 = 0,4.7 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 13 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Find the instantaneous velocity at . Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part D Find the instantaneous velocity at . Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Exercise 3.5 A jet plane is flying at a constant altitude. At time it has components of velocity 89 , 108 . At time 32.5 the components are 165 , 37 . Part A For this time interval calculate the average acceleration. Give your answer as a pair of components separated by a comma. For example, if you think the x component is 3 and the y component is 4, then you should enter 3,4. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part B Find the magnitude of the average acceleration. Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: = 4.2,4.7 = 8.4,4.7 = 2.3,-2.2 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 14 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part C Find the direction of the average acceleration (let the direction be the angle that the vector makes with the +x-axis, measured counterclockwise). ANSWER: Correct Exercise 3.4 The position of a squirrel running in a park is given by . Part A What is , the -component of the velocity of the squirrel, as function of time? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is , the y-component of the velocity of the squirrel, as function of time? ANSWER: = 3.2 = -43.1 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 15 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM Correct Part C At 4.51 , how far is the squirrel from its initial position? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: All attempts used; correct answer displayed Part D At 4.51 , what is the magnitude of the squirrel’s velocity? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part E At 4.51 , what is the direction (in degrees counterclockwise from +x-axis) of the squirrel’s velocity? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 90.1%. You received 14.42 out of a possible total of 16 points. = 2.65 = 1.31 = 62.5 Week 2 https://session.masteringphysics.com/myct/assignmentPrintView?assignme… 16 of 16 3/23/2015 11:12 AM

each of the four force acting at E has a magnitude of 28 kN, Part A) Express Fea as cartesian vector, Part B) Express FEB as a cartasian vector, Part C) Express Fec as Cartesian vector, part D) Express Fed as Cartesian vector, Part E) Determine the resultant fore

each of the four force acting at E has a magnitude of 28 kN, Part A) Express Fea as cartesian vector, Part B) Express FEB as a cartasian vector, Part C) Express Fec as Cartesian vector, part D) Express Fed as Cartesian vector, Part E) Determine the resultant fore

Part A