Under the influence of progesterone, which body part develops increased numbers of oxytocin and prostaglandin receptors? Question 31 options: Fallopian tubes Uterus Kidney Clitoris

Under the influence of progesterone, which body part develops increased numbers of oxytocin and prostaglandin receptors? Question 31 options: Fallopian tubes Uterus Kidney Clitoris

Under the influence of progesterone, which body part develops increased … Read More...
Problem 1: (30 points) A 20 lb bucket is supported by three cables DA, DB, and DC as shown in the figure. 1) Draw a complete free body diagram at point D. (10 pt) 2) Express all forces in Cartesian form. (5 pt) 3) Determine the tensions in cable DC and springs DA and DB. (15pt)

Problem 1: (30 points) A 20 lb bucket is supported by three cables DA, DB, and DC as shown in the figure. 1) Draw a complete free body diagram at point D. (10 pt) 2) Express all forces in Cartesian form. (5 pt) 3) Determine the tensions in cable DC and springs DA and DB. (15pt)

 
Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

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b. Two surfaces A and B are close to each other and are exchanging heat with each other. Surface A is coated with white paint and is maintained at temperature 200oC. It is located directly opposite to surface B which is considered a black body and is maintained at 800oC. Calculate the amount of heat energy that needs to be removed from surface A per unit area to maintain its constant temperature

b. Two surfaces A and B are close to each other and are exchanging heat with each other. Surface A is coated with white paint and is maintained at temperature 200oC. It is located directly opposite to surface B which is considered a black body and is maintained at 800oC. Calculate the amount of heat energy that needs to be removed from surface A per unit area to maintain its constant temperature

Which of the following is depicted in the figure shown? Select one: a. asymmetry b. bilateral symmetry If there were bilateral symmetry, the organism could be divided into two identical halves only by cutting it down the center of its body. c. radial symmetry d. semi-symmetry

Which of the following is depicted in the figure shown? Select one: a. asymmetry b. bilateral symmetry If there were bilateral symmetry, the organism could be divided into two identical halves only by cutting it down the center of its body. c. radial symmetry d. semi-symmetry

