CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

Use the link provided to answer the questions below. http://www.worlddialogue.org/content.php?id=384 According to the article, what was President George W. Bush’s main rationale for going to war with Iraq? A. Bush believed that by promoting democracy, we promote peace around the world. B. Bush believed that Iraq was a key player in the global drug trade. C. Bush feared Osama bin Laden would assume power in Iraq. D. Intelligence reports showed Iraq was planning to attack Afghanistan. E. Bush had no opinion about invading Iraq. What is the democratic peace theory? A. the theory that indicates that democracy will inevitably spread and we should assist it peacefully B. the theory that economic growth leads to a peaceful democratic state C. the theory that democracies tend not to fight one another D. the theory that the key to a successful democratic transition is through a peaceful transfer of power E. the theory that peace and democracy are actually inconsistent with one another What did Mansfield and Syder conclude happens during the initial phases of democratization? A. Newly democratized countries are incapable of holding independent elections. B. Citizens are more engaged in politics and willing to be peaceful. C. New democracies are the strongest democracies in the world. D. Other countries are more likely to form alliances with new democracies. E. Newly democratized countries become more aggressive and warlike, not less. New democracies are more likely to elect which of the following types of parties into office? A. socialists B. religious extremists C. the country’s elite and wealthy class D. people who personify “the average Joe” E. the largest, most prominent parties According to Mansfield and Snyder’s prescription, what should the United States do with democratizing states? A. provide an international military force to ensure peace B. keep a close eye and replace bad leaders if necessary C. make certain that reforms are implemented in the right order D. strengthen international awareness of democratizing states so that peaceful states can arm themselves E. attempt to push through elections as soon as possible above all else Watch the video below, and then answer the questions below. To save your answers, click the Save to Notebook button above. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=796LfXwzIUk According to Joseph Nye, what is power transition? A. a change of power among states B. a change of power among presidents C. a change of power within the European Union or other leading organizations D. a change of power within cultures E. a change of power to non-state actors How does Nye define power diffusion? A. a change of power among states B. a change of power in regions C. a change of power within cultures D. a change of power from states to non-state actors E. a change of power from non-state actors to states Which of the following is an example of a non-state actor given by Nye? A. Iranian president Mahmoud Ahmadinejad B. Oxfam C. the former USSR D. socialism E. the mayor of Tehran Why does Nye claim it is important to be cautious of power projections? A. Simple projections don’t tell us much about power transition. B. History is not linear. C. Simple projections tend to focus soley on GDP. D. Simple projections don’t tell you anything about military or soft power. E. all of these options Nye describes a three-dimensional chess game as a metaphor for modern-day power distribution. What is the top board? A. economic power among states B. military power among states C. power among state leaders D. the deciding board for the other two boards E. the board where Kasparov faces off against the computer What is the middle board in Nye’s chess game metaphor? A. non-state actors B. a metaphor for the international underground economy C. military power among states D. economic power among states E. political power among states What is the bottom board in Nye’s chess game metaphor? A. transnational relations B. things that cross borders outside government control C. a place where power is chaotically distributed D. an area where things cross borders outside the control of governments E. all of these options What is the difference between a positive-sum game and a zero-sum game? A. A positive-sum game is when one person has all the power and a zero-sum game is when power is evenly distributed. B. A positive-sum game is a two-player power game and a zero-sum game is a one-player power game. C. A positive-sum game where my gain is your gain and a zero-sum game is my win and your loss. D. A postive-sum game is when you bet and win and a zero-sum game is when you bet and lose. E. A positive-sum game is like Tetris and a zero-sum game is like Super Mario Brothers. Nye quotes Hillary Clinton, describing her foreign policy agenda as utilizing “smart power.” What does this mean? A. Smart power addresses the two great power shifts in the 21st century. B. Smart power is “using all the tools in our toolbox.” C. Smart power combines both hard and soft power. D. Smart power reflects a new narrative of dealing with power. E. all of these options

Use the link provided to answer the questions below. http://www.worlddialogue.org/content.php?id=384 According to the article, what was President George W. Bush’s main rationale for going to war with Iraq? A. Bush believed that by promoting democracy, we promote peace around the world. B. Bush believed that Iraq was a key player in the global drug trade. C. Bush feared Osama bin Laden would assume power in Iraq. D. Intelligence reports showed Iraq was planning to attack Afghanistan. E. Bush had no opinion about invading Iraq. What is the democratic peace theory? A. the theory that indicates that democracy will inevitably spread and we should assist it peacefully B. the theory that economic growth leads to a peaceful democratic state C. the theory that democracies tend not to fight one another D. the theory that the key to a successful democratic transition is through a peaceful transfer of power E. the theory that peace and democracy are actually inconsistent with one another What did Mansfield and Syder conclude happens during the initial phases of democratization? A. Newly democratized countries are incapable of holding independent elections. B. Citizens are more engaged in politics and willing to be peaceful. C. New democracies are the strongest democracies in the world. D. Other countries are more likely to form alliances with new democracies. E. Newly democratized countries become more aggressive and warlike, not less. New democracies are more likely to elect which of the following types of parties into office? A. socialists B. religious extremists C. the country’s elite and wealthy class D. people who personify “the average Joe” E. the largest, most prominent parties According to Mansfield and Snyder’s prescription, what should the United States do with democratizing states? A. provide an international military force to ensure peace B. keep a close eye and replace bad leaders if necessary C. make certain that reforms are implemented in the right order D. strengthen international awareness of democratizing states so that peaceful states can arm themselves E. attempt to push through elections as soon as possible above all else Watch the video below, and then answer the questions below. To save your answers, click the Save to Notebook button above. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=796LfXwzIUk According to Joseph Nye, what is power transition? A. a change of power among states B. a change of power among presidents C. a change of power within the European Union or other leading organizations D. a change of power within cultures E. a change of power to non-state actors How does Nye define power diffusion? A. a change of power among states B. a change of power in regions C. a change of power within cultures D. a change of power from states to non-state actors E. a change of power from non-state actors to states Which of the following is an example of a non-state actor given by Nye? A. Iranian president Mahmoud Ahmadinejad B. Oxfam C. the former USSR D. socialism E. the mayor of Tehran Why does Nye claim it is important to be cautious of power projections? A. Simple projections don’t tell us much about power transition. B. History is not linear. C. Simple projections tend to focus soley on GDP. D. Simple projections don’t tell you anything about military or soft power. E. all of these options Nye describes a three-dimensional chess game as a metaphor for modern-day power distribution. What is the top board? A. economic power among states B. military power among states C. power among state leaders D. the deciding board for the other two boards E. the board where Kasparov faces off against the computer What is the middle board in Nye’s chess game metaphor? A. non-state actors B. a metaphor for the international underground economy C. military power among states D. economic power among states E. political power among states What is the bottom board in Nye’s chess game metaphor? A. transnational relations B. things that cross borders outside government control C. a place where power is chaotically distributed D. an area where things cross borders outside the control of governments E. all of these options What is the difference between a positive-sum game and a zero-sum game? A. A positive-sum game is when one person has all the power and a zero-sum game is when power is evenly distributed. B. A positive-sum game is a two-player power game and a zero-sum game is a one-player power game. C. A positive-sum game where my gain is your gain and a zero-sum game is my win and your loss. D. A postive-sum game is when you bet and win and a zero-sum game is when you bet and lose. E. A positive-sum game is like Tetris and a zero-sum game is like Super Mario Brothers. Nye quotes Hillary Clinton, describing her foreign policy agenda as utilizing “smart power.” What does this mean? A. Smart power addresses the two great power shifts in the 21st century. B. Smart power is “using all the tools in our toolbox.” C. Smart power combines both hard and soft power. D. Smart power reflects a new narrative of dealing with power. E. all of these options

