PART 1: (Total 350 pts – 35pts per hazard x 10 hazards) Each identified hazard should contain the following elements (Element 1 ~ 7 below). Furthermore, each student will need to provide his/her responses in a pragraph format for each element by JUSTIFYING/SUPPORTING his/her responses: ELEMENT 1) Explain Hazard you identified. What kind of exposure does each hazard have on employee ? What is the hazard? What could go wrong? Think in terms of “What ifs?” or “What could happen?” In this section, you are to describe a situation(s) and discuss what could happen (5pts). ELEMENT 2) Who would be at risk? Be specific group of individuals who would be at risk meaning don’t just say “employees” or “students” are affected. Rather be sure to JUSTIFY your position/response. (5pts) ELEMENT 3) Identify Risk Level for each hazard you identified. When you determine risk level, it is critical that you JUSTIFY as to why you selected certain Frequency and Severity level. (5pts) ELEMENT 4) Citation. If you were a Compliance Safety and Health Officer (CSHO), which SPECIFIC standard/regulation would you cite this hazard under and WHY? You must provide exact standard (eg: 29CFR 1910.261(a)(1)(i)….) and state what it says AND relate your identified hazards with the standard/regulation. Eg: What was violated, etc. (5pts) ELEMENT 5) What is/are the abatement(s) or control measure(s) for each identified hazards and why? In other words, what or HOW would you correct this situation and WHY? This is where you must discuss “Two Stage Approach.” (5pts) It is important for you to select an appropriate corrective measure(s) to protect your employees. Again, we are here to protect human, property, and the environment. We can’t just say “just because.” We will need to have a good reason(s) or justification(s) as to WHY we take a certain approach or a corrective measure to protect human, propert, and the environment. Therefore, strong justification is critical in this section – when you do so, make sure to cite follow APA format. ELEMENT 6) Once you applied your control measure(s), you are to reassess Residual Risk to make sure that you have either eliminated or lowered your risk level to an acceptable level. ELEMENT 7) Supprting Resources: Each student must use at least two (2) “credible” resources PER HAZARD to support his/her responses. This EXCLUDE OSHA/citations. (5pts) seven (7) elements. NOTE 2: APA format needs to be followed for this Part 1. (See attached Sample) PART 2: (Total 15pts) Once you identified 10 hazards (two hazards/standard), you are to prioritize those hazards from most critical to least based on item 2 you did in Part 1. Furthermore, each student will need to prepare ONE PAGE, STAND ALONE document which outlines PRIORITIZATION of those hazards he/she identified and provide the information as as to which hazards need to be control the most. PART 3: (Total 20pts) Based on the above findings, you are to create 1 page report that includes above findings. Remember, one page does not necessary mean a vertical view of 8 1/2 by 11 paper. When you submit this REPORT, think in terms of you submitting this report to your boss. (This is a hands-on practice as to how you will compile a report. If you don’t know how to develop a report, I encourage you to research to determine types of report and come up with your own version. Remember, you will most likely to submit a report in a future that is not more than one page……