Info@checkyourstudy.com                                                                                                                                                                                       : radial symmetry
Berkeley College International Economics Quiz 1 Student name: Class & Session (Type all your answers in the parenthesis) Multiple Choice Questions (75 points) 1. The person credited with the first systematic expression of the principle of comparative advantage was ( ) A. Alan Greenspan. B. John Maynard Keynes. C. David Ricardo. D. Adam Smith. 2. A regulation that sets the highest price at which it is legal to trade a good is a ( ) A. Production quota B. Price floor C. Price ceiling D. Tax ceiling 3. In Country J, it takes one hour to knit a pair of socks, and five hours to brew a gallon of cider. In Country K, it takes three hours to knit a pair of socks, and six hours to brew a gallon of cider. If trade were to open between the two countries, Ricardo would predict that ( ) A. Country J will export cider and Country K will export socks. B. Country J will export socks and Country K will export cider. C. Country J will export both socks and cider. D. Country K will export both socks and cider. 4. If Nation A can produce either 3x or 3y with one hour of labor, while nation B can produce either 1x or 1y with one hour of labor, and if labor is the only input, then ( ) A. Nation A has an absolute advantage in both goods. B. Nation B has an absolute advantage in both goods. C. Nation A has a comparative disadvantage in both goods. D. Nation A has a comparative advantage in both goods. 5. Mutually beneficial trade A. Allows both countries to consume a larger bundle of goods than before trade occurred.( ) B. Allows only the more productive country to consume a larger bundle of goods than before trade occurred. C. Allows only the less productive country to consume a larger bundle of goods than before trade occurred. D. Causes changes only in production, not consumption. 6. In the absence of trade, the consumption points available to a nation ( ) A. Are above the production possibility curve. B. Are on or inside the production possibility curve. C. Lie on the production possibility curve. D. Cannot be identified. 7. For Heckscher-Ohlin, the most important cause of the differences in relative commodity prices is the difference between countries in ( ) A. Factor endowments. B. National income. C. Technology. D. Tastes. 8. Country J has 1 million machines and 1 million workers, while country K has 2 million machines and 3 million workers. If computers are produced mostly by capital and beer is produced mostly by labor, the H-O model predicts that ( ) A. Country K will export computers in exchange for beer. B. Country J will export computers in exchange for beer. C. Country J is too small to be of economic interest to Country K. D. Computers and beer don’t mix, so trade cannot increase either country’s well-being. 9. Mexico is an unskilled labor abundant country, while the United States is a skilled labor abundant country. With the opening of trade, you would expect that, in the long run, wages for unskilled workers ( ) A. Decline in both countries. B. Decline in the United States and rise in Mexico. C. Rise in the United States and decline in Mexico. D. Rise in both countries 10. According to trade theory, if a nation has a comparative advantage in a capital-intensively produced good, and the rate of growth of capital is greater than the rate of growth of other inputs (e.g., labor), the pattern of growth which results will be ( ) A. Import replacing. B. Neutral as between capital intensive and other products. C. Export expanding. D. None of the above. 11. Arguments in favor of having developing countries focus on exporting manufactured goods include ( ) A. Strong support in industrialized countries for free trade in manufactured goods. B. Very low tariffs on manufactured textiles, apparel, and footwear in industrialized countries. C. Political preference for VERs among importing countries. D. A downward trend in the prices of primary products. 12. Which group definitely loses from international migration of labor? ( ) A. The migrants. B. The migrants’ new employers in the receiving country. C. The migrants’ old employers in the sending country. D. The migrants’ fellow workers who did not emigrate. 13. As technology advances, ( ) A. All opportunity cost decreases B. The PPF shift outward C. A country moves toward the midpoint along its PPF D. The PPF shift inward because unemployment occurs 14. If a country is operating at a point of production efficiency ( ) A. It enjoys growth when increasing production B. It produces on its production possibility frontier curve C. It must specialize in the production of a good D. It operates on its trade line 15. A cartel is ( ) A. Another name for a firm in an oligopoly B. A collusive agreement among a number of firms C. A government body that regulates an industry D. An antitrust law (Type and show your work) Practicum Question (25 points) Two countries, Haiti and the Dominican Republic, produce fruits and timber. Each island has a labor force of 1200 and the monthly productivity of each worker is as follow Basket of fruit Board feet of timber Haiti 10 5 Dominican Republic 30 10 a. Which county has an absolute advantage in the production of fruit? Timber? b. Which country has a comparative advantage in the production of fruit? Timber? c. Sketch the production possibility frontier (PPF) of both countries d. Both countries want to produce an equal amount of baskets of fruit and feet of timber. How should they allocate their workers to the two sectors? e. How can free trade move both countries beyond their respective PPF Extra credits (10 points) The demand and supply curves of the market for DVD at the local (US) market are as follow: P = 30 – Qd/2 and P= -1.5 + Qs/4 a. Find the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity when there is no international trade ( hint: solve for Qd and Qs And then make Qd=Qs to solve for Price and quantities) b. What are the equilibrium quantities when the nations trade freely at price of $15? Explain your rationale. c. How many units are exported? d. What is the resulting national gain? e. Do consumers and producers gain or lose from the free trade?