Use the link provided to answer the questions below. http://www.worlddialogue.org/content.php?id=384 … Read More...
ECON 101 FALL 2015 EXAM 1 NAME:______________________________ 1. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 1.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is: A) price elastic. B) price inelastic. C) price unit-elastic. D) perfectly price inelastic. 2. The price elasticity of demand for skiing lessons in New Hampshire is less than 1.00. This means that the demand is ______ in New Hampshire. A) price elastic B) price inelastic C) price unit-elastic D) perfectly price elastic 3. If the demand for textbooks is price inelastic, which of the following would explain this? A) Many alternative textbooks can be used as substitutes. B) Students have a lot of time to adjust to price changes. C) Textbook purchases consume a large portion of most students’ income. D) The good is a necessity. 4. A major state university in the South recently raised tuition by 12%. An economics professor at this university asked his students, “Due to the increase in tuition, how many of you will transfer to another university?” One student out of about 300 said that he or she would transfer. Based on this information, the price elasticity of demand for education at this university is: (Hint: one out of 300 is how much of a percentage change? Which percentage change is greater – tuition or transfer? Apply the basic formula for elasticity that I put on the board a few times.) A) one. B) highly elastic. C) highly inelastic. D) zero. 5. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for fishing lures equals 1 in South Carolina and 0.63 in Alabama. To increase revenue, fishing lure manufacturers should: (Hint: If the demand for a product is inelastic, the price can go up and you’ll still buy it, since there are no or few substitutes. If the demand for a product is elastic, the price can go up and you’ll probably walk away from it, since substitutes are available. How might this info impact the pricing strategies of firms?) A) lower prices in each state. B) raise prices in each state. C) lower prices in South Carolina and raise prices in Alabama. D) leave prices unchanged in South Carolina and raise prices in Alabama. Read your syllabus and answer questions 6 through 10: 6. T or F: Disruptive classroom behavior includes the following: chatting with fellow students, use of electronic devices such as laptops, tablets, notebooks, and cell phones, reading or studying during class, sleeping, arriving late, departing early, studying for another class, or in any other way disturbing the class. 7. T or F: It’s OK to use my computer in class or play with my phone. There is no penalty attached to these activities and Keiser doesn’t really mind. 8. T or F: It’s OK to show up late for class and disrupt one of Keiser’s swashbuckling lectures. 9. T or F: Attendance is highly optional since it doesn’t impact my final course grade. 10. T or F: I should blow off the career plan/business plan assignment in this course because it’s unimportant to my future and not worth many points. 11. Jacquelyn is a student at a major state university. Which of the following is not an example of an explicit, or direct, cost of her attending college? A) Tuition B) Textbooks C) the salary that she could have earned working full time D) computer lab fees 12. The two principles of tax fairness are: A) the minimize distortions principle and the maximize revenue principle. B) the benefits principle and the ability-to-pay principle. C) the proportional tax principle and the ability-to-pay principle. D) the equity principle and the efficiency principle. 13. The benefits principles says: A) the amount of tax paid depends on the measure of value. B) those who benefit from public spending should bear the burden of the tax that pays for that spending. C) those with greater ability to pay should pay more tax. D) those who benefit from the tax should pay the same percentage of the tax base as those who do not benefit. 14. A tax that rises less than in proportion to income is described as: (Hint: This would have more of a negative impact on lower income earners vs. higher income earners.) A) progressive. B) proportional. C) regressive. D) structural. 15. The U.S. income tax is _______, while the payroll tax is _______. (Hint: Think income tax vs. Social Security tax.) A) progressive; progressive C) regressive; progressive B) progressive; regressive D) regressive; regressive 16. Who is currently leading in the polls to receive the Republican nomination as that party’s presidential candidate? A) Qasem Soleimani B) Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi C) Osama bin Laden D) Donald J. Trump 17. The single most important thing I’ve learned in class this term is: A) stay in frickin’ school B) stay in school and make a plan for life and my career C) the use of cheese for skyscraper construction D) both A and B above 18. Market equilibrium occurs when: A) there is no incentive for prices to change in the market. B) quantity demanded equals quantity supplied. C) the market clears. D) all of the above occur. 19. Excess supply occurs when: (Hint: Draw a supply and demand graph! Think about price ceilings and floors and the graphs of these we discussed in class.) A) the price is above the equilibrium price. B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied. C) the price is below the equilibrium price. D) both b and c occur. 20. The single most important thing I’ve learned in class this term is: a. stay in school and look into either a study abroad or internship experience b. stay in school and make a plan for life and my career c. the untimely demise of Cecil the lion in Zimbabwe d. both a. and b. above 21. According to the textbook definition, mainstream microeconomics generally focuses on a. how individual decision-making units, like households and firms, make economic decisions. b. the performance of the national economy and policies to improve this performance. c. the relationship between economic and political institutions. d. the general level of prices in the national economy. 22. Which of the following is the best summary of the three basic economic questions? a. Who? Why? and When? b. What? How? and Who? c. When? Where? and Why? d. What? Where? and Who? 23. Which of the following is not one of the basic economic resources? a. land b. labor c. capital d. cheese e. entrepreneurship 24. The largest country in the Arabian Peninsula and home to the cities of Riyadh, Jeddah, Mecca, and Medina is: a. The Kingdom of Saudi Arabia b. California c. Spain d. Kentucky 25. T or F: The law of demand explains the upward slope of the supply curve. 26. In economics, a “marginal” value refers to: a. the value associated with an important or marginal activity. b. a value entered as an explanatory item in the margin of a balance sheet or other accounts. c. the value associated with one more unit of an activity. d. a value that is most appropriately identified in a footnote. 27. A government mandated price that is below the market equilibrium price is sometimes called. . . (Hint: Draw a graph again and think about what the government is trying to accomplish.) a. a price ceiling. b. a price floor. c. a market clearing price. d. a reservation price. 28. T or F: Entering the US job market without any education or training is crazy and should be avoided. Stay in frickin’ school, baby! 29. The law of demand states that, other things equal: a. as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase. b. as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right. c. as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease. d. none of the above. 30. The law of supply says: a. other things equal, the quantity supplied of a good is inversely related to the price of the good. b. other things equal, the supply of a good creates its own demand. c. other things equal, the quantity supplied of a good is positively related to the price of the good. d. none of the above. 31. A perfectly inelastic demand curve is: a. horizontal. b. downward sloping. c. upward sloping. d. vertical. 32. A trade-off involves weighing costs and benefits. a. true b. false 33. A perfectly elastic demand curve is: a. horizontal. b. downward sloping. c. upward sloping. d. vertical. 34. The second most important thing I’ve learned in class this term is: a. despair is not an option b. Donald J. Trump’s hair is real c. the use of cheese for skyscraper construction d. none of the above 35. T or F: Virtually any news item has important economic dimensions and consequences. 36. T or F: When studying economics, always think in terms of historical context. 37. This popular Asian country is populated by 1.3 billion people, has the world’s second largest economy, and uses a language that’s been in continuous use for nearly 5,000 years: a. Kentucky b. California c. Spain d. China 38. T or F: The top priority in my life right now should be my education and an internship experience. Without these, the job market is going to kick my butt! 39. Which of the following is a key side effect generated by the use of price ceilings? a. black markets b. products with too high of quality c. an excess supply of a good d. too many resources artificially channeled into the production of a good 40. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic principles for understanding individual choice? a. Resources are scarce. b. The real cost of something is the money that you must pay to get it. c. “How much?” is a decision at the margin. d. People usually take advantage of opportunities to make themselves better off. 41. A hot mixture of pan drippings, flour, and water is commonly known as: a. interest rates and expected future real GDP. b. interest rates and current real GDP. c. inflation and expected future real GDP. d. gravy. 42. The example we used in class when discussing the inefficiency of quantity quotas was: a. Uber b. General Electric c. AT&T d. the KSU marching band 43. The term we learned in class signifying a key method of non-price competition is: a. excess supply chain management b. arbitrage c. swashbuckling d. product differentiation 44. When discussing market failure and the role of regulation in class, which company/product did we use as an example? a. Pabst Blue Ribbon b. JetBlue c. Blue Bell d. Blue Apron 45. Governments may place relatively high sales taxes on goods such as alcohol and tobacco because: a. such taxes are a significant source of revenue b. such goods exhibit inelastic demand c. such taxes may discourage use of these products d. all of the above 46. When discussing the cost of higher education in class, which country did we cite as an example of one that offers free college for qualifying students? a. USSR b. Rhodesia c. Czechoslovakia d. Germany 47. Which of the following is not an example of market failure we discussed in class? a. externalities b. public goods c. fungible goods d. common pool resources e. equity 48. T or F: As we discussed in class, the real reason why the US has lost jobs to China is the “most favored nation” (MFN) trading status granted to China by the US back in the 1980s. 49. The dude we talked about in class who coined the expression “invisible hand” and promoted self-interest and competition in his famous book “The Wealth of Nations” is: a. Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi b. Ali Khamenei c. Donald J. Trump d. Adam Smith 50. When studying for your final exams and attempting to allocate your limited time among several subjects in order to maximize your course grades (recall, we talked about this example during the first week of class), you’re almost unconsciously engaging in a form of: a. fraud b. miscellaneous serendipity b. mitosis d. marginal analysis

ECON 101 FALL 2015 EXAM 1 NAME:______________________________ 1. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 1.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is: A) price elastic. B) price inelastic. C) price unit-elastic. D) perfectly price inelastic. 2. The price elasticity of demand for skiing lessons in New Hampshire is less than 1.00. This means that the demand is ______ in New Hampshire. A) price elastic B) price inelastic C) price unit-elastic D) perfectly price elastic 3. If the demand for textbooks is price inelastic, which of the following would explain this? A) Many alternative textbooks can be used as substitutes. B) Students have a lot of time to adjust to price changes. C) Textbook purchases consume a large portion of most students’ income. D) The good is a necessity. 4. A major state university in the South recently raised tuition by 12%. An economics professor at this university asked his students, “Due to the increase in tuition, how many of you will transfer to another university?” One student out of about 300 said that he or she would transfer. Based on this information, the price elasticity of demand for education at this university is: (Hint: one out of 300 is how much of a percentage change? Which percentage change is greater – tuition or transfer? Apply the basic formula for elasticity that I put on the board a few times.) A) one. B) highly elastic. C) highly inelastic. D) zero. 5. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for fishing lures equals 1 in South Carolina and 0.63 in Alabama. To increase revenue, fishing lure manufacturers should: (Hint: If the demand for a product is inelastic, the price can go up and you’ll still buy it, since there are no or few substitutes. If the demand for a product is elastic, the price can go up and you’ll probably walk away from it, since substitutes are available. How might this info impact the pricing strategies of firms?) A) lower prices in each state. B) raise prices in each state. C) lower prices in South Carolina and raise prices in Alabama. D) leave prices unchanged in South Carolina and raise prices in Alabama. Read your syllabus and answer questions 6 through 10: 6. T or F: Disruptive classroom behavior includes the following: chatting with fellow students, use of electronic devices such as laptops, tablets, notebooks, and cell phones, reading or studying during class, sleeping, arriving late, departing early, studying for another class, or in any other way disturbing the class. 7. T or F: It’s OK to use my computer in class or play with my phone. There is no penalty attached to these activities and Keiser doesn’t really mind. 8. T or F: It’s OK to show up late for class and disrupt one of Keiser’s swashbuckling lectures. 9. T or F: Attendance is highly optional since it doesn’t impact my final course grade. 10. T or F: I should blow off the career plan/business plan assignment in this course because it’s unimportant to my future and not worth many points. 11. Jacquelyn is a student at a major state university. Which of the following is not an example of an explicit, or direct, cost of her attending college? A) Tuition B) Textbooks C) the salary that she could have earned working full time D) computer lab fees 12. The two principles of tax fairness are: A) the minimize distortions principle and the maximize revenue principle. B) the benefits principle and the ability-to-pay principle. C) the proportional tax principle and the ability-to-pay principle. D) the equity principle and the efficiency principle. 13. The benefits principles says: A) the amount of tax paid depends on the measure of value. B) those who benefit from public spending should bear the burden of the tax that pays for that spending. C) those with greater ability to pay should pay more tax. D) those who benefit from the tax should pay the same percentage of the tax base as those who do not benefit. 14. A tax that rises less than in proportion to income is described as: (Hint: This would have more of a negative impact on lower income earners vs. higher income earners.) A) progressive. B) proportional. C) regressive. D) structural. 15. The U.S. income tax is _______, while the payroll tax is _______. (Hint: Think income tax vs. Social Security tax.) A) progressive; progressive C) regressive; progressive B) progressive; regressive D) regressive; regressive 16. Who is currently leading in the polls to receive the Republican nomination as that party’s presidential candidate? A) Qasem Soleimani B) Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi C) Osama bin Laden D) Donald J. Trump 17. The single most important thing I’ve learned in class this term is: A) stay in frickin’ school B) stay in school and make a plan for life and my career C) the use of cheese for skyscraper construction D) both A and B above 18. Market equilibrium occurs when: A) there is no incentive for prices to change in the market. B) quantity demanded equals quantity supplied. C) the market clears. D) all of the above occur. 19. Excess supply occurs when: (Hint: Draw a supply and demand graph! Think about price ceilings and floors and the graphs of these we discussed in class.) A) the price is above the equilibrium price. B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied. C) the price is below the equilibrium price. D) both b and c occur. 20. The single most important thing I’ve learned in class this term is: a. stay in school and look into either a study abroad or internship experience b. stay in school and make a plan for life and my career c. the untimely demise of Cecil the lion in Zimbabwe d. both a. and b. above 21. According to the textbook definition, mainstream microeconomics generally focuses on a. how individual decision-making units, like households and firms, make economic decisions. b. the performance of the national economy and policies to improve this performance. c. the relationship between economic and political institutions. d. the general level of prices in the national economy. 22. Which of the following is the best summary of the three basic economic questions? a. Who? Why? and When? b. What? How? and Who? c. When? Where? and Why? d. What? Where? and Who? 23. Which of the following is not one of the basic economic resources? a. land b. labor c. capital d. cheese e. entrepreneurship 24. The largest country in the Arabian Peninsula and home to the cities of Riyadh, Jeddah, Mecca, and Medina is: a. The Kingdom of Saudi Arabia b. California c. Spain d. Kentucky 25. T or F: The law of demand explains the upward slope of the supply curve. 26. In economics, a “marginal” value refers to: a. the value associated with an important or marginal activity. b. a value entered as an explanatory item in the margin of a balance sheet or other accounts. c. the value associated with one more unit of an activity. d. a value that is most appropriately identified in a footnote. 27. A government mandated price that is below the market equilibrium price is sometimes called. . . (Hint: Draw a graph again and think about what the government is trying to accomplish.) a. a price ceiling. b. a price floor. c. a market clearing price. d. a reservation price. 28. T or F: Entering the US job market without any education or training is crazy and should be avoided. Stay in frickin’ school, baby! 29. The law of demand states that, other things equal: a. as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase. b. as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right. c. as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease. d. none of the above. 30. The law of supply says: a. other things equal, the quantity supplied of a good is inversely related to the price of the good. b. other things equal, the supply of a good creates its own demand. c. other things equal, the quantity supplied of a good is positively related to the price of the good. d. none of the above. 31. A perfectly inelastic demand curve is: a. horizontal. b. downward sloping. c. upward sloping. d. vertical. 32. A trade-off involves weighing costs and benefits. a. true b. false 33. A perfectly elastic demand curve is: a. horizontal. b. downward sloping. c. upward sloping. d. vertical. 34. The second most important thing I’ve learned in class this term is: a. despair is not an option b. Donald J. Trump’s hair is real c. the use of cheese for skyscraper construction d. none of the above 35. T or F: Virtually any news item has important economic dimensions and consequences. 36. T or F: When studying economics, always think in terms of historical context. 37. This popular Asian country is populated by 1.3 billion people, has the world’s second largest economy, and uses a language that’s been in continuous use for nearly 5,000 years: a. Kentucky b. California c. Spain d. China 38. T or F: The top priority in my life right now should be my education and an internship experience. Without these, the job market is going to kick my butt! 39. Which of the following is a key side effect generated by the use of price ceilings? a. black markets b. products with too high of quality c. an excess supply of a good d. too many resources artificially channeled into the production of a good 40. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic principles for understanding individual choice? a. Resources are scarce. b. The real cost of something is the money that you must pay to get it. c. “How much?” is a decision at the margin. d. People usually take advantage of opportunities to make themselves better off. 41. A hot mixture of pan drippings, flour, and water is commonly known as: a. interest rates and expected future real GDP. b. interest rates and current real GDP. c. inflation and expected future real GDP. d. gravy. 42. The example we used in class when discussing the inefficiency of quantity quotas was: a. Uber b. General Electric c. AT&T d. the KSU marching band 43. The term we learned in class signifying a key method of non-price competition is: a. excess supply chain management b. arbitrage c. swashbuckling d. product differentiation 44. When discussing market failure and the role of regulation in class, which company/product did we use as an example? a. Pabst Blue Ribbon b. JetBlue c. Blue Bell d. Blue Apron 45. Governments may place relatively high sales taxes on goods such as alcohol and tobacco because: a. such taxes are a significant source of revenue b. such goods exhibit inelastic demand c. such taxes may discourage use of these products d. all of the above 46. When discussing the cost of higher education in class, which country did we cite as an example of one that offers free college for qualifying students? a. USSR b. Rhodesia c. Czechoslovakia d. Germany 47. Which of the following is not an example of market failure we discussed in class? a. externalities b. public goods c. fungible goods d. common pool resources e. equity 48. T or F: As we discussed in class, the real reason why the US has lost jobs to China is the “most favored nation” (MFN) trading status granted to China by the US back in the 1980s. 49. The dude we talked about in class who coined the expression “invisible hand” and promoted self-interest and competition in his famous book “The Wealth of Nations” is: a. Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi b. Ali Khamenei c. Donald J. Trump d. Adam Smith 50. When studying for your final exams and attempting to allocate your limited time among several subjects in order to maximize your course grades (recall, we talked about this example during the first week of class), you’re almost unconsciously engaging in a form of: a. fraud b. miscellaneous serendipity b. mitosis d. marginal analysis