PART 1: (Total 350 pts – 35pts per hazard x 10 hazards) Each identified hazard should contain the following elements (Element 1 ~ 7 below). Furthermore, each student will need to provide his/her responses in a pragraph format for each element by JUSTIFYING/SUPPORTING his/her responses: ELEMENT 1) Explain Hazard you identified. What kind of exposure does each hazard have on employee ? What is the hazard? What could go wrong? Think in terms of “What ifs?” or “What could happen?” In this section, you are to describe a situation(s) and discuss what could happen (5pts). ELEMENT 2) Who would be at risk? Be specific group of individuals who would be at risk meaning don’t just say “employees” or “students” are affected. Rather be sure to JUSTIFY your position/response. (5pts) ELEMENT 3) Identify Risk Level for each hazard you identified. When you determine risk level, it is critical that you JUSTIFY as to why you selected certain Frequency and Severity level. (5pts) ELEMENT 4) Citation. If you were a Compliance Safety and Health Officer (CSHO), which SPECIFIC standard/regulation would you cite this hazard under and WHY? You must provide exact standard (eg: 29CFR 1910.261(a)(1)(i)….) and state what it says AND relate your identified hazards with the standard/regulation. Eg: What was violated, etc. (5pts) ELEMENT 5) What is/are the abatement(s) or control measure(s) for each identified hazards and why? In other words, what or HOW would you correct this situation and WHY? This is where you must discuss “Two Stage Approach.” (5pts) It is important for you to select an appropriate corrective measure(s) to protect your employees. Again, we are here to protect human, property, and the environment. We can’t just say “just because.” We will need to have a good reason(s) or justification(s) as to WHY we take a certain approach or a corrective measure to protect human, propert, and the environment. Therefore, strong justification is critical in this section – when you do so, make sure to cite follow APA format. ELEMENT 6) Once you applied your control measure(s), you are to reassess Residual Risk to make sure that you have either eliminated or lowered your risk level to an acceptable level. ELEMENT 7) Supprting Resources: Each student must use at least two (2) “credible” resources PER HAZARD to support his/her responses. This EXCLUDE OSHA/citations. (5pts) seven (7) elements. NOTE 2: APA format needs to be followed for this Part 1. (See attached Sample) PART 2: (Total 15pts) Once you identified 10 hazards (two hazards/standard), you are to prioritize those hazards from most critical to least based on item 2 you did in Part 1. Furthermore, each student will need to prepare ONE PAGE, STAND ALONE document which outlines PRIORITIZATION of those hazards he/she identified and provide the information as as to which hazards need to be control the most. PART 3: (Total 20pts) Based on the above findings, you are to create 1 page report that includes above findings. Remember, one page does not necessary mean a vertical view of 8 1/2 by 11 paper. When you submit this REPORT, think in terms of you submitting this report to your boss. (This is a hands-on practice as to how you will compile a report. If you don’t know how to develop a report, I encourage you to research to determine types of report and come up with your own version. Remember, you will most likely to submit a report in a future that is not more than one page……

info@checkyourstudy.com
1. The reaction time of a driver to visual stimulus is normally distributed with a mean of 0.2 seconds and a standard deviation of 0.1 seconds. 1‐1. (2 points) What is the probability that a reaction requires more than 0.5 seconds? 1‐2. (2 points) What is the probability that a reaction requires between 0.4 and 0.5 seconds? 1‐3. (2 points) What is the reaction time that is exceeded 95% of the time? 2. Spherical Uniform Distribution (Google! You do not have to explain why): 2‐1. (2 points) How can we pick a set of random points uniformly distributed on the unit circle x12 + x 2=1? 2‐2. (2 points) How can we pick a set of random points uniformly distributed on the 4‐dimensional unit 2 2 2 2 2 sphere x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 =1? 3. The random variable X has a binomial distribution with n = 19 and p = 0.4. Determine the following probabilities. (You may use computer. But, you have to show the formula.) 3‐1. (2 points) P(X ≤ 12) 3‐2. (2 points) P(X ≥ 18) 3‐3. (2 points) P(13 ≤ X < 15) 4. (2 points) Show the mean and the variance of the triangular distribution with lower limit a, upper limit b and mode c, where a < b and a ≤ c ≤ b. (You must show why.) 5. (2 points) An electronic office product contains 5000 electronic components. Assume that the probability that each component operates without failure during the useful life of the product is 0.999, and assume that the components fail independently. Approximate the probability that 10 or more of the original 5000 components fail during the useful life of the product. 6. Consider the following system made up of functional components in parallel and series. C2 0.80 C1 0.90 C4 0.95 C3 0.85 6‐1. (2 points) What is the probability that the system operates? 6‐2. (2 points) What is the probability that the system fails due to the components in series? Assume parallel components do not fail. 6‐3. (2 points) What is the probability that the system fails due to the components in parallel? Assume series components do not fail. 6‐4. (2 points) Compute and compare the probabilities that the system fails when the probability that component C1 functions is improved to a value of 0.95 and when the probability that component C2 functions is improved to a value of 0.85. Which improvement increases the system reliability more? 7. (2 points) Suppose that the joint distribution of X and Y has probability density function f(x, y) = 0.25xy for 0 < x < 2 and 0 < y < 2. Compute V(2X + 3Y). (Show all your work.)

