1-Two notions serve as the basis for all torts: wrongs and compensation. True False 2-The goal of tort law is to put a defendant in the position that he or she would have been in had the tort occurred to the defendant. True False 3-Hayley is injured in an accident precipitated by Isolde. Hayley files a tort action against Isolde, seeking to recover for the damage suffered. Damages that are intended to compensate or reimburse a plaintiff for actual losses are: compensatory damages. reimbursement damages. actual damages. punitive damages. 4-Ladd throws a rock intending to hit Minh but misses and hits Nasir instead. On the basis of the tort of battery, Nasir can sue: Ladd. Minh. the rightful owner of the rock. no one. 4-Luella trespasses on Merchandise Mart’s property. Through the use of reasonable force, Merchandise Mart’s security guard detains Luella until the police arrive. Merchandise Mart is liable for: assault. battery. false imprisonment. none of the choice 6-The extreme risk of an activity is a defense against imposing strict liability. True False 7-Misrepresentation in an ad is enough to show an intent to induce the reliance of anyone who may use the product. True False 8-Luke is playing a video game on a defective disk that melts in his game player, starting a fire that injures his hands. Luke files a suit against Mystic Maze, Inc., the game’s maker under the doctrine of strict liability. A significant application of this doctrine is in the area of: cyber torts. intentional torts. product liability. unintentional torts 9-More than two hundred years ago, the Declaration of Independence recognized the importance of protecting creative works. True False 10-n 2014, Cloud Computing Corporation registers its trademark as provided by federal law. After the first renewal, this registration: is renewable every ten years. is renewable every twenty years. runs for life of the corporation plus seventy years. runs forever. 11-Wendy works as a weather announcer for a TV station under the character name Weather Wendy. Wendy can register her character’s name as: a certification mark. a trade name. a service mark. none of the choices 12-Much of the material on the Internet, including software and database information, is not copyrighted. True False 13-In a criminal case, the state must prove its case by a preponderance of the evidence. True False 14-Under the Fourth Amendmentt, general searches through a person’s belongings are permissible. True False 15-Maura enters a gas station and points a gun at the clerk Nate. She then forces Nate to open the cash register and give her all the money. Maura can be charged with: burglary. robbery. larceny. receiving stolen property. 16-Reno, driving while intoxicated, causes a car accident that results in the death of Santo. Reno is arrested and charged with a felony. A felony is a crime punishable by death or imprisonment for: any period of time. more than one year. more than six months. more than ten days. 17-Corporate officers and directors may be held criminally liable for the actions of employees under their supervision. True False 18-Sal assures Tom that she will deliver a truckload of hay to his cattle ranch. A person’s declaration to do a certain act is part of the definition of: an expectation. a moral obligation. a prediction. a promise. 19-Lark promises to buy Mac’s used textbook for $60. Lark is: an offeror. an offeree a promisee. a promisor. 20-Casey offers to sell a certain used forklift to DIY Lumber Outlet, but Casey dies before DIY accepts. Most likely, Casey’s death: did not affect the offer. shortened the time of the offer but did not terminated it. extended the time of the offer. terminated the offer.

1-Two notions serve as the basis for all torts: wrongs and compensation. True False 2-The goal of tort law is to put a defendant in the position that he or she would have been in had the tort occurred to the defendant. True False 3-Hayley is injured in an accident precipitated by Isolde. Hayley files a tort action against Isolde, seeking to recover for the damage suffered. Damages that are intended to compensate or reimburse a plaintiff for actual losses are: compensatory damages. reimbursement damages. actual damages. punitive damages. 4-Ladd throws a rock intending to hit Minh but misses and hits Nasir instead. On the basis of the tort of battery, Nasir can sue: Ladd. Minh. the rightful owner of the rock. no one. 4-Luella trespasses on Merchandise Mart’s property. Through the use of reasonable force, Merchandise Mart’s security guard detains Luella until the police arrive. Merchandise Mart is liable for: assault. battery. false imprisonment. none of the choice 6-The extreme risk of an activity is a defense against imposing strict liability. True False 7-Misrepresentation in an ad is enough to show an intent to induce the reliance of anyone who may use the product. True False 8-Luke is playing a video game on a defective disk that melts in his game player, starting a fire that injures his hands. Luke files a suit against Mystic Maze, Inc., the game’s maker under the doctrine of strict liability. A significant application of this doctrine is in the area of: cyber torts. intentional torts. product liability. unintentional torts 9-More than two hundred years ago, the Declaration of Independence recognized the importance of protecting creative works. True False 10-n 2014, Cloud Computing Corporation registers its trademark as provided by federal law. After the first renewal, this registration: is renewable every ten years. is renewable every twenty years. runs for life of the corporation plus seventy years. runs forever. 11-Wendy works as a weather announcer for a TV station under the character name Weather Wendy. Wendy can register her character’s name as: a certification mark. a trade name. a service mark. none of the choices 12-Much of the material on the Internet, including software and database information, is not copyrighted. True False 13-In a criminal case, the state must prove its case by a preponderance of the evidence. True False 14-Under the Fourth Amendmentt, general searches through a person’s belongings are permissible. True False 15-Maura enters a gas station and points a gun at the clerk Nate. She then forces Nate to open the cash register and give her all the money. Maura can be charged with: burglary. robbery. larceny. receiving stolen property. 16-Reno, driving while intoxicated, causes a car accident that results in the death of Santo. Reno is arrested and charged with a felony. A felony is a crime punishable by death or imprisonment for: any period of time. more than one year. more than six months. more than ten days. 17-Corporate officers and directors may be held criminally liable for the actions of employees under their supervision. True False 18-Sal assures Tom that she will deliver a truckload of hay to his cattle ranch. A person’s declaration to do a certain act is part of the definition of: an expectation. a moral obligation. a prediction. a promise. 19-Lark promises to buy Mac’s used textbook for $60. Lark is: an offeror. an offeree a promisee. a promisor. 20-Casey offers to sell a certain used forklift to DIY Lumber Outlet, but Casey dies before DIY accepts. Most likely, Casey’s death: did not affect the offer. shortened the time of the offer but did not terminated it. extended the time of the offer. terminated the offer.