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HST 102: Paper 7 Formal essay, due in class on the day of the debate No late papers will be accepted. Answer the following inquiry in a typed (and stapled) 2 page essay in the five-paragraph format. Present and describe three of your arguments that you will use to defend your position concerning eugenics. Each argument must be unique (don’t describe the same argument twice from a different angle). Each argument must include at least one quotation from the texts to support your position (a minimum of 3 total). You may discuss your positions and arguments with other people on your side (but not your opponents); however, each student must write their own essay in their own words. Do not copy sentences or paragraphs from another student’s paper, this is plagiarism and will result in a failing grade for the assignment. HST 102: Debate 4 Eugenics For or Against? Basics of the debate: The term ‘Eugenics’ was derived from two Greek words and literally means ‘good genes’. Eugenics is the social philosophy or practice of engineering society based on genes, or promoting the reproduction of good genes while reducing (or prohibiting) the reproduction of bad genes. Your group will argue either for or against the adoption of eugenic policies in your society. Key Terms: Eugenics – The study of or belief in the possibility of improving the qualities of the human species or a human population, especially by such means as discouraging reproduction by persons having genetic defects or presumed to have inheritable undesirable traits (negative eugenics) or encouraging reproduction by persons presumed to have inheritable desirable traits (positive eugenics). Darwinism – The Darwinian theory that species originate by descent, with variation, from parent forms, through the natural selection of those individuals best adapted for the reproductive success of their kind. Social Darwinism – A 19th-century theory, inspired by Darwinism, by which the social order is accounted as the product of natural selection of those persons best suited to existing living conditions. Mendelian Inheritance – Theory proposed by Gregor Johann Mendal in 1865 that became the first theory of genetic inheritance derived from experiments with peas. Birth Control – Any means to artificially prevent biological conception. Euthanasia – A policy of ending the life of an individual for their betterment (for example, because of excessive pain, brain dead, etc.) or society’s benefit. Genocide – A policy of murdering all members of a specific group of people who share a common characteristic. Deductive Logic – Deriving a specific conclusion based on a set of general definitions. Inductive Logic – Deriving a general conclusion based on a number of specific examples. Brief Historical Background: Eugenics was first proposed by Francis Galton in his 1883 work, Inquiries into Human Faculty and its Development. Galton was a cousin of Charles Darwin and an early supporter of Darwin’s theories of natural selection and evolution. Galton defined eugenics as the study of all agencies under human control which can improve or impair the racial quality of future generations. Galton’s work utilized a number of other scientific pursuits at the time including the study of heredity, genes, chromosomes, evolution, social Darwinism, zoology, birth control, sociology, psychology, chemistry, atomic theory and electrodynamics. The number of significant scientific advances was accelerating throughout the 19th century altering what science was and what its role in society could and should be. Galton’s work had a significant influence throughout all areas of society, from scientific communities to politics, culture and literature. A number of organizations were created to explore the science of eugenics and its possible applications to society. Ultimately, eugenics became a means by which to improve society through policies based on scientific study. Most of these policies related to reproductive practices within a society, specifically who could or should not reproduce. Throughout the late 1800s and early 1900s a number of policies were enacted at various levels throughout Europe and the United States aimed at controlling procreation. Some specific policies included compulsory sterilization laws (usually concerning criminals and the mentally ill) as well as banning interracial marriages to prevent ‘cross-racial’ breeding. In the United States a number of individuals and foundations supported the exploration of eugenics as a means to positively influence society, including: the Rockefeller Foundation, the Carnegie Institution, the Race Betterment Foundation of Battle Creek, MI, the Eugenics Record Office, the American Breeders Association, the Euthanasia Society of America; and individuals such as Charles Davenport, Madison Grant, Alexander Graham Bell, Irving Fisher, John D. Rockefeller, Margaret Sanger, Marie Stopes, David Starr Jordan, Vernon Kellogg, H. G. Wells (though he later changed sides) Winston Churchill, George Bernard Shaw, John Maynard Keynes, Supreme Court Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes and Presidents Woodrow Wilson, Herbert Hoover and Theodore Roosevelt. Some early critics of eugenics included: Dr. John Haycroft, Halliday Sutherland, Lancelot Hogben, Franz Boaz, Lester Ward, G. K. Chesterton, J. B. S. Haldane, and R. A. Fisher. In 1911 the Carnegie Institute recommended constructing gas chambers around the country to euthanize certain elements of the American population (primarily the poor and criminals) considered to be harmful to the future of society as a possible eugenic solution. President Woodrow Wilson signed the first Sterilization Act in US history. In the 1920s and 30s, 30 states passed various eugenics laws, some of which were overturned by the Supreme Court. Eugenics of various forms was a founding principle of the Progressive Party, strongly supported by the first progressive president Theodore Roosevelt, and would continue to play an important part in influencing progressive policies into at least the 1940s. Many American individuals and societies supported German research on eugenics that would eventually be used to develop and justify the policies utilized by the NAZI party against minority groups including Jews, Africans, gypsies and others that ultimately led to programs of genocide and the holocaust. Following WWII and worldwide exposure of the holocaust eugenics generally fell out of favor among the public, though various lesser forms of eugenics are still advocated for today by such individuals as Dottie Lamm, Geoffrey Miller, Justice Ruth Bader Ginsberg, John Glad and Richard Dawson. Eugenics still influences many modern debates including: capital punishment, over-population, global warming, medicine (disease control and genetic disorders), birth control, abortion, artificial insemination, evolution, social engineering, and education. Key Points to discuss during the debate: • Individual rights vs. collective rights • The pros and cons of genetically engineering society • The practicality of genetically engineering society • Methods used to determine ‘good traits’ and ‘bad traits’ • Who determines which people are ‘fit’ or ‘unfit’ for future society • The role of science in society • Methods used to derive scientific conclusions • Ability of scientists to determine the future hereditary conditions of individuals • The value/accuracy of scientific conclusions • The role of the government to implement eugenic policies • Some possible eugenic political policies or laws • The ways these policies may be used effectively or abused • The relationship between eugenics and individual rights • The role of ethics in science and eugenics Strategies: 1. Use this guide to help you (particularly the key points). 2. Read all of the texts. 3. If needed, read secondary analysis concerning eugenics. 4. Identify key quotations as you read each text. Perhaps make a list of them to print out and/or group quotes by topic or point. 5. Develop multiple arguments to defend your position. 6. Prioritize your arguments from most persuasive to least persuasive and from most evidence to least evidence. 7. Anticipate the arguments of your opponents and develop counter-arguments for them. 8. Anticipate counter-arguments to your own arguments and develop responses to them.

HST 102: Paper 7 Formal essay, due in class on the day of the debate No late papers will be accepted. Answer the following inquiry in a typed (and stapled) 2 page essay in the five-paragraph format. Present and describe three of your arguments that you will use to defend your position concerning eugenics. Each argument must be unique (don’t describe the same argument twice from a different angle). Each argument must include at least one quotation from the texts to support your position (a minimum of 3 total). You may discuss your positions and arguments with other people on your side (but not your opponents); however, each student must write their own essay in their own words. Do not copy sentences or paragraphs from another student’s paper, this is plagiarism and will result in a failing grade for the assignment. HST 102: Debate 4 Eugenics For or Against? Basics of the debate: The term ‘Eugenics’ was derived from two Greek words and literally means ‘good genes’. Eugenics is the social philosophy or practice of engineering society based on genes, or promoting the reproduction of good genes while reducing (or prohibiting) the reproduction of bad genes. Your group will argue either for or against the adoption of eugenic policies in your society. Key Terms: Eugenics – The study of or belief in the possibility of improving the qualities of the human species or a human population, especially by such means as discouraging reproduction by persons having genetic defects or presumed to have inheritable undesirable traits (negative eugenics) or encouraging reproduction by persons presumed to have inheritable desirable traits (positive eugenics). Darwinism – The Darwinian theory that species originate by descent, with variation, from parent forms, through the natural selection of those individuals best adapted for the reproductive success of their kind. Social Darwinism – A 19th-century theory, inspired by Darwinism, by which the social order is accounted as the product of natural selection of those persons best suited to existing living conditions. Mendelian Inheritance – Theory proposed by Gregor Johann Mendal in 1865 that became the first theory of genetic inheritance derived from experiments with peas. Birth Control – Any means to artificially prevent biological conception. Euthanasia – A policy of ending the life of an individual for their betterment (for example, because of excessive pain, brain dead, etc.) or society’s benefit. Genocide – A policy of murdering all members of a specific group of people who share a common characteristic. Deductive Logic – Deriving a specific conclusion based on a set of general definitions. Inductive Logic – Deriving a general conclusion based on a number of specific examples. Brief Historical Background: Eugenics was first proposed by Francis Galton in his 1883 work, Inquiries into Human Faculty and its Development. Galton was a cousin of Charles Darwin and an early supporter of Darwin’s theories of natural selection and evolution. Galton defined eugenics as the study of all agencies under human control which can improve or impair the racial quality of future generations. Galton’s work utilized a number of other scientific pursuits at the time including the study of heredity, genes, chromosomes, evolution, social Darwinism, zoology, birth control, sociology, psychology, chemistry, atomic theory and electrodynamics. The number of significant scientific advances was accelerating throughout the 19th century altering what science was and what its role in society could and should be. Galton’s work had a significant influence throughout all areas of society, from scientific communities to politics, culture and literature. A number of organizations were created to explore the science of eugenics and its possible applications to society. Ultimately, eugenics became a means by which to improve society through policies based on scientific study. Most of these policies related to reproductive practices within a society, specifically who could or should not reproduce. Throughout the late 1800s and early 1900s a number of policies were enacted at various levels throughout Europe and the United States aimed at controlling procreation. Some specific policies included compulsory sterilization laws (usually concerning criminals and the mentally ill) as well as banning interracial marriages to prevent ‘cross-racial’ breeding. In the United States a number of individuals and foundations supported the exploration of eugenics as a means to positively influence society, including: the Rockefeller Foundation, the Carnegie Institution, the Race Betterment Foundation of Battle Creek, MI, the Eugenics Record Office, the American Breeders Association, the Euthanasia Society of America; and individuals such as Charles Davenport, Madison Grant, Alexander Graham Bell, Irving Fisher, John D. Rockefeller, Margaret Sanger, Marie Stopes, David Starr Jordan, Vernon Kellogg, H. G. Wells (though he later changed sides) Winston Churchill, George Bernard Shaw, John Maynard Keynes, Supreme Court Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes and Presidents Woodrow Wilson, Herbert Hoover and Theodore Roosevelt. Some early critics of eugenics included: Dr. John Haycroft, Halliday Sutherland, Lancelot Hogben, Franz Boaz, Lester Ward, G. K. Chesterton, J. B. S. Haldane, and R. A. Fisher. In 1911 the Carnegie Institute recommended constructing gas chambers around the country to euthanize certain elements of the American population (primarily the poor and criminals) considered to be harmful to the future of society as a possible eugenic solution. President Woodrow Wilson signed the first Sterilization Act in US history. In the 1920s and 30s, 30 states passed various eugenics laws, some of which were overturned by the Supreme Court. Eugenics of various forms was a founding principle of the Progressive Party, strongly supported by the first progressive president Theodore Roosevelt, and would continue to play an important part in influencing progressive policies into at least the 1940s. Many American individuals and societies supported German research on eugenics that would eventually be used to develop and justify the policies utilized by the NAZI party against minority groups including Jews, Africans, gypsies and others that ultimately led to programs of genocide and the holocaust. Following WWII and worldwide exposure of the holocaust eugenics generally fell out of favor among the public, though various lesser forms of eugenics are still advocated for today by such individuals as Dottie Lamm, Geoffrey Miller, Justice Ruth Bader Ginsberg, John Glad and Richard Dawson. Eugenics still influences many modern debates including: capital punishment, over-population, global warming, medicine (disease control and genetic disorders), birth control, abortion, artificial insemination, evolution, social engineering, and education. Key Points to discuss during the debate: • Individual rights vs. collective rights • The pros and cons of genetically engineering society • The practicality of genetically engineering society • Methods used to determine ‘good traits’ and ‘bad traits’ • Who determines which people are ‘fit’ or ‘unfit’ for future society • The role of science in society • Methods used to derive scientific conclusions • Ability of scientists to determine the future hereditary conditions of individuals • The value/accuracy of scientific conclusions • The role of the government to implement eugenic policies • Some possible eugenic political policies or laws • The ways these policies may be used effectively or abused • The relationship between eugenics and individual rights • The role of ethics in science and eugenics Strategies: 1. Use this guide to help you (particularly the key points). 2. Read all of the texts. 3. If needed, read secondary analysis concerning eugenics. 4. Identify key quotations as you read each text. Perhaps make a list of them to print out and/or group quotes by topic or point. 5. Develop multiple arguments to defend your position. 6. Prioritize your arguments from most persuasive to least persuasive and from most evidence to least evidence. 7. Anticipate the arguments of your opponents and develop counter-arguments for them. 8. Anticipate counter-arguments to your own arguments and develop responses to them.