1. The reaction time of a driver to visual stimulus is normally distributed with a mean of 0.2 seconds and a standard deviation of 0.1 seconds. 1‐1. (2 points) What is the probability that a reaction requires more than 0.5 seconds? 1‐2. (2 points) What is the probability that a reaction requires between 0.4 and 0.5 seconds? 1‐3. (2 points) What is the reaction time that is exceeded 95% of the time? 2. Spherical Uniform Distribution (Google! You do not have to explain why): 2‐1. (2 points) How can we pick a set of random points uniformly distributed on the unit circle x12 + x 2=1? 2‐2. (2 points) How can we pick a set of random points uniformly distributed on the 4‐dimensional unit 2 2 2 2 2 sphere x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 =1? 3. The random variable X has a binomial distribution with n = 19 and p = 0.4. Determine the following probabilities. (You may use computer. But, you have to show the formula.) 3‐1. (2 points) P(X ≤ 12) 3‐2. (2 points) P(X ≥ 18) 3‐3. (2 points) P(13 ≤ X < 15) 4. (2 points) Show the mean and the variance of the triangular distribution with lower limit a, upper limit b and mode c, where a < b and a ≤ c ≤ b. (You must show why.) 5. (2 points) An electronic office product contains 5000 electronic components. Assume that the probability that each component operates without failure during the useful life of the product is 0.999, and assume that the components fail independently. Approximate the probability that 10 or more of the original 5000 components fail during the useful life of the product. 6. Consider the following system made up of functional components in parallel and series. C2 0.80 C1 0.90 C4 0.95 C3 0.85 6‐1. (2 points) What is the probability that the system operates? 6‐2. (2 points) What is the probability that the system fails due to the components in series? Assume parallel components do not fail. 6‐3. (2 points) What is the probability that the system fails due to the components in parallel? Assume series components do not fail. 6‐4. (2 points) Compute and compare the probabilities that the system fails when the probability that component C1 functions is improved to a value of 0.95 and when the probability that component C2 functions is improved to a value of 0.85. Which improvement increases the system reliability more? 7. (2 points) Suppose that the joint distribution of X and Y has probability density function f(x, y) = 0.25xy for 0 < x < 2 and 0 < y < 2. Compute V(2X + 3Y). (Show all your work.)

info@checkyourstudy.com Whatsapp +919711743277
when two identical 5 ohm resistors are connected in series across a battery, the total power consumed by them is 20 W. If these the same resistors are connected in paraller across the same battery, the total power dissipated will be; A) zero , B) 0.5 Amps, C) 1 Amps, D) 1.5 Amps, E) 4 Amps

when two identical 5 ohm resistors are connected in series across a battery, the total power consumed by them is 20 W. If these the same resistors are connected in paraller across the same battery, the total power dissipated will be; A) zero , B) 0.5 Amps, C) 1 Amps, D) 1.5 Amps, E) 4 Amps

Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

info@checkyourstudy.com
Question 1, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 2 10 points The compound eyes of bees and other insects are highly sensitive to light in the ultraviolet portion of the spectrum, particularly light with frequencies between 7.5 × 1014 Hz and 1.0 × 1015 Hz. The speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s. What is the largest wavelength to which these frequencies correspond? Question 3, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 3 10 points A plane electromagnetic sinusoidal wave of frequency 10.7 MHz travels in free space. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s. Determine the wavelength of the wave. Question 4, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 3 10 points Find the period of the wave. Question 2, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 2 10 points What is the smallest wavelength? Question 5, chap 33, sect 3. part 3 of 3 10 points At some point and some instant, the electric field has has a value of 998 N/C. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at this point and this instant. Question 6, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 2 10 points A plane electromagnetic sinusoidal wave of frequency 10.7 MHz travels in free space. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s. Determine the wavelength of the wave. Question 8, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 1 10 points The magnetic field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is 9.9 × 10−6 T. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s . Calculate the amplitude of the electric field if the wave is traveling in free space. Question 7, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 2 10 points At some point and some instant, the electric field has has a value of 998 V/m. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at this point and this instant. Question 9, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 1 10 points The cable is carrying the current I(t). at the surface of a long transmission cable of resistivity ρ, length ℓ and radius a, using the expression ~S = 1 μ0 ~E × ~B . Question 10, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 1 10 points In 1965 Penzias and Wilson discovered the cosmic microwave radiation left over from the Big Bang expansion of the universe. The energy density of this radiation is 7.64 × 10−14 J/m3. The speed of light 2.99792 × 108 m/s and the permeability of free space is 4π × 10−7 N/A2. Determine the corresponding electric field amplQuestion 11, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 5 10 points Consider a monochromatic electromagnetic plane wave propagating in the x direction. At a particular point in space, the magnitude of the electric field has an instantaneous value of 998 V/m in the positive y-direction. The wave is traveling in the positive x-direction. x y z E wave propagation The speed of light is 2.99792×108 m/s, the permeability of free space is 4π×10−7 T ・ N/A and the permittivity of free space 8.85419 × 10−12 C2/N ・ m2. Compute the instantaneous magnitude of the magnetic field at the same point and time.itude. Question 12, chap 33, sect 5. part 2 of 5 10 points What is the instantaneous magnitude of the Poynting vector at the same point and time? Question 13, chap 33, sect 5. part 3 of 5 10 points What are the directions of the instantaneous magnetic field and theQuestion 14, chap 33, sect 5. part 4 of 5 10 points What is the instantaneous value of the energy density of the electric field? Question 16, chap 33, sect 6. part 1 of 4 10 points Consider an electromagnetic plane wave with time average intensity 104 W/m2 . The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s and the permeability of free space is 4 π × 10−7 T・m/A. What is its maximum electric field? What is the instantaneous value of the energy density of the magnetic field? Question 17, chap 33, sect 6. part 2 of 4 10 points What is the the maximum magnetic field? Question 19, chap 33, sect 6. part 4 of 4 10 points Consider an electromagnetic wave pattern as shown in the figure below. Question 18, chap 33, sect 6. part 3 of 4 10 points What is the pressure on a surface which is perpendicular to the beam and is totally reflective? Question 20, chap 33, sect 8. part 1 of 1 10 points A coin is at the bottom of a beaker. The beaker is filled with 1.6 cm of water (n1 = 1.33) covered by 2.1 cm of liquid (n2 = 1.4) floating on the water. How deep does the coin appear to be from the upper surface of the liquid (near the top of the beaker)? An cylindrical opaque drinking glass has a diameter 3 cm and height h, as shown in the figure. An observer’s eye is placed as shown (the observer is just barely looking over the rim of the glass). When empty, the observer can just barely see the edge of the bottom of the glass. When filled to the brim with a transparent liquid, the observer can just barely see the center of the bottom of the glass. The liquid in the drinking glass has an index of refraction of 1.4 . θi h d θr eye Calculate the angle θr . Question 22, chap 33, sect 8. part 2 of 2 10 points Calculate the height h of the glass.