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Tornado Eddy Investigation Abstract The objective of this lab was to write a bunch of jibberish to provide students with a formatting template. Chemical engineering, bioengineering, and environmental engineering are “process engineering” disciplines. Good abstracts contains real content, such as 560 mL/min, 35 deg, and 67 percent yield. Ideal degreed graduates are technically strong, bring broad system perspectives to problem solving, and have the professional “soft skills” to make immediate contributions in the workplace. The senior lab sequence is the “capstone” opportunity to realize this ideal by integrating technical skills and developing professional soft skills to ensure workforce preparedness. The best conclusions are objective and numerical, such as operating conditions of 45 L/min at 32 deg C with expected costs of $4.55/lb. Background Insect exchange processes are often used in bug filtration, as they are effective at removing either positive or negative insects from water. An insect exchange column is a packed or fluidized bed filled with resin beads. Water flows through the column and most of the insects from the water enter the beads, but some of them pass in between the beads, which makes the exchange of insects non-ideal. Insectac 249 resin is a cation exchange resin, as it is being used to attract cationic Ca2+ from the toxic waste stream. This means the resin is negatively charged, and needs to be regenerated with a solution that produces positively charged insects, in this case, salt water which contains Na+ insects. The resin contains acidic styrene backbones which capture the cationic insects in a reversible process. A curve of Ca2+ concentration concentration vs. time was obtained after a standard curve was made to determine how many drops from the low cost barium test kit from Aquarium Pharmaceuticals (API)1 bottle #2 would correspond to a certain concentration in solution. A standard curve works by preparing solutions with known concentrations and testing these concentrations using the kit to create a curve of number of drops from bottle #2 (obtained result) vs. concentration of Ca2+ in solution (desired response). The standard curve can then be used for every test on the prototype and in the field, to quickly and accurately obtain a concentration from the test kit. The barium concentration vs. time curve can be used to calculate the exchange capacity of the resin and, in later tests, the regeneration efficiency. The curves must be used to get the total amount of barium removed from the water, m. Seen in Equation 2, the volumetric flow rate of water, , is multiplied by the integral from tinitial to tfinal of the total concentration of Ca2+ absorbed by the resin as a function of time, C. (2) 1 http://aquariumpharm.com/Products/Product.aspx?ProductID=72 , date accessed: 11/26/10 CBEE 102: ENGINEERING PROBLEM SOLVING AND COMPUTATIONS PROJECT DESCRIPTION 9 Josephine Hornsnogger CBEE 414, Lab Section M 1300–‐1550 April 19, 2010 Oregon State University School of CBEE A graphical trapezoid method was used to evaluate the integral and get the final solution in equivalents of Ca2+ per L, it must be noted that there are 2 equivalents per mole of barium, as the charge of the barium insect is +2. An initial exchange capacity was calculated for the virgin resin, and an adjusted exchange capacity was calculated once the resin was regenerated. The regenerated resin capacity was found by multiplying the virgin resin capacity by the regeneration efficiency, expressed in Equation 3. (3) See Appendix A for the calculation of the exchange capacities and the regeneration efficiency. Materials and Methods Rosalie and Peter Johnson of Corvallis established the Linus Pauling Chair in Chemical Engineering to honor Oregon State University’s most famous graduate. Peter Johnson, former President and owner of Tekmax, Inc., a company which revolutionized battery manufacturing equipment, is a 1955 graduate of the College of Engineering.2 The Chair, also known as the Linus Pauling Distinguished Engineer or Linus Pauling Engineer (LPE), was originally designed to focus on the traditional “capstone” senior lab sequence in the former Department of Chemical Engineering. The focus is now extended to all the process engineering disciplines. The LPE is charged with establishing strong ties with industry, ensuring current and relevant laboratory experiences, and helping upperclass students develop skills in communication, teamwork, project management, and leadership. Include details about lab procedures not sufficiently detailed in the SOP, problems you had, etc. The bulk solution prepared to create the standard curve was used in the second day of testing to obtain the exchange capacity of the insectac 249 resin. The solution was pumped through a bathroom scale into the prototype insect exchange column. 45 mL of resin was rinsed and added to the column. The bed was fluidized as the solution was pumped through the resin, but for the creation of the Ca2+ concentration vs. time curve, the solution was pumped down through the column, as illustrated in the process flow diagram seen in Figure 1. Figure 1. Process sketch of the insect exchange column used for the project. Ref: http://www.generon.co.uk/acatalog/Chromatography.html 2 Harding, P. Viscosity Measurement SOP, Spring, 2010. CBEE 102: ENGINEERING PROBLEM SOLVING AND COMPUTATIONS PROJECT DESCRIPTION 