Who are the actors in the dialogue and who is more powerful? A. The Lacedaemons and the Melians. The Melians are more powerful. B. The Athenians and the Melians. The Athenians are more powerful. C. The Lacedaemons, the Melians, and the Athenians. The Melians are most powerful. D. The Athenians and the Melians. The Melians are more powerful. E. The Lacedaemons and the Melians. They are equally powerful. The Athenian envoy was dispatched to address the Melians. Who did they end up talking to? A. The people of Lacedaemon. B. A group of Melian magistrates. C. The Melian magistrates and the population. D. Just the general Melian population. The magistrates did not show out of protest. E. The Lacedaemon population and the Melian population. What is the main point in question upon which both parties seem to agree? A. Whether to go to war against Athenian enemies. B. Whether to form an equal alliance with the Athenians. C. Whether there will be war between the Melians and the Athenians or whether the Melians will submit to Athenian power. D. How many ships and soldiers the Melians will give to the Athenian campaign. E. How many ships and soldiers the Athenians will give to the Melian movement for independence. What do the Athenians suggest about right and justice in terms of power? A. Questions about what is “right” only happen among equals in power. B. Justice and right come about when the powerful are wise. C. Power has no relation to right and justice. D. Questions about what is “right” only happen among equals in power AND justice and right come about when the powerful are wise. E. Justice and right come about when the powerful are wise AND power has no relation to right and justice. What is the necessary “law of their nature” that the Athenians are referring to? A. That states, both weak and strong, will seek peace. B. The law of chance and luck operates universally among men. C. The belief that, given the opportunity, men will seek to rule whenever they can. D. Whenever a treaty is created, states will settle those treaties with due consideration to the weaker side. E. That the nature of men is towards justice rather than power.

Who are the actors in the dialogue and who is more powerful? A. The Lacedaemons and the Melians. The Melians are more powerful. B. The Athenians and the Melians. The Athenians are more powerful. C. The Lacedaemons, the Melians, and the Athenians. The Melians are most powerful. D. The Athenians and the Melians. The Melians are more powerful. E. The Lacedaemons and the Melians. They are equally powerful. The Athenian envoy was dispatched to address the Melians. Who did they end up talking to? A. The people of Lacedaemon. B. A group of Melian magistrates. C. The Melian magistrates and the population. D. Just the general Melian population. The magistrates did not show out of protest. E. The Lacedaemon population and the Melian population. What is the main point in question upon which both parties seem to agree? A. Whether to go to war against Athenian enemies. B. Whether to form an equal alliance with the Athenians. C. Whether there will be war between the Melians and the Athenians or whether the Melians will submit to Athenian power. D. How many ships and soldiers the Melians will give to the Athenian campaign. E. How many ships and soldiers the Athenians will give to the Melian movement for independence. What do the Athenians suggest about right and justice in terms of power? A. Questions about what is “right” only happen among equals in power. B. Justice and right come about when the powerful are wise. C. Power has no relation to right and justice. D. Questions about what is “right” only happen among equals in power AND justice and right come about when the powerful are wise. E. Justice and right come about when the powerful are wise AND power has no relation to right and justice. What is the necessary “law of their nature” that the Athenians are referring to? A. That states, both weak and strong, will seek peace. B. The law of chance and luck operates universally among men. C. The belief that, given the opportunity, men will seek to rule whenever they can. D. Whenever a treaty is created, states will settle those treaties with due consideration to the weaker side. E. That the nature of men is towards justice rather than power.

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Select Case 1, 2, or 8 in the back of the textbook. After you have read the case, select at least one of the questions presented at the end.-If you select only one question, then you will need to elaborate with more examples and perspectives than if you select more than one, but the choice is yours. Fair warning: It is possible to fall into the trap of repeating oneself. To avoid that threat, think in advance of the different perspectives that you wish to explore. If you select more than one question, each answer will naturally be shorter. This may be a good approach if you discern that the questions lack strong potential to elicit in-depth answers. Remember to reply to the contributions of two other students in this exercise. This is a rule that we are only observing in the case analyses, given the relative complexity of the cases, compared to the chapter discussion questions. Always add value, from the textbook, news, personal experience, or all three. Indicate the case and question at the beginning, but avoid restating the question in your answer. In this respect, use the same method as in the chapter discussion questions, described in the Week 2 forum. Write at least 500 words (no minimum for replies, but do add value). Quoted passages do not contribute to the word count (so you will need to write more if you insert any quoted material). Post-edit your work carefully to catch errors. Avoid plagiarism at all cost. ——— Note on anomalous questions. Some questions will require you to work around selected details to fit the requisite discussion format. For example, Question 2 in Case 1 asks how your proposal will solve certain problems noted in answer to the previous question. If you have not actually answered Question 1, then you will have to assert one or more problems from the case, a proposed solution, and then an explanation of how your proposal may help. Question 3 is similar, in that you will need to identify a problem and a solution, followed by an argument about the budget. Although Alistair was expecting to hire a Project Engineer rather than a Quality Compliance Manager, the methods used to make the decision should be similar. The main difference in the Quality Compliance Manager position is that it is in a joint venture with a Hungarian government backed firm. International Joint Ventures (IJV) makes HRM practices more complicated because HRM practices and strategies are required for each IJV entity (Dowling, Festing, & Engle, 2013). HRM must address IJV in four stages, in which, each stage has an impact on the next. It is important for HRM to very thorough with each stage and communication through each stage is vital. To be successful, HRM must combine the IJV strategy along with the recruitment, selection, training, and development processes (Dowling et al., 2013). In light of the needs of the company and the new Quality Compliance Manager position, Alistair should choose the first candidate, Marie Erten-Loiseau. The fact that the job requires travel to France and Germany is a positive for Marie because she was born in France and was educated in France and Germany. The familiarity of these locations will help her as she meets with new business partners because she will have a good understanding of the policy and procedures required for companies in these two countries. Dowling et al., (2013), points out that the manager needs to be able to assess the desires of the stakeholders and be able to implement strategies based on their desires. Another reason for choosing Marie is that she has the most experience and has worked with Trianon for 13 years. The experience she has with the company is invaluable because she knows the goals of the company and strategies for implementing those goals. The last reason for choosing Marie is that she has been successful in her previous positions. She has lead two projects in two different countries and both were successful. This shows that she is able to adapt to the different practices of each country. There are many factors that Alistair should take into consideration to determine the correct choice for the Quality Compliance Manager position. The major factors that require consideration are the specificities of the entire situation, the reason for the assignment, and type of assignment. The four main specificities include context specificities, firm specific variables, local unit specificities, and IHRM practices (Dowling et al., 2013). The context specificities would include the differences in cultures between the assignment in Hungary and the base location for the Trianon, Marseilles. The firm specific variable includes any changes in the way operations in Hungary are conducted, whether it is strategy or HRM policies. The local unit specificities include the role of the joint venture in relation to Trianon and how this joint venture will fit into the long-term plan of the company. The company hopes that it will provide a good working relationship with the state supported airline, which will lead to more business in the future. The IHRM practices determine the employees that are hired and the training that is available to the employees. The reason for the assignment also is a major factor in determining the correct candidate. In the situation of Trianon, a joint venture with a Hungarian government back firm created a position that needed filling. The Quality Compliance Manager position allows Trianon to manage the joint venture operation, make sure it is successful, and build a strong relationship with Malev. The last major factor is the type of assignment. The Quality Compliance Manager assignment is long-term assignment because it is 3 years in duration. The joint venture is the first that the company has been involved in outside the UK so there is less familiarity on the administrative/compliance side. The candidate must act as an agent of direct control (Dowling et al., 2013) by assuring that compliance policies are followed and company strategy is implemented. Assessing whether a male or female would be the best fit for the position is also a factor that deserves consideration. The low number of female expatriates led Jessens, Cappellen, &Zanoni (2006) to research the following three myths: women have no desire to be in positions of authority in a foreign country, companies do not desire to place females in positions of authority while a foreign country, and women would be ineffective because of the views towards women in foreign countries. The research indicated that female expatriates do have conflict that arises related to their gender but the successful ones were able to turn the conflicts around based on the qualities that these women possess (Jessens et al., 2006). With all of these factors considered, I believe Marie Erten-Loiseau is the best candidate for the Quality Compliance Manager. References Dowling, P.J., Festing, M., & Engle, A.D. Sr. (2013). International Human Resource Management (6th ed.). Stamford, CT: Cengage Learning Janssens, M., Cappellen, T., &Zanoni, P. (2006). Successful female expatriates as agents: Positioning oneself through gender, hierarchy, and culture. Journal of World Business, 1-16. doi:10.1016/j.jwb.2006.01.001 2.) Case 8 – Questions 1 & 4 Multinational firms are often faced with recruiting and staffing decisions that could ultimately enhance or diminish the firm’s ability to be successful in a competitive global market. Perlmutter identified four staffing approaches for MNEs to consider based on the primary attitudes of international executives that would lay the foundation for MNEs during the recruitment and hiring process (Dowling, Festing, & Engle, 2013). At one point or another throughout the MacDougall family journey Lachlan and Lisa have served in one of the four capacities as an ethnocentric, polycentric, geocentric, and regiocentric employee. The ability to encompass all four attitudes that Perlmutter set forth is something that the MacDougall family has managed to do extremely well. The possibility for a multinational firm to recruit a family of this caliber that has been exposed and has an understanding of the positive and negative aspects of each attitude is phenomenal. This would be resourceful for any multinational firm. The MacDougal family’s exposure to cross-cultural management is also valuable. The diverse cultural background that the family has encountered on their international journey is a rarity. Cultural diversity and cross-cultural management play a critical role in MNEs because it produces a work environment that can transform the workplace into a place of learning and give the firm the availability to create new ideas for a more productive and competitive advantage over other firms (Sultana, Rashid, Mohiuddin, &Mazumder, 2013). This is something that is easy for the MacDougall family to bring to the table with the family’s given history. The expatriate lifestyle that has become second nature to the MacDougall family is beneficial for multinational firms for multifarious reasons Being raised around different cultures and then choosing to work internationally and learn different cultures has attributed to Lachlan’s successful career. The family’s ability to communicate and blend in socially among diverse cultures is an important aspect for international firms that want to stay competitive and be successful. The family has acclimated fairly easy to all of the places they have been and this is something that can be favorable when firms are recruiting employees. The MacDougall family has an upper-hand in the international marketplace naturally due to previous experiences with other countries and cultures. The exceptional way that the family has managed to conform to a multitude of other cultures and flourish is not an easy task. Marriage is not easy and many families experience a greater challenge avoiding divorcees when international mobility is involved. Lachlan and Lisa have been able to move together and this is an important aspect to the success of their marriage. Based on the case study they have a common desire to travel and both are successful in their careers. Lisa’s devotion to her husband’s successful career has put some strain on the marriage as she has had times where she felt she did not have her own identity. Military spouses experience this type of stress during long deployments and times that they have to hold the household together on their own. Another example is with employers who are transferred internationally for a short period of time or travel often. Separation of spouses can strain any marriage, but Lisa and Lachlan have been fortunate to avoid separation for any extended length of time. References Dowling, P.J., Festing, M., & Engle, A.D.Sr.(2013). International Human Resource Management. (6thed.). Stamford, CT: Cengage Sultana, M., Rashid, M., Mohiuddin, M. &Mazumder, M. (2013).Cross-cultural management and organizational performance.A Contnet analysis perspective.International Journal of Business and Management, 8(8), 133-146.