Question 1, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 2 10 points The compound eyes of bees and other insects are highly sensitive to light in the ultraviolet portion of the spectrum, particularly light with frequencies between 7.5 × 1014 Hz and 1.0 × 1015 Hz. The speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s. What is the largest wavelength to which these frequencies correspond? Question 3, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 3 10 points A plane electromagnetic sinusoidal wave of frequency 10.7 MHz travels in free space. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s. Determine the wavelength of the wave. Question 4, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 3 10 points Find the period of the wave. Question 2, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 2 10 points What is the smallest wavelength? Question 5, chap 33, sect 3. part 3 of 3 10 points At some point and some instant, the electric field has has a value of 998 N/C. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at this point and this instant. Question 6, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 2 10 points A plane electromagnetic sinusoidal wave of frequency 10.7 MHz travels in free space. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s. Determine the wavelength of the wave. Question 8, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 1 10 points The magnetic field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is 9.9 × 10−6 T. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s . Calculate the amplitude of the electric field if the wave is traveling in free space. Question 7, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 2 10 points At some point and some instant, the electric field has has a value of 998 V/m. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at this point and this instant. Question 9, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 1 10 points The cable is carrying the current I(t). at the surface of a long transmission cable of resistivity ρ, length ℓ and radius a, using the expression ~S = 1 μ0 ~E × ~B . Question 10, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 1 10 points In 1965 Penzias and Wilson discovered the cosmic microwave radiation left over from the Big Bang expansion of the universe. The energy density of this radiation is 7.64 × 10−14 J/m3. The speed of light 2.99792 × 108 m/s and the permeability of free space is 4π × 10−7 N/A2. Determine the corresponding electric field amplQuestion 11, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 5 10 points Consider a monochromatic electromagnetic plane wave propagating in the x direction. At a particular point in space, the magnitude of the electric field has an instantaneous value of 998 V/m in the positive y-direction. The wave is traveling in the positive x-direction. x y z E wave propagation The speed of light is 2.99792×108 m/s, the permeability of free space is 4π×10−7 T ・ N/A and the permittivity of free space 8.85419 × 10−12 C2/N ・ m2. Compute the instantaneous magnitude of the magnetic field at the same point and time.itude. Question 12, chap 33, sect 5. part 2 of 5 10 points What is the instantaneous magnitude of the Poynting vector at the same point and time? Question 13, chap 33, sect 5. part 3 of 5 10 points What are the directions of the instantaneous magnetic field and theQuestion 14, chap 33, sect 5. part 4 of 5 10 points What is the instantaneous value of the energy density of the electric field? Question 16, chap 33, sect 6. part 1 of 4 10 points Consider an electromagnetic plane wave with time average intensity 104 W/m2 . The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s and the permeability of free space is 4 π × 10−7 T・m/A. What is its maximum electric field? What is the instantaneous value of the energy density of the magnetic field? Question 17, chap 33, sect 6. part 2 of 4 10 points What is the the maximum magnetic field? Question 19, chap 33, sect 6. part 4 of 4 10 points Consider an electromagnetic wave pattern as shown in the figure below. Question 18, chap 33, sect 6. part 3 of 4 10 points What is the pressure on a surface which is perpendicular to the beam and is totally reflective? Question 20, chap 33, sect 8. part 1 of 1 10 points A coin is at the bottom of a beaker. The beaker is filled with 1.6 cm of water (n1 = 1.33) covered by 2.1 cm of liquid (n2 = 1.4) floating on the water. How deep does the coin appear to be from the upper surface of the liquid (near the top of the beaker)? An cylindrical opaque drinking glass has a diameter 3 cm and height h, as shown in the figure. An observer’s eye is placed as shown (the observer is just barely looking over the rim of the glass). When empty, the observer can just barely see the edge of the bottom of the glass. When filled to the brim with a transparent liquid, the observer can just barely see the center of the bottom of the glass. The liquid in the drinking glass has an index of refraction of 1.4 . θi h d θr eye Calculate the angle θr . Question 22, chap 33, sect 8. part 2 of 2 10 points Calculate the height h of the glass.