Berkeley College International Economics Quiz 1 Student name: Class & Session (Type all your answers in the parenthesis) Multiple Choice Questions (75 points) 1. The person credited with the first systematic expression of the principle of comparative advantage was ( ) A. Alan Greenspan. B. John Maynard Keynes. C. David Ricardo. D. Adam Smith. 2. A regulation that sets the highest price at which it is legal to trade a good is a ( ) A. Production quota B. Price floor C. Price ceiling D. Tax ceiling 3. In Country J, it takes one hour to knit a pair of socks, and five hours to brew a gallon of cider. In Country K, it takes three hours to knit a pair of socks, and six hours to brew a gallon of cider. If trade were to open between the two countries, Ricardo would predict that ( ) A. Country J will export cider and Country K will export socks. B. Country J will export socks and Country K will export cider. C. Country J will export both socks and cider. D. Country K will export both socks and cider. 4. If Nation A can produce either 3x or 3y with one hour of labor, while nation B can produce either 1x or 1y with one hour of labor, and if labor is the only input, then ( ) A. Nation A has an absolute advantage in both goods. B. Nation B has an absolute advantage in both goods. C. Nation A has a comparative disadvantage in both goods. D. Nation A has a comparative advantage in both goods. 5. Mutually beneficial trade A. Allows both countries to consume a larger bundle of goods than before trade occurred.( ) B. Allows only the more productive country to consume a larger bundle of goods than before trade occurred. C. Allows only the less productive country to consume a larger bundle of goods than before trade occurred. D. Causes changes only in production, not consumption. 6. In the absence of trade, the consumption points available to a nation ( ) A. Are above the production possibility curve. B. Are on or inside the production possibility curve. C. Lie on the production possibility curve. D. Cannot be identified. 7. For Heckscher-Ohlin, the most important cause of the differences in relative commodity prices is the difference between countries in ( ) A. Factor endowments. B. National income. C. Technology. D. Tastes. 8. Country J has 1 million machines and 1 million workers, while country K has 2 million machines and 3 million workers. If computers are produced mostly by capital and beer is produced mostly by labor, the H-O model predicts that ( ) A. Country K will export computers in exchange for beer. B. Country J will export computers in exchange for beer. C. Country J is too small to be of economic interest to Country K. D. Computers and beer don’t mix, so trade cannot increase either country’s well-being. 9. Mexico is an unskilled labor abundant country, while the United States is a skilled labor abundant country. With the opening of trade, you would expect that, in the long run, wages for unskilled workers ( ) A. Decline in both countries. B. Decline in the United States and rise in Mexico. C. Rise in the United States and decline in Mexico. D. Rise in both countries 10. According to trade theory, if a nation has a comparative advantage in a capital-intensively produced good, and the rate of growth of capital is greater than the rate of growth of other inputs (e.g., labor), the pattern of growth which results will be ( ) A. Import replacing. B. Neutral as between capital intensive and other products. C. Export expanding. D. None of the above. 11. Arguments in favor of having developing countries focus on exporting manufactured goods include ( ) A. Strong support in industrialized countries for free trade in manufactured goods. B. Very low tariffs on manufactured textiles, apparel, and footwear in industrialized countries. C. Political preference for VERs among importing countries. D. A downward trend in the prices of primary products. 12. Which group definitely loses from international migration of labor? ( ) A. The migrants. B. The migrants’ new employers in the receiving country. C. The migrants’ old employers in the sending country. D. The migrants’ fellow workers who did not emigrate. 13. As technology advances, ( ) A. All opportunity cost decreases B. The PPF shift outward C. A country moves toward the midpoint along its PPF D. The PPF shift inward because unemployment occurs 14. If a country is operating at a point of production efficiency ( ) A. It enjoys growth when increasing production B. It produces on its production possibility frontier curve C. It must specialize in the production of a good D. It operates on its trade line 15. A cartel is ( ) A. Another name for a firm in an oligopoly B. A collusive agreement among a number of firms C. A government body that regulates an industry D. An antitrust law (Type and show your work) Practicum Question (25 points) Two countries, Haiti and the Dominican Republic, produce fruits and timber. Each island has a labor force of 1200 and the monthly productivity of each worker is as follow Basket of fruit Board feet of timber Haiti 10 5 Dominican Republic 30 10 a. Which county has an absolute advantage in the production of fruit? Timber? b. Which country has a comparative advantage in the production of fruit? Timber? c. Sketch the production possibility frontier (PPF) of both countries d. Both countries want to produce an equal amount of baskets of fruit and feet of timber. How should they allocate their workers to the two sectors? e. How can free trade move both countries beyond their respective PPF Extra credits (10 points) The demand and supply curves of the market for DVD at the local (US) market are as follow: P = 30 – Qd/2 and P= -1.5 + Qs/4 a. Find the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity when there is no international trade ( hint: solve for Qd and Qs And then make Qd=Qs to solve for Price and quantities) b. What are the equilibrium quantities when the nations trade freely at price of $15? Explain your rationale. c. How many units are exported? d. What is the resulting national gain? e. Do consumers and producers gain or lose from the free trade?

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Critical Essay Guidelines FORMAT: Prepare your paper as a Microsoft Word file. Single-space the body of your paper; you may double-space between the headings (Introduction, Background Explanation and Critical Evaluation) described below. Use 1” margins on all sides. Use a font that is no larger than Times New Roman at 12 pt. and no smaller than Times New Roman at 10 pt. Put your name, course name, section and the date in a header on top of all pages. Include page numbers. LENGTH, TOPIC, ETC.: Write a 2 – 3 page (single-spaced) (1500 words) critical response on your topic. Back up your discussion with direct quotation from the relevant text, preferably short quotes, such as single sentences and (even better) crucial phrases. Leave out words or phrases using…ellipses…, etc. Less than 1/4 page total of your paper should be direct quotation. Cite any direct quotes simply by giving text title and page number in parentheses; the page number will either be from the textbook or what’s posted on Blackboard. For example, such a citation might look like: (Schoedinger, 25). Include a “Works Cited” page at the end of your paper citing the primary philosophic text from Schoedinger’s textbook. No other sources should be used. Treat your intended audience as someone who has some familiarity with philosophy generally, but no familiarity with the details of what you are writing on. STRUCTURE: In this critical response, you will do all and only the following three things, putting each under its OWN SECTION HEADING: A. INTRODUCTION Begin with a one-sentence introductory paragraph where you very briefly say what you will be doing in the rest of the critical response, one which has the exact form: “In this critical response, I will consider <insert chosen topic>, and then I will argue that <insert statement of main thesis>.” For example: “In this critical response, I will consider Socrates’ views on a worthwhile life, and then I will argue that the worthwhile life is nothing more or less than the life of pleasure.” B. BACKGROUND EXPLANATION Explain (in one-half to 1 page), as clearly as you can, the background to your chosen topic, including any relevant discussion in the text, and also including any relevant theories, arguments, objections, crucial notions and distinctions, etc. C. CRITICAL EVALUATION Critically evaluate (in 1½ – 2 pages) your chosen topic. This involves explaining and defending your thesis on the topic. In doing this, address relevant material from your “ Background Explanation” section. Also, you are encouraged (but not required) to anticipate potential objections and reply to them. Throughout your critical evaluation, pay careful attention (even if just informally) to the criteria of a good argument. This applies both when you are considering others’ arguments and when you are giving your own. GRADING: Grading will be based partly on whether or not you have successfully followed the instructions above (including the format requirements). Each defect in terms of failure to satisfy the instructions will cost you points. Any paper which completely ignores all instructions, however, will receive a zero. Barring prior consent from me or documented and sufficiently excusing special contingency, late papers will be graded in accord with the late policy on the syllabus. Grading will also be based on the writing quality. Here I have in mind things like: is the paper clear, concise, grammatical and accurate? Does it provide necessary explanations and avoid irrelevant material?