Select Case 1, 2, or 8 in the back of the textbook. After you have read the case, select at least one of the questions presented at the end.-If you select only one question, then you will need to elaborate with more examples and perspectives than if you select more than one, but the choice is yours. Fair warning: It is possible to fall into the trap of repeating oneself. To avoid that threat, think in advance of the different perspectives that you wish to explore. If you select more than one question, each answer will naturally be shorter. This may be a good approach if you discern that the questions lack strong potential to elicit in-depth answers. Remember to reply to the contributions of two other students in this exercise. This is a rule that we are only observing in the case analyses, given the relative complexity of the cases, compared to the chapter discussion questions. Always add value, from the textbook, news, personal experience, or all three. Indicate the case and question at the beginning, but avoid restating the question in your answer. In this respect, use the same method as in the chapter discussion questions, described in the Week 2 forum. Write at least 500 words (no minimum for replies, but do add value). Quoted passages do not contribute to the word count (so you will need to write more if you insert any quoted material). Post-edit your work carefully to catch errors. Avoid plagiarism at all cost. ——— Note on anomalous questions. Some questions will require you to work around selected details to fit the requisite discussion format. For example, Question 2 in Case 1 asks how your proposal will solve certain problems noted in answer to the previous question. If you have not actually answered Question 1, then you will have to assert one or more problems from the case, a proposed solution, and then an explanation of how your proposal may help. Question 3 is similar, in that you will need to identify a problem and a solution, followed by an argument about the budget. Although Alistair was expecting to hire a Project Engineer rather than a Quality Compliance Manager, the methods used to make the decision should be similar. The main difference in the Quality Compliance Manager position is that it is in a joint venture with a Hungarian government backed firm. International Joint Ventures (IJV) makes HRM practices more complicated because HRM practices and strategies are required for each IJV entity (Dowling, Festing, & Engle, 2013). HRM must address IJV in four stages, in which, each stage has an impact on the next. It is important for HRM to very thorough with each stage and communication through each stage is vital. To be successful, HRM must combine the IJV strategy along with the recruitment, selection, training, and development processes (Dowling et al., 2013). In light of the needs of the company and the new Quality Compliance Manager position, Alistair should choose the first candidate, Marie Erten-Loiseau. The fact that the job requires travel to France and Germany is a positive for Marie because she was born in France and was educated in France and Germany. The familiarity of these locations will help her as she meets with new business partners because she will have a good understanding of the policy and procedures required for companies in these two countries. Dowling et al., (2013), points out that the manager needs to be able to assess the desires of the stakeholders and be able to implement strategies based on their desires. Another reason for choosing Marie is that she has the most experience and has worked with Trianon for 13 years. The experience she has with the company is invaluable because she knows the goals of the company and strategies for implementing those goals. The last reason for choosing Marie is that she has been successful in her previous positions. She has lead two projects in two different countries and both were successful. This shows that she is able to adapt to the different practices of each country. There are many factors that Alistair should take into consideration to determine the correct choice for the Quality Compliance Manager position. The major factors that require consideration are the specificities of the entire situation, the reason for the assignment, and type of assignment. The four main specificities include context specificities, firm specific variables, local unit specificities, and IHRM practices (Dowling et al., 2013). The context specificities would include the differences in cultures between the assignment in Hungary and the base location for the Trianon, Marseilles. The firm specific variable includes any changes in the way operations in Hungary are conducted, whether it is strategy or HRM policies. The local unit specificities include the role of the joint venture in relation to Trianon and how this joint venture will fit into the long-term plan of the company. The company hopes that it will provide a good working relationship with the state supported airline, which will lead to more business in the future. The IHRM practices determine the employees that are hired and the training that is available to the employees. The reason for the assignment also is a major factor in determining the correct candidate. In the situation of Trianon, a joint venture with a Hungarian government back firm created a position that needed filling. The Quality Compliance Manager position allows Trianon to manage the joint venture operation, make sure it is successful, and build a strong relationship with Malev. The last major factor is the type of assignment. The Quality Compliance Manager assignment is long-term assignment because it is 3 years in duration. The joint venture is the first that the company has been involved in outside the UK so there is less familiarity on the administrative/compliance side. The candidate must act as an agent of direct control (Dowling et al., 2013) by assuring that compliance policies are followed and company strategy is implemented. Assessing whether a male or female would be the best fit for the position is also a factor that deserves consideration. The low number of female expatriates led Jessens, Cappellen, &Zanoni (2006) to research the following three myths: women have no desire to be in positions of authority in a foreign country, companies do not desire to place females in positions of authority while a foreign country, and women would be ineffective because of the views towards women in foreign countries. The research indicated that female expatriates do have conflict that arises related to their gender but the successful ones were able to turn the conflicts around based on the qualities that these women possess (Jessens et al., 2006). With all of these factors considered, I believe Marie Erten-Loiseau is the best candidate for the Quality Compliance Manager. References Dowling, P.J., Festing, M., & Engle, A.D. Sr. (2013). International Human Resource Management (6th ed.). Stamford, CT: Cengage Learning Janssens, M., Cappellen, T., &Zanoni, P. (2006). Successful female expatriates as agents: Positioning oneself through gender, hierarchy, and culture. Journal of World Business, 1-16. doi:10.1016/j.jwb.2006.01.001 2.) Case 8 – Questions 1 & 4 Multinational firms are often faced with recruiting and staffing decisions that could ultimately enhance or diminish the firm’s ability to be successful in a competitive global market. Perlmutter identified four staffing approaches for MNEs to consider based on the primary attitudes of international executives that would lay the foundation for MNEs during the recruitment and hiring process (Dowling, Festing, & Engle, 2013). At one point or another throughout the MacDougall family journey Lachlan and Lisa have served in one of the four capacities as an ethnocentric, polycentric, geocentric, and regiocentric employee. The ability to encompass all four attitudes that Perlmutter set forth is something that the MacDougall family has managed to do extremely well. The possibility for a multinational firm to recruit a family of this caliber that has been exposed and has an understanding of the positive and negative aspects of each attitude is phenomenal. This would be resourceful for any multinational firm. The MacDougal family’s exposure to cross-cultural management is also valuable. The diverse cultural background that the family has encountered on their international journey is a rarity. Cultural diversity and cross-cultural management play a critical role in MNEs because it produces a work environment that can transform the workplace into a place of learning and give the firm the availability to create new ideas for a more productive and competitive advantage over other firms (Sultana, Rashid, Mohiuddin, &Mazumder, 2013). This is something that is easy for the MacDougall family to bring to the table with the family’s given history. The expatriate lifestyle that has become second nature to the MacDougall family is beneficial for multinational firms for multifarious reasons Being raised around different cultures and then choosing to work internationally and learn different cultures has attributed to Lachlan’s successful career. The family’s ability to communicate and blend in socially among diverse cultures is an important aspect for international firms that want to stay competitive and be successful. The family has acclimated fairly easy to all of the places they have been and this is something that can be favorable when firms are recruiting employees. The MacDougall family has an upper-hand in the international marketplace naturally due to previous experiences with other countries and cultures. The exceptional way that the family has managed to conform to a multitude of other cultures and flourish is not an easy task. Marriage is not easy and many families experience a greater challenge avoiding divorcees when international mobility is involved. Lachlan and Lisa have been able to move together and this is an important aspect to the success of their marriage. Based on the case study they have a common desire to travel and both are successful in their careers. Lisa’s devotion to her husband’s successful career has put some strain on the marriage as she has had times where she felt she did not have her own identity. Military spouses experience this type of stress during long deployments and times that they have to hold the household together on their own. Another example is with employers who are transferred internationally for a short period of time or travel often. Separation of spouses can strain any marriage, but Lisa and Lachlan have been fortunate to avoid separation for any extended length of time. References Dowling, P.J., Festing, M., & Engle, A.D.Sr.(2013). International Human Resource Management. (6thed.). Stamford, CT: Cengage Sultana, M., Rashid, M., Mohiuddin, M. &Mazumder, M. (2013).Cross-cultural management and organizational performance.A Contnet analysis perspective.International Journal of Business and Management, 8(8), 133-146.

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5. Provide a brief discussion with supporting evidence to the following inquiry: With the responsibility of overseeing career development processes, how does management equip employees with skills that impact their performance in an efficient and effective manner?

5. Provide a brief discussion with supporting evidence to the following inquiry: With the responsibility of overseeing career development processes, how does management equip employees with skills that impact their performance in an efficient and effective manner?