Quiz Page 1 of 2 Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question. ________________________________________ Question 1 (1 point) Which of the following can cause cervicitis? Question 1 options: Candida Sexually transmitted infections Irritation from a contraceptive All of these choices are correct Question 2 (1 point) There is every indication that cervical cancer may take _____ or more years to develop. Question 2 options: 5 15 2 10 Question 3 (1 point) Cervical cancer is found almost exclusively in women who have been Question 3 options: sexually active underweight celibate overweight Question 4 (1 point) The best predictor for survival of ovarian cancer is Question 4 options: the sexual history of the patient how far the tumor has spread the amount of diagnostic measures taken the attitude (positive or negative) of the patient Question 5 (1 point) The current recommendation for most women, after becoming sexually active or starting at age 21, is to have a Pap smear done Question 5 options: once every 3 years once every year once every 5 years once every 6 months Page 1 of 2 ________________________________________ Quiz Page 2 of 2 Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question. Question 6 (1 point) Which of the following is not a fibroid classification? Question 6 options: Submucous Subserous Extramural Intramural Question 7 (1 point) Statistics indicate that _____ of breast cancers are diagnosed when women are between 45 and 64 years of age. Question 7 options: 47% 14% 22% 35% Question 8 (1 point) Ovarian cancers are classified according to their: Question 8 options: Cellular origin Symptoms Genetic predispositions All of these choices are correct Question 9 (1 point) The primary initial symptom of endometrial cancer is Question 9 options: odiferous vaginal discharge abnormal and painless vaginal bleeding painful, often incapacitating, cramps involuntary uterine contractions Question 10 (1 point) Ovarian cancers are considered the worst of gynecological malignancies because Question 10 options: they sometimes develop slowly they are often symptomless until it is too late too little is known about this disease both A and B are correct choices Page 2 of 2 Quiz 8 Quiz Page 2 of 2 Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question. Question 6 (1 point) The best predictor for survival of ovarian cancer is Question 6 options: the sexual history of the patient how far the tumor has spread the attitude (positive or negative) of the patient the amount of diagnostic measures taken Question 7 (1 point) Ovarian cancers are classified according to their: Question 7 options: Genetic predispositions Symptoms Cellular origin All of these choices are correct Question 8 (1 point) The primary initial symptom of endometrial cancer is Question 8 options: involuntary uterine contractions painful, often incapacitating, cramps abnormal and painless vaginal bleeding odiferous vaginal discharge Question 9 (1 point) Cervical cancer is found almost exclusively in women who have been Question 9 options: sexually active underweight celibate overweight Question 10 (1 point) Several screening techniques for early detection of ovarian cancer have been developed. As of yet _____ have proven effective. Question 10 options: 50% All None 25% Page 2 of 2 ________________________________________ Quiz Page 1 of 2 Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question. ________________________________________ Question 1 (1 point) The unsubstantiated idea that the uterus was damaged by sports and emotions remained common into the: Question 1 options: 1890s 1950s 1920s 1970s Question 2 (1 point) Which of the following can cause cervicitis? Question 2 options: Candida Sexually transmitted infections Irritation from a contraceptive All of these choices are correct Question 3 (1 point) There is every indication that cervical cancer may take _____ or more years to develop. Question 3 options: 10 5 2 15 Question 4 (1 point) Which of the following is not a fibroid classification? Question 4 options: Intramural Subserous Extramural Submucous Question 5 (1 point) Ovarian cancers are considered the worst of gynecological malignancies because Question 5 options: they sometimes develop slowly they are often symptomless until it is too late too little is known about this disease both A and B are correct choices Page 1 of 2 ________________________________________

Quiz Page 1 of 2 Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question. ________________________________________ Question 1 (1 point) Which of the following can cause cervicitis? Question 1 options: Candida Sexually transmitted infections Irritation from a contraceptive All of these choices are correct Question 2 (1 point) There is every indication that cervical cancer may take _____ or more years to develop. Question 2 options: 5 15 2 10 Question 3 (1 point) Cervical cancer is found almost exclusively in women who have been Question 3 options: sexually active underweight celibate overweight Question 4 (1 point) The best predictor for survival of ovarian cancer is Question 4 options: the sexual history of the patient how far the tumor has spread the amount of diagnostic measures taken the attitude (positive or negative) of the patient Question 5 (1 point) The current recommendation for most women, after becoming sexually active or starting at age 21, is to have a Pap smear done Question 5 options: once every 3 years once every year once every 5 years once every 6 months Page 1 of 2 ________________________________________ Quiz Page 2 of 2 Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question. Question 6 (1 point) Which of the following is not a fibroid classification? Question 6 options: Submucous Subserous Extramural Intramural Question 7 (1 point) Statistics indicate that _____ of breast cancers are diagnosed when women are between 45 and 64 years of age. Question 7 options: 47% 14% 22% 35% Question 8 (1 point) Ovarian cancers are classified according to their: Question 8 options: Cellular origin Symptoms Genetic predispositions All of these choices are correct Question 9 (1 point) The primary initial symptom of endometrial cancer is Question 9 options: odiferous vaginal discharge abnormal and painless vaginal bleeding painful, often incapacitating, cramps involuntary uterine contractions Question 10 (1 point) Ovarian cancers are considered the worst of gynecological malignancies because Question 10 options: they sometimes develop slowly they are often symptomless until it is too late too little is known about this disease both A and B are correct choices Page 2 of 2 Quiz 8 Quiz Page 2 of 2 Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question. Question 6 (1 point) The best predictor for survival of ovarian cancer is Question 6 options: the sexual history of the patient how far the tumor has spread the attitude (positive or negative) of the patient the amount of diagnostic measures taken Question 7 (1 point) Ovarian cancers are classified according to their: Question 7 options: Genetic predispositions Symptoms Cellular origin All of these choices are correct Question 8 (1 point) The primary initial symptom of endometrial cancer is Question 8 options: involuntary uterine contractions painful, often incapacitating, cramps abnormal and painless vaginal bleeding odiferous vaginal discharge Question 9 (1 point) Cervical cancer is found almost exclusively in women who have been Question 9 options: sexually active underweight celibate overweight Question 10 (1 point) Several screening techniques for early detection of ovarian cancer have been developed. As of yet _____ have proven effective. Question 10 options: 50% All None 25% Page 2 of 2 ________________________________________ Quiz Page 1 of 2 Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question. ________________________________________ Question 1 (1 point) The unsubstantiated idea that the uterus was damaged by sports and emotions remained common into the: Question 1 options: 1890s 1950s 1920s 1970s Question 2 (1 point) Which of the following can cause cervicitis? Question 2 options: Candida Sexually transmitted infections Irritation from a contraceptive All of these choices are correct Question 3 (1 point) There is every indication that cervical cancer may take _____ or more years to develop. Question 3 options: 10 5 2 15 Question 4 (1 point) Which of the following is not a fibroid classification? Question 4 options: Intramural Subserous Extramural Submucous Question 5 (1 point) Ovarian cancers are considered the worst of gynecological malignancies because Question 5 options: they sometimes develop slowly they are often symptomless until it is too late too little is known about this disease both A and B are correct choices Page 1 of 2 ________________________________________