Critical Essay Guidelines FORMAT: Prepare your paper as a Microsoft Word file. Single-space the body of your paper; you may double-space between the headings (Introduction, Background Explanation and Critical Evaluation) described below. Use 1” margins on all sides. Use a font that is no larger than Times New Roman at 12 pt. and no smaller than Times New Roman at 10 pt. Put your name, course name, section and the date in a header on top of all pages. Include page numbers. LENGTH, TOPIC, ETC.: Write a 2 – 3 page (single-spaced) (1500 words) critical response on your topic. Back up your discussion with direct quotation from the relevant text, preferably short quotes, such as single sentences and (even better) crucial phrases. Leave out words or phrases using…ellipses…, etc. Less than 1/4 page total of your paper should be direct quotation. Cite any direct quotes simply by giving text title and page number in parentheses; the page number will either be from the textbook or what’s posted on Blackboard. For example, such a citation might look like: (Schoedinger, 25). Include a “Works Cited” page at the end of your paper citing the primary philosophic text from Schoedinger’s textbook. No other sources should be used. Treat your intended audience as someone who has some familiarity with philosophy generally, but no familiarity with the details of what you are writing on. STRUCTURE: In this critical response, you will do all and only the following three things, putting each under its OWN SECTION HEADING: A. INTRODUCTION Begin with a one-sentence introductory paragraph where you very briefly say what you will be doing in the rest of the critical response, one which has the exact form: “In this critical response, I will consider , and then I will argue that .” For example: “In this critical response, I will consider Socrates’ views on a worthwhile life, and then I will argue that the worthwhile life is nothing more or less than the life of pleasure.” B. BACKGROUND EXPLANATION Explain (in one-half to 1 page), as clearly as you can, the background to your chosen topic, including any relevant discussion in the text, and also including any relevant theories, arguments, objections, crucial notions and distinctions, etc. C. CRITICAL EVALUATION Critically evaluate (in 1½ – 2 pages) your chosen topic. This involves explaining and defending your thesis on the topic. In doing this, address relevant material from your “ Background Explanation” section. Also, you are encouraged (but not required) to anticipate potential objections and reply to them. Throughout your critical evaluation, pay careful attention (even if just informally) to the criteria of a good argument. This applies both when you are considering others’ arguments and when you are giving your own. GRADING: Grading will be based partly on whether or not you have successfully followed the instructions above (including the format requirements). Each defect in terms of failure to satisfy the instructions will cost you points. Any paper which completely ignores all instructions, however, will receive a zero. Barring prior consent from me or documented and sufficiently excusing special contingency, late papers will be graded in accord with the late policy on the syllabus. Grading will also be based on the writing quality. Here I have in mind things like: is the paper clear, concise, grammatical and accurate? Does it provide necessary explanations and avoid irrelevant material?

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A bar is supported by a ball-and-socket joint and two cables as shown below. a) Draw a clear and neat free body diagram (FBD) for the bar. This FBD must be a figure that is separately from the figure given below. b) Determine the reaction at support A (the ball-and-socket joint). Express the force in Cartesian vector form. c) Determine the magnitude of the tension in each cable.

A bar is supported by a ball-and-socket joint and two cables as shown below. a) Draw a clear and neat free body diagram (FBD) for the bar. This FBD must be a figure that is separately from the figure given below. b) Determine the reaction at support A (the ball-and-socket joint). Express the force in Cartesian vector form. c) Determine the magnitude of the tension in each cable.