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Assignment 2 Due: 11:59pm on Wednesday, February 12, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Conceptual Question 2.6 Part A The figure shows the position-versus-time graph for a moving object. At which lettered point or points: Is the object moving the slowest? Is the object moving the fastest? Is the object at rest? Drag the appropriate items to their respective bins. ANSWER: Correct Part B At which lettered point or points is the object moving to the negative direction? ANSWER: Correct Conceptual Question 2.7 The figure shows the position-versus-time graph for a moving object. At which lettered point or points: Part A Is the object moving the fastest? ANSWER: A B C D E Correct Part B Is the object speeding up? ANSWER: Correct Part C Is the object moving to the left and turning around? ANSWER: A B C D E F A B C D E F Correct Kinematic Vocabulary One of the difficulties in studying mechanics is that many common words are used with highly specific technical meanings, among them velocity, acceleration, position, speed, and displacement. The series of questions in this problem is designed to get you to try to think of these quantities like a physicist. Answer the questions in this problem using words from the following list: A. position B. direction C. displacement D. coordinates E. velocity F. acceleration G. distance H. magnitude I. vector J. scalar K. components Part A Velocity differs from speed in that velocity indicates a particle’s __________ of motion. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. ANSWER: Correct Part B Unlike speed, velocity is a __________ quantity. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. ANSWER: Correct Part C A vector has, by definition, both __________ and direction. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. ANSWER: Correct Part D Once you have selected a coordinate system, you can express a two-dimensional vector using a pair of quantities known collectively as __________. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. ANSWER: Correct Part E Speed differs from velocity in the same way that __________ differs from displacement. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. Hint 1. Definition of displacement Displacement is the vector that indicates the difference of two positions (e.g., the final position from the initial position). Being a vector, it is independent of the coordinate system used to describe it (although its vector components depend on the coordinate system). ANSWER: Correct Part F Consider a physical situation in which a particle moves from point A to point B. This process is described from two coordinate systems that are identical except that they have different origins. The __________ of the particle at point A differ(s) as expressed in one coordinate system compared to the other, but the __________ from A to B is/are the same as expressed in both coordinate systems. Type the letters from the list given in the problem introduction that best complete the sentence. Separate the letters with commas. There is more than one correct answer, but you should only enter one pair of comma-separated letters. For example, if the words “vector” and “scalar” fit best in the blanks, enter I,J. ANSWER: Correct The coordinates of a point will depend on the coordinate system that is chosen, but there are several other quantities that are independent of the choice of origin for a coordinate system: in particular, distance, displacement, direction, and velocity. In working physics problems, unless you are interested in the position of an object or event relative to a specific origin, you can usually choose the coordinate system origin to be wherever is most convenient or intuitive. Note that the vector indicating a displacement from A to B is usually represented as . Part G Identify the following physical quantities as scalars or vectors. ANSWER: rB A = rB − rA Correct Problem 2.4 The figure is the position-versus-time graph of a jogger. Part A What is the jogger’s velocity at = 10 ? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Answer Requested Part B What is the jogger’s velocity at = 25 ? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the jogger’s velocity at = 35 ? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: t s v = 1.3 ms t s v = 0 ms t s v = -5.0 ms Correct Analyzing Position versus Time Graphs: Conceptual Question Two cars travel on the parallel lanes of a two-lane road. The cars’ motions are represented by the position versus time graph shown in the figure. Answer the questions using the times from the graph indicated by letters. Part A At which of the times do the two cars pass each other? Hint 1. Two cars passing Two objects can pass each other only if they have the same position at the same time. ANSWER: Correct Part B Are the two cars traveling in the same direction when they pass each other? ANSWER: Correct Part C At which of the lettered times, if any, does car #1 momentarily stop? Hint 1. Determining velocity from a position versus time graph The slope on a position versus time graph is the “rise” (change in position) over the “run” (change in time). In physics, the ratio of change in position over change in time is defined as the velocity. Thus, the slope on a position versus time graph is the velocity of the object being graphed. ANSWER: A B C D E None Cannot be determined yes no Correct Part D At which of the lettered times, if any, does car #2 momentarily stop? Hint 1. Determining velocity from a position versus time graph The slope on a position versus time graph is the “rise” (change in position) over the “run” (change in time). In physics, the ratio of change in position over change in time is defined as the velocity. Thus, the slope on a position versus time graph is the velocity of the object being graphed. ANSWER: A B C D E none cannot be determined A B C D E none cannot be determined Correct Part E At which of the lettered times are the cars moving with nearly identical velocity? Hint 1. Determining Velocity from a Position versus Time Graph The slope on a position versus time graph is the “rise” (change in position) over the “run” (change in time). In physics, the ratio of change in position over change in time is defined as the velocity. Thus, the slope on a position versus time graph is the velocity of the object being graphed. ANSWER: Correct Problem 2.6 A particle starts from 10 at = 0 and moves with the velocity graph shown in the figure. A B C D E None Cannot be determined m t0 Part A Does this particle have a turning point? ANSWER: Correct Part B If so, at what time? Express your answer using two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the object’s position at = 2, 3, 4 ? Yes No t = 1.0 s t s Express your answers using two significant figures separated by commas. ANSWER: Correct Overcoming a Head Start Cars A and B are racing each other along the same straight road in the following manner: Car A has a head start and is a distance beyond the starting line at . The starting line is at . Car A travels at a constant speed . Car B starts at the starting line but has a better engine than Car A, and thus Car B travels at a constant speed , which is greater than . Part A How long after Car B started the race will Car B catch up with Car A? Express the time in terms of given quantities. Hint 1. Consider the kinematics relation Write an expression for the displacement of Car A from the starting line at a time after Car B starts. (Note that we are taking this time to be .) Answer in terms of , , , and for time, and take at the starting line. Hint 1. What is the acceleration of Car A? The acceleration of Car A is zero, so the general formula has at least one term equal to zero. ANSWER: Hint 2. What is the relation between the positions of the two cars? x2 , x3 , x4 = 10,16,26 m DA t = 0 x = 0 vA vB vA t t = 0 vA vB DA t x = 0 x(t) = x0 + v0t + (1/2)at2 xA(t) = DA + vAt The positions of the two cars are equal at time . Hint 3. Consider Car B’s position as a function of time Write down an expression for the position of Car B at time after starting. Give your answer in terms of any variables needed (use for time). ANSWER: ANSWER: Correct Part B How far from Car B’s starting line will the cars be when Car B passes Car A? Express your answer in terms of known quantities. (You may use as well.) Hint 1. Which expression should you use? Just use your expression for the position of either car after time , and substitute in the correct value for (found in the previous part). ANSWER: Correct tcatch t t xB(t) = vBt tcatch = DA vB−vA tcatch t = 0 tcatch dpass = vBDA vB−vA Problem 2.11 The figure shows the velocity graph of a particle moving along the x-axis. Its initial position is at . At = 2 , what are the particle’s (a) position, (b) velocity, and (c) acceleration? Part A Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: x0 = 2 m t0 = 0 t s x = 6.0 m vx = 4.0 ms Correct Part C Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 2.13 A jet plane is cruising at 300 when suddenly the pilot turns the engines up to full throttle. After traveling 3.9 , the jet is moving with a speed of 400 . Part A What is the jet’s acceleration, assuming it to be a constant acceleration? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Enhanced EOC: Problem 2.20 A rock is tossed straight up with a velocity of 22 When it returns, it falls into a hole deep. You may want to review ( pages 51 – 54) . ax = 2.0 m s2 m/s km m/s a = 9.0 m s2 m/s 10 m For help with math skills, you may want to review: Quadratic Equations For general problem-solving tips and strategies for this topic, you may want to view a Video Tutor Solution of Time in the air for a tossed ball. Part A What is the rock’s velocity as it hits the bottom of the hole? Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem Start by drawing a picture of the path of the rock, including its launch point, initial direction, and end point in the hole. Choose a coordinate system, and indicate it on your picture. Where is ? What is the positive direction? What is the position of the launch point and the bottom of the hole? In this coordinate system, what is the sign of the initial velocity and the sign of the acceleration? Calling the launch time , what is the equation for as a function of time? What is the position at the bottom of the hole? This will lead to a quadratic equation for the time when the rock hits the bottom of the hole. The quadratic equation has two solutions for the time. Not all mathematical solutions make sense physically. Which solution makes sense physically in terms of the picture that you drew at the beginning? Keeping the same coordinate system, what is the velocity in the direction as a function of time? What is the velocity when the rock hits the bottom of the hole? ANSWER: Correct Part B How long is the rock in the air, from the instant it is released until it hits the bottom of the hole? Express your answer with the appropriate units. y = 0 m y t = 0 y y t y y v = -26.1 ms Hint 1. How to approach the problem How is the time the rock was in the air related to the time at which the rock hit the ground in Part A? ANSWER: Correct Enhanced EOC: Problem 2.23 A particle moving along the x-axis has its position described by the function 2.00 5.00 5.00 , where is in s. At = 4.00, what are the particle’s (a) position, (b) velocity, and (c) acceleration? You may want to review ( pages 38 – 42) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Differentiation of Polynomial Functions t = 4.90 s x = ( t3 − t + ) m t t Part A Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem Evaluate the position at time = 4.00 . ANSWER: Correct Part B Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem How do you determine the velocity as a function of time, , from the position, ? What calculus operation do you have to perform? Once you have , how do you determine at a particular time? ANSWER: Correct Part C Express your answer with the appropriate units. t s 113 m v(t) x(t) v(t) v 91.0 ms Hint 1. How to approach the problem How do you determine the acceleration as a function of time, , from the velocity, ? What calculus operation do you have to perform? Once you have , how do you determine the acceleration at a particular time? ANSWER: Correct Problem 2.26 A particle’s position on the x-axis is given by the function 6.00 6.00 , where is in s. Part A Where is the particle when = 4.00 ? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 2.30 A particle’s velocity is described by the function = , where is in . a(t) v(t) a(t) 48.0 m s2 x = (t2 − t + ) m t vx m/s 1.00 m vx t2 − 7t + 7 m/s t s Part A How many turning points does the particle reach. Express your answer as an integer. ANSWER: Correct Part B At what times does the particle reach its turning points? Express your answers using two significant figures separated by a comma. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the particle’s acceleration at each of the turning points? Express your answers using two significant figures separated by a comma. ANSWER: Correct 2 t1 , t2 = 5.8,1.2 s a1 , a2 = 4.6,-4.6 m/s2 Problem 2.49 A 200 weather rocket is loaded with 100 of fuel and fired straight up. It accelerates upward at 35 for 30 , then runs out of fuel. Ignore any air resistance effects. Part A What is the rocket’s maximum altitude? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B How long is the rocket in the air? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Answer Requested Problem 2.52 A hotel elevator ascends with maximum speed of . Its acceleration and deceleration both have a magnitude of . Part A How far does the elevator move while accelerating to full speed from rest? kg kg m/s2 s h = 72 km t = 260 s 200 m 5 m/s 1.0 m/s2 Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B How long does it take to make the complete trip from bottom to top? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Answer Requested Components of Vectors Shown is a 10 by 10 grid, with coordinate axes x and y . The grid runs from -5 to 5 on both axes. Drawn on this grid are four vectors, labeled through . This problem will ask you various questions about these vectors. All answers should be in decimal notation, unless otherwise specified. 12.5 m 45.0 s A D Part A What is the x component of ? Express your answer to two significant figures. Hint 1. How to derive the component A component of a vector is its length (but with appropriate sign) along a particular coordinate axis, the axes being specfied in advance. You are asked for the component of that lies along the x axis, which is horizontal in this problem. Imagine two lines perpendicular to the x axis running from the head (end with the arrow) and tail of down to the x axis. The length of the x axis between the points where these lines intersect is the x component of . In this problem, the x component is the x coordinate at which the perpendicular from the head of the vector hits the origin (because the tail of the vector is at the origin). ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the y component of ? Express your answer to the nearest integer. ANSWER: Correct A A A A Ax = 2.5 A Ay = 3 Part C What is the y component of ? Express your answer to the nearest integer. Hint 1. Consider the direction Don’t forget the sign. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the component of ? Express your answer to the nearest integer. Hint 1. How to find the start and end points of the vector components A vector is defined only by its magnitude and direction. The starting point of the vector is of no consequence to its definition. Therefore, you need to somehow eliminate the starting point from your answer. You can run two perpendiculars to the x axis, one from the head (end with the arrow) of , and another to the tail, with the x component being the difference between x coordinates of head and tail (negative if the tail is to the right of the head). Another way is to imagine bringing the tail of to the origin, and then using the same procedure you used before to find the components of and . This is equivalent to the previous method, but it might be easier to visualize. ANSWER: B By = -3 x C C C A B Cx = -2 Correct The following questions will ask you to give both components of vectors using the ordered pairs method. In this method, the x component is written first, followed by a comma, and then the y component. For example, the components of would be written 2.5,3 in ordered pair notation. The answers below are all integers, so estimate the components to the nearest whole number. Part E In ordered pair notation, write down the components of vector . Express your answers to the nearest integer. ANSWER: Correct Part F In ordered pair notation, write down the components of vector . Express your answers to the nearest integer. ANSWER: Correct Part G What is true about and ? Choose from the pulldown list below. A B Bx, By = 2,-3 D Dx, Dy = 2,-3 B D ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.6 Find x- and y-components of the following vectors. Part A Express your answers using two significant figures. Enter your answers numerically separated by a comma. ANSWER: Correct Part B Express your answers using two significant figures. Enter your answers numerically separated by a comma. ANSWER: They have different components and are not the same vectors. They have the same components but are not the same vectors. They are the same vectors. = (r 430m, 60& below positive x − axis) rx, ry = 210,-370 m v = (610m/s, 23& above positive x − axis) Correct Part C Express your answers using two significant figures. Enter your answers numerically separated by a comma. ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.10 Part A Draw . Draw the vector with its tail at the origin. ANSWER: vx, vy = 560,240 m/s a = (7.3m/s2 , negative y − direction) ax, ay = 0,-7.3 m/s2 B = −4 + 4 ı ^  ^ Correct Part B Find the magnitude of . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct B B = 5.7 Part C Find the direction of . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part D Draw . Draw the vector with its tail at the origin. ANSWER: B = 45 above the B negative x-axis & = (−2.0 − 1.0 ) cm r ı ^  ^ Correct Part E Find the magnitude of . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct r r = 2.2 cm Part F Find the direction of . ANSWER: Correct Part G Draw . Draw the vector with its tail at the origin. ANSWER: r = 26.6 below the r negative x-axis & = (−10 − 100 ) m/s v ı ^  ^ Correct Part H Find the magnitude of . Express your answer using four significant figures. ANSWER: Correct v v = 100.5 m/s Part I Find the direction of . ANSWER: Correct Part J Draw . Draw the vector with it’s tail at the origin. ANSWER: v = 84.3 below the v negative x-axis & = (20 + 10 ) m/ a ı ^  ^ s2 Correct Part K Find the magnitude of . ANSWER: Correct Part L a a = 22.4 m/s2 Find the direction of . ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.14 Let , , and . Part A What is the component form of vector ? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the magnitude of vector ? ANSWER: a = 26.6 above the a positive x-axis & A = 5 − 2 ı ^  ^ B = −2 + 6 ı ^  ^ D = A − B D D = 7 − 8 ı ^  ^ D = −7 − 5 ı ^  ^ D = 7 + 8 ı ^  ^ D = 4 + 5 ı ^  ^ D Correct Part C What is the direction of vector ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.15 Let , , and . Part A Write vector in component form. ANSWER: D = 10.6 D  = 49 & below positive x-axis A = 4 − 2 ı ^  ^ B = −3 + 5 ı ^  ^ E = 4A + 2B E E = 10 + 2 ı ^  ^ E = + 10 ı ^  ^ E = −10 ^ E = 10 − 2 ı ^  ^ Correct Part B Draw vectors , , and . Draw the vectors with their tails at the origin. ANSWER: Correct Part C A B E What is the magnitude of vector ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the direction of vector ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.24 Part A What is the angle between vectors and in the figure? Express your answer with the appropriate units. E E = 10.0 E  = 11 & counterclockwise from positive direction of x-axis  E F ANSWER: Correct Part B Use components to determine the magnitude of . ANSWER: Correct Part C Use components to determine the direction of . Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 91.3%.  = 71.6 & G = E + F  G = 3.00 G = E + F   = 90.0 & You received 129.62 out of a possible total of 142 points.