info@checkyourstudy.com Whatsapp +919911743277
Critical Reflection Assignment (Essay 5) Goals: • As the name implies, the hope is you will reflect on your writing choices, which may in turn get you to rethink some of them and perhaps give you ideas for further revision. • Reflecting also gives you opportunity to reinforce good choices you made and hence remember them to do again when you write future papers. • This further provides you the opportunity to take credit for some good choices and hopefully bolster your confidence. • It allows you to point out why your paper demonstrates your competency in writing academic essays to justify a passing grade in English 111. • It also is a last ditch effort to show your thinking!!! If you explain why you made the choices you did in your synthesis essay, and you truly share your thinking, it helps you meet top box expectations yet again. Directions: 1. Choose either essay 3 or 4 to write about. 2. Take some time to reflect on how your idea for that essay came about, why you picked that idea to go with, what questions came to mind, and what pre-writing strategies you went through to get started. 3. Get out one of your copies of the English 111 Rubric. Go over it. Make sure you know what each box is looking for. 4. Plan an essay that helps you show that you have met the expectations of each box. Stress your thinking and reasoning. For any idea you include – explain why you did those things. Emphasize what you believed the job was, why you chose to approach it the way you did, the options you considered, and what you ended up doing after revising. 5. Be sure to include a discussion of effective thinking, complexity, source selection, source use, synthesis, and revision. 6. As you have teachers in your audience, it would likely be a good choice to include what you learned and how you’ll use that in your future writing. Rough Draft should be completed Tuesday Week 14. Final (REVISED) Copy due at your meeting week 14/15.

Critical Reflection Assignment (Essay 5) Goals: • As the name implies, the hope is you will reflect on your writing choices, which may in turn get you to rethink some of them and perhaps give you ideas for further revision. • Reflecting also gives you opportunity to reinforce good choices you made and hence remember them to do again when you write future papers. • This further provides you the opportunity to take credit for some good choices and hopefully bolster your confidence. • It allows you to point out why your paper demonstrates your competency in writing academic essays to justify a passing grade in English 111. • It also is a last ditch effort to show your thinking!!! If you explain why you made the choices you did in your synthesis essay, and you truly share your thinking, it helps you meet top box expectations yet again. Directions: 1. Choose either essay 3 or 4 to write about. 2. Take some time to reflect on how your idea for that essay came about, why you picked that idea to go with, what questions came to mind, and what pre-writing strategies you went through to get started. 3. Get out one of your copies of the English 111 Rubric. Go over it. Make sure you know what each box is looking for. 4. Plan an essay that helps you show that you have met the expectations of each box. Stress your thinking and reasoning. For any idea you include – explain why you did those things. Emphasize what you believed the job was, why you chose to approach it the way you did, the options you considered, and what you ended up doing after revising. 5. Be sure to include a discussion of effective thinking, complexity, source selection, source use, synthesis, and revision. 6. As you have teachers in your audience, it would likely be a good choice to include what you learned and how you’ll use that in your future writing. Rough Draft should be completed Tuesday Week 14. Final (REVISED) Copy due at your meeting week 14/15.