Assignment 2 Due: 11:59pm on Wednesday, February 12, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Conceptual Question 2.6 Part A The figure shows the position-versus-time graph for a moving object. At which lettered point or points: Is the object moving the slowest? Is the object moving the fastest? Is the object at rest? Drag the appropriate items to their respective bins. ANSWER: Correct Part B At which lettered point or points is the object moving to the negative direction? ANSWER: Correct Conceptual Question 2.7 The figure shows the position-versus-time graph for a moving object. At which lettered point or points: Part A Is the object moving the fastest? ANSWER: A B C D E Correct Part B Is the object speeding up? ANSWER: Correct Part C Is the object moving to the left and turning around? ANSWER: A B C D E F A B C D E F Correct Kinematic Vocabulary One of the difficulties in studying mechanics is that many common words are used with highly specific technical meanings, among them velocity, acceleration, position, speed, and displacement. The series of questions in this problem is designed to get you to try to think of these quantities like a physicist. Answer the questions in this problem using words from the following list: A. position B. direction C. displacement D. coordinates E. velocity F. acceleration G. distance H. magnitude I. vector J. scalar K. components Part A Velocity differs from speed in that velocity indicates a particle’s __________ of motion. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. ANSWER: Correct Part B Unlike speed, velocity is a __________ quantity. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. ANSWER: Correct Part C A vector has, by definition, both __________ and direction. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. ANSWER: Correct Part D Once you have selected a coordinate system, you can express a two-dimensional vector using a pair of quantities known collectively as __________. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. ANSWER: Correct Part E Speed differs from velocity in the same way that __________ differs from displacement. Enter the letter from the list given in the problem introduction that best completes the sentence. Hint 1. Definition of displacement Displacement is the vector that indicates the difference of two positions (e.g., the final position from the initial position). Being a vector, it is independent of the coordinate system used to describe it (although its vector components depend on the coordinate system). ANSWER: Correct Part F Consider a physical situation in which a particle moves from point A to point B. This process is described from two coordinate systems that are identical except that they have different origins. The __________ of the particle at point A differ(s) as expressed in one coordinate system compared to the other, but the __________ from A to B is/are the same as expressed in both coordinate systems. Type the letters from the list given in the problem introduction that best complete the sentence. Separate the letters with commas. There is more than one correct answer, but you should only enter one pair of comma-separated letters. For example, if the words “vector” and “scalar” fit best in the blanks, enter I,J. ANSWER: Correct The coordinates of a point will depend on the coordinate system that is chosen, but there are several other quantities that are independent of the choice of origin for a coordinate system: in particular, distance, displacement, direction, and velocity. In working physics problems, unless you are interested in the position of an object or event relative to a specific origin, you can usually choose the coordinate system origin to be wherever is most convenient or intuitive. Note that the vector indicating a displacement from A to B is usually represented as . Part G Identify the following physical quantities as scalars or vectors. ANSWER: rB A = rB − rA Correct Problem 2.4 The figure is the position-versus-time graph of a jogger. Part A What is the jogger’s velocity at = 10 ? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Answer Requested Part B What is the jogger’s velocity at = 25 ? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the jogger’s velocity at = 35 ? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: t s v = 1.3 ms t s v = 0 ms t s v = -5.0 ms Correct Analyzing Position versus Time Graphs: Conceptual Question Two cars travel on the parallel lanes of a two-lane road. The cars’ motions are represented by the position versus time graph shown in the figure. Answer the questions using the times from the graph indicated by letters. Part A At which of the times do the two cars pass each other? Hint 1. Two cars passing Two objects can pass each other only if they have the same position at the same time. ANSWER: Correct Part B Are the two cars traveling in the same direction when they pass each other? ANSWER: Correct Part C At which of the lettered times, if any, does car #1 momentarily stop? Hint 1. Determining velocity from a position versus time graph The slope on a position versus time graph is the “rise” (change in position) over the “run” (change in time). In physics, the ratio of change in position over change in time is defined as the velocity. Thus, the slope on a position versus time graph is the velocity of the object being graphed. ANSWER: A B C D E None Cannot be determined yes no Correct Part D At which of the lettered times, if any, does car #2 momentarily stop? Hint 1. Determining velocity from a position versus time graph The slope on a position versus time graph is the “rise” (change in position) over the “run” (change in time). In physics, the ratio of change in position over change in time is defined as the velocity. Thus, the slope on a position versus time graph is the velocity of the object being graphed. ANSWER: A B C D E none cannot be determined A B C D E none cannot be determined Correct Part E At which of the lettered times are the cars moving with nearly identical velocity? Hint 1. Determining Velocity from a Position versus Time Graph The slope on a position versus time graph is the “rise” (change in position) over the “run” (change in time). In physics, the ratio of change in position over change in time is defined as the velocity. Thus, the slope on a position versus time graph is the velocity of the object being graphed. ANSWER: Correct Problem 2.6 A particle starts from 10 at = 0 and moves with the velocity graph shown in the figure. A B C D E None Cannot be determined m t0 Part A Does this particle have a turning point? ANSWER: Correct Part B If so, at what time? Express your answer using two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the object’s position at = 2, 3, 4 ? Yes No t = 1.0 s t s Express your answers using two significant figures separated by commas. ANSWER: Correct Overcoming a Head Start Cars A and B are racing each other along the same straight road in the following manner: Car A has a head start and is a distance beyond the starting line at . The starting line is at . Car A travels at a constant speed . Car B starts at the starting line but has a better engine than Car A, and thus Car B travels at a constant speed , which is greater than . Part A How long after Car B started the race will Car B catch up with Car A? Express the time in terms of given quantities. Hint 1. Consider the kinematics relation Write an expression for the displacement of Car A from the starting line at a time after Car B starts. (Note that we are taking this time to be .) Answer in terms of , , , and for time, and take at the starting line. Hint 1. What is the acceleration of Car A? The acceleration of Car A is zero, so the general formula has at least one term equal to zero. ANSWER: Hint 2. What is the relation between the positions of the two cars? x2 , x3 , x4 = 10,16,26 m DA t = 0 x = 0 vA vB vA t t = 0 vA vB DA t x = 0 x(t) = x0 + v0t + (1/2)at2 xA(t) = DA + vAt The positions of the two cars are equal at time . Hint 3. Consider Car B’s position as a function of time Write down an expression for the position of Car B at time after starting. Give your answer in terms of any variables needed (use for time). ANSWER: ANSWER: Correct Part B How far from Car B’s starting line will the cars be when Car B passes Car A? Express your answer in terms of known quantities. (You may use as well.) Hint 1. Which expression should you use? Just use your expression for the position of either car after time , and substitute in the correct value for (found in the previous part). ANSWER: Correct tcatch t t xB(t) = vBt tcatch = DA vB−vA tcatch t = 0 tcatch dpass = vBDA vB−vA Problem 2.11 The figure shows the velocity graph of a particle moving along the x-axis. Its initial position is at . At = 2 , what are the particle’s (a) position, (b) velocity, and (c) acceleration? Part A Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: x0 = 2 m t0 = 0 t s x = 6.0 m vx = 4.0 ms Correct Part C Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 2.13 A jet plane is cruising at 300 when suddenly the pilot turns the engines up to full throttle. After traveling 3.9 , the jet is moving with a speed of 400 . Part A What is the jet’s acceleration, assuming it to be a constant acceleration? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Enhanced EOC: Problem 2.20 A rock is tossed straight up with a velocity of 22 When it returns, it falls into a hole deep. You may want to review ( pages 51 – 54) . ax = 2.0 m s2 m/s km m/s a = 9.0 m s2 m/s 10 m For help with math skills, you may want to review: Quadratic Equations For general problem-solving tips and strategies for this topic, you may want to view a Video Tutor Solution of Time in the air for a tossed ball. Part A What is the rock’s velocity as it hits the bottom of the hole? Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem Start by drawing a picture of the path of the rock, including its launch point, initial direction, and end point in the hole. Choose a coordinate system, and indicate it on your picture. Where is ? What is the positive direction? What is the position of the launch point and the bottom of the hole? In this coordinate system, what is the sign of the initial velocity and the sign of the acceleration? Calling the launch time , what is the equation for as a function of time? What is the position at the bottom of the hole? This will lead to a quadratic equation for the time when the rock hits the bottom of the hole. The quadratic equation has two solutions for the time. Not all mathematical solutions make sense physically. Which solution makes sense physically in terms of the picture that you drew at the beginning? Keeping the same coordinate system, what is the velocity in the direction as a function of time? What is the velocity when the rock hits the bottom of the hole? ANSWER: Correct Part B How long is the rock in the air, from the instant it is released until it hits the bottom of the hole? Express your answer with the appropriate units. y = 0 m y t = 0 y y t y y v = -26.1 ms Hint 1. How to approach the problem How is the time the rock was in the air related to the time at which the rock hit the ground in Part A? ANSWER: Correct Enhanced EOC: Problem 2.23 A particle moving along the x-axis has its position described by the function 2.00 5.00 5.00 , where is in s. At = 4.00, what are the particle’s (a) position, (b) velocity, and (c) acceleration? You may want to review ( pages 38 – 42) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Differentiation of Polynomial Functions t = 4.90 s x = ( t3 − t + ) m t t Part A Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem Evaluate the position at time = 4.00 . ANSWER: Correct Part B Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem How do you determine the velocity as a function of time, , from the position, ? What calculus operation do you have to perform? Once you have , how do you determine at a particular time? ANSWER: Correct Part C Express your answer with the appropriate units. t s 113 m v(t) x(t) v(t) v 91.0 ms Hint 1. How to approach the problem How do you determine the acceleration as a function of time, , from the velocity, ? What calculus operation do you have to perform? Once you have , how do you determine the acceleration at a particular time? ANSWER: Correct Problem 2.26 A particle’s position on the x-axis is given by the function 6.00 6.00 , where is in s. Part A Where is the particle when = 4.00 ? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 2.30 A particle’s velocity is described by the function = , where is in . a(t) v(t) a(t) 48.0 m s2 x = (t2 − t + ) m t vx m/s 1.00 m vx t2 − 7t + 7 m/s t s Part A How many turning points does the particle reach. Express your answer as an integer. ANSWER: Correct Part B At what times does the particle reach its turning points? Express your answers using two significant figures separated by a comma. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the particle’s acceleration at each of the turning points? Express your answers using two significant figures separated by a comma. ANSWER: Correct 2 t1 , t2 = 5.8,1.2 s a1 , a2 = 4.6,-4.6 m/s2 Problem 2.49 A 200 weather rocket is loaded with 100 of fuel and fired straight up. It accelerates upward at 35 for 30 , then runs out of fuel. Ignore any air resistance effects. Part A What is the rocket’s maximum altitude? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B How long is the rocket in the air? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Answer Requested Problem 2.52 A hotel elevator ascends with maximum speed of . Its acceleration and deceleration both have a magnitude of . Part A How far does the elevator move while accelerating to full speed from rest? kg kg m/s2 s h = 72 km t = 260 s 200 m 5 m/s 1.0 m/s2 Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B How long does it take to make the complete trip from bottom to top? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Answer Requested Components of Vectors Shown is a 10 by 10 grid, with coordinate axes x and y . The grid runs from -5 to 5 on both axes. Drawn on this grid are four vectors, labeled through . This problem will ask you various questions about these vectors. All answers should be in decimal notation, unless otherwise specified. 12.5 m 45.0 s A D Part A What is the x component of ? Express your answer to two significant figures. Hint 1. How to derive the component A component of a vector is its length (but with appropriate sign) along a particular coordinate axis, the axes being specfied in advance. You are asked for the component of that lies along the x axis, which is horizontal in this problem. Imagine two lines perpendicular to the x axis running from the head (end with the arrow) and tail of down to the x axis. The length of the x axis between the points where these lines intersect is the x component of . In this problem, the x component is the x coordinate at which the perpendicular from the head of the vector hits the origin (because the tail of the vector is at the origin). ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the y component of ? Express your answer to the nearest integer. ANSWER: Correct A A A A Ax = 2.5 A Ay = 3 Part C What is the y component of ? Express your answer to the nearest integer. Hint 1. Consider the direction Don’t forget the sign. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the component of ? Express your answer to the nearest integer. Hint 1. How to find the start and end points of the vector components A vector is defined only by its magnitude and direction. The starting point of the vector is of no consequence to its definition. Therefore, you need to somehow eliminate the starting point from your answer. You can run two perpendiculars to the x axis, one from the head (end with the arrow) of , and another to the tail, with the x component being the difference between x coordinates of head and tail (negative if the tail is to the right of the head). Another way is to imagine bringing the tail of to the origin, and then using the same procedure you used before to find the components of and . This is equivalent to the previous method, but it might be easier to visualize. ANSWER: B By = -3 x C C C A B Cx = -2 Correct The following questions will ask you to give both components of vectors using the ordered pairs method. In this method, the x component is written first, followed by a comma, and then the y component. For example, the components of would be written 2.5,3 in ordered pair notation. The answers below are all integers, so estimate the components to the nearest whole number. Part E In ordered pair notation, write down the components of vector . Express your answers to the nearest integer. ANSWER: Correct Part F In ordered pair notation, write down the components of vector . Express your answers to the nearest integer. ANSWER: Correct Part G What is true about and ? Choose from the pulldown list below. A B Bx, By = 2,-3 D Dx, Dy = 2,-3 B D ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.6 Find x- and y-components of the following vectors. Part A Express your answers using two significant figures. Enter your answers numerically separated by a comma. ANSWER: Correct Part B Express your answers using two significant figures. Enter your answers numerically separated by a comma. ANSWER: They have different components and are not the same vectors. They have the same components but are not the same vectors. They are the same vectors. = (r 430m, 60& below positive x − axis) rx, ry = 210,-370 m v = (610m/s, 23& above positive x − axis) Correct Part C Express your answers using two significant figures. Enter your answers numerically separated by a comma. ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.10 Part A Draw . Draw the vector with its tail at the origin. ANSWER: vx, vy = 560,240 m/s a = (7.3m/s2 , negative y − direction) ax, ay = 0,-7.3 m/s2 B = −4 + 4 ı ^  ^ Correct Part B Find the magnitude of . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct B B = 5.7 Part C Find the direction of . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part D Draw . Draw the vector with its tail at the origin. ANSWER: B = 45 above the B negative x-axis & = (−2.0 − 1.0 ) cm r ı ^  ^ Correct Part E Find the magnitude of . Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct r r = 2.2 cm Part F Find the direction of . ANSWER: Correct Part G Draw . Draw the vector with its tail at the origin. ANSWER: r = 26.6 below the r negative x-axis & = (−10 − 100 ) m/s v ı ^  ^ Correct Part H Find the magnitude of . Express your answer using four significant figures. ANSWER: Correct v v = 100.5 m/s Part I Find the direction of . ANSWER: Correct Part J Draw . Draw the vector with it’s tail at the origin. ANSWER: v = 84.3 below the v negative x-axis & = (20 + 10 ) m/ a ı ^  ^ s2 Correct Part K Find the magnitude of . ANSWER: Correct Part L a a = 22.4 m/s2 Find the direction of . ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.14 Let , , and . Part A What is the component form of vector ? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the magnitude of vector ? ANSWER: a = 26.6 above the a positive x-axis & A = 5 − 2 ı ^  ^ B = −2 + 6 ı ^  ^ D = A − B D D = 7 − 8 ı ^  ^ D = −7 − 5 ı ^  ^ D = 7 + 8 ı ^  ^ D = 4 + 5 ı ^  ^ D Correct Part C What is the direction of vector ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.15 Let , , and . Part A Write vector in component form. ANSWER: D = 10.6 D  = 49 & below positive x-axis A = 4 − 2 ı ^  ^ B = −3 + 5 ı ^  ^ E = 4A + 2B E E = 10 + 2 ı ^  ^ E = + 10 ı ^  ^ E = −10 ^ E = 10 − 2 ı ^  ^ Correct Part B Draw vectors , , and . Draw the vectors with their tails at the origin. ANSWER: Correct Part C A B E What is the magnitude of vector ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the direction of vector ? Express your answer using two significant figures. ANSWER: Correct Problem 3.24 Part A What is the angle between vectors and in the figure? Express your answer with the appropriate units. E E = 10.0 E  = 11 & counterclockwise from positive direction of x-axis  E F ANSWER: Correct Part B Use components to determine the magnitude of . ANSWER: Correct Part C Use components to determine the direction of . Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 91.3%.  = 71.6 & G = E + F  G = 3.00 G = E + F   = 90.0 & You received 129.62 out of a possible total of 142 points.