ENG 111 M05 14 Apr. 15   Forest Gump and … Read More...
New York Project The assignment is to write a five paragraph paper in which you plan a theatre trip to New York City to see FOUR shows. To complete this work, use internet sources, the most thorough of which is the New York Times Theater section (see below for this and other options). The first paragraph should explain the trip’s rationale, who will be going with you (church group, theatre group, friends, etc), and a proposed budget. You should then find possible flights and hotel accommodations. In each subsequent paragraph (paragraphs 2, 3, 4, and 5), name the shows (four in total—one per paragraph) you have decided to see. Include in each paragraph the reason you have chosen to see this particular show. You will need to quote portions of reviews, both professional and reader’s, as part of your justification for your choice. Be sure to cite the name of the reviewer as well as the source from which the review was found. (Example: Ben Brantley of the New York Times calls Shrek the Musical, “Quote from review.”— or similar format.) It is not necessary to provide a “Works Cited” page, but you must reference your source within your paper as noted in the previous sentence. You must also include ticket prices and the theater where the show is playing, as well as any other pertinent information (such as a prominent actor in the cast, etc.). Be sure to follow your budget; try not to plan to see four Broadway musicals as this could eat up your budget very quickly. Mix and match with Off and Off Off Broadway, where the tickets are cheaper. Try to find at least one or two shows you have never heard of but which sound interesting because of your research into the reviews. Sources for research: New York Times page at www.nytimes.com. Select the “Arts” section (left menu). On the Arts page, select THEATER (menu near top of page). On the THEATER page, you can click on the Broadway, Off Broadway, & Off Off Broadway headings (menu near top of page), which will provide you with a list of what’s playing. Click on the show title to gain access to information such as the show’s location, ticket prices, and links to reviews, both professional and reader’s.

New York Project The assignment is to write a five paragraph paper in which you plan a theatre trip to New York City to see FOUR shows. To complete this work, use internet sources, the most thorough of which is the New York Times Theater section (see below for this and other options). The first paragraph should explain the trip’s rationale, who will be going with you (church group, theatre group, friends, etc), and a proposed budget. You should then find possible flights and hotel accommodations. In each subsequent paragraph (paragraphs 2, 3, 4, and 5), name the shows (four in total—one per paragraph) you have decided to see. Include in each paragraph the reason you have chosen to see this particular show. You will need to quote portions of reviews, both professional and reader’s, as part of your justification for your choice. Be sure to cite the name of the reviewer as well as the source from which the review was found. (Example: Ben Brantley of the New York Times calls Shrek the Musical, “Quote from review.”— or similar format.) It is not necessary to provide a “Works Cited” page, but you must reference your source within your paper as noted in the previous sentence. You must also include ticket prices and the theater where the show is playing, as well as any other pertinent information (such as a prominent actor in the cast, etc.). Be sure to follow your budget; try not to plan to see four Broadway musicals as this could eat up your budget very quickly. Mix and match with Off and Off Off Broadway, where the tickets are cheaper. Try to find at least one or two shows you have never heard of but which sound interesting because of your research into the reviews. Sources for research: New York Times page at www.nytimes.com. Select the “Arts” section (left menu). On the Arts page, select THEATER (menu near top of page). On the THEATER page, you can click on the Broadway, Off Broadway, & Off Off Broadway headings (menu near top of page), which will provide you with a list of what’s playing. Click on the show title to gain access to information such as the show’s location, ticket prices, and links to reviews, both professional and reader’s.

Design the manufacturing processes. no copy from internet. drowning pic for the processes. Requirement on the project report: 1. Cover page of the project 2. Table of the content 3. Abstract 4. Introduction 5. Conclusion on this research 6. References (during this research)

Design the manufacturing processes. no copy from internet. drowning pic for the processes. Requirement on the project report: 1. Cover page of the project 2. Table of the content 3. Abstract 4. Introduction 5. Conclusion on this research 6. References (during this research)

No expert has answered this question yet. You can browse … Read More...