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Learning Objectives This part begins with what are probably the basic questions for a designer of a computing sytem’s human interface: • How should the functionality of the system be described and presented to the user? • How can the design of the interface help the user to understand and successfully use the system? Learning Goals At the conclusion of this module you will be able to: • define the user’s movement among the displays that make up the system; • the addition of visual and spatial cues to the information organization; and • methods of structuring and presenting the interface. Introduction This module deals with the development and utilization of a system. We all have systems for doing things. For instance, we may have a system for handling routine situations around the house that makes sense only to us. Or, we may be oriented toward systems that have a more widespread understanding such as personal finance or how to fill out our IRS forms. When humans use a system, whether natural or man-made, they do so based on their understanding of that system. A totally accurate understanding of a system is not a necessary condition for effective use of that system. Key Terms Systems, User Model, Model, Metaphor, Concept Modeling The Development of Human Systems I. The organization of knowledge about a phenomenon or system constitutes the human’s conceptual model of that system. Information gained from experience with a system contributes to the model, and the model in turn provides a reference or guide for future experience with the system. A. (Reinstein and Hersh, 1984) – a set of concepts a person gradually acquires to explain the behavior of a system. …. That enables that person to understand and interact with the system. 1. For the user, the important thing about a model is its ability to predict: when confronted with unfamiliar or incompletely understood situations, the user relies on their model, their conceptual understanding of the system, to make educated guesses about how to proceed. If the user’s model accurately reflects the effects of the system, then he will be more successful in learning and using the system, and likely will perceive the system as easy to use. 2. Because the model can server this important role in design of helping to create an understandable and predictable system, the creation of the user’s conceptual model should be the first task of system development. One of the more important examples of the use of conceptual model, the XEROX Star office automation system (whose design greatly influenced Apple’s Lisa and Macintosh systems), started with thirty man-years of design work on the user interface before either the hardware or the system software was designed (Smith, Irby, Kimball, Verplank and Harselm, 1982). 3. The conceptual model does not have to be an accurate representation of how the system actually functions. Indeed, it can be quite different from reality, and in most if not all circumstances for systems as complex as computers, should be. 4. The model may be a myth or metaphor, that explains the system: it “suggests that the computer is like something with which the user is already familiar” (Rubinstein and Hersh, 1984, p. 43), or provides a simple explanation of the system which can be used to predict the system’s behavior. 5. ….the conceptual models people form are based on their interactions with an environment … “people who have different roles within an environment … will form different conceptual systems of those environments. 6. People whose essential interaction with an environment is to create it will almost inevitably have an understanding and conceptualization of it which is different from those whose major interaction with it is to use it” Action Assignment Based on the readings for this module, please identify a personal “system” with which you act and perform within. This should be from personal experience and one that assists in providing a model for organization, understanding and problem solving.

Learning Objectives This part begins with what are probably the basic questions for a designer of a computing sytem’s human interface: • How should the functionality of the system be described and presented to the user? • How can the design of the interface help the user to understand and successfully use the system? Learning Goals At the conclusion of this module you will be able to: • define the user’s movement among the displays that make up the system; • the addition of visual and spatial cues to the information organization; and • methods of structuring and presenting the interface. Introduction This module deals with the development and utilization of a system. We all have systems for doing things. For instance, we may have a system for handling routine situations around the house that makes sense only to us. Or, we may be oriented toward systems that have a more widespread understanding such as personal finance or how to fill out our IRS forms. When humans use a system, whether natural or man-made, they do so based on their understanding of that system. A totally accurate understanding of a system is not a necessary condition for effective use of that system. Key Terms Systems, User Model, Model, Metaphor, Concept Modeling The Development of Human Systems I. The organization of knowledge about a phenomenon or system constitutes the human’s conceptual model of that system. Information gained from experience with a system contributes to the model, and the model in turn provides a reference or guide for future experience with the system. A. (Reinstein and Hersh, 1984) – a set of concepts a person gradually acquires to explain the behavior of a system. …. That enables that person to understand and interact with the system. 1. For the user, the important thing about a model is its ability to predict: when confronted with unfamiliar or incompletely understood situations, the user relies on their model, their conceptual understanding of the system, to make educated guesses about how to proceed. If the user’s model accurately reflects the effects of the system, then he will be more successful in learning and using the system, and likely will perceive the system as easy to use. 2. Because the model can server this important role in design of helping to create an understandable and predictable system, the creation of the user’s conceptual model should be the first task of system development. One of the more important examples of the use of conceptual model, the XEROX Star office automation system (whose design greatly influenced Apple’s Lisa and Macintosh systems), started with thirty man-years of design work on the user interface before either the hardware or the system software was designed (Smith, Irby, Kimball, Verplank and Harselm, 1982). 3. The conceptual model does not have to be an accurate representation of how the system actually functions. Indeed, it can be quite different from reality, and in most if not all circumstances for systems as complex as computers, should be. 4. The model may be a myth or metaphor, that explains the system: it “suggests that the computer is like something with which the user is already familiar” (Rubinstein and Hersh, 1984, p. 43), or provides a simple explanation of the system which can be used to predict the system’s behavior. 5. ….the conceptual models people form are based on their interactions with an environment … “people who have different roles within an environment … will form different conceptual systems of those environments. 6. People whose essential interaction with an environment is to create it will almost inevitably have an understanding and conceptualization of it which is different from those whose major interaction with it is to use it” Action Assignment Based on the readings for this module, please identify a personal “system” with which you act and perform within. This should be from personal experience and one that assists in providing a model for organization, understanding and problem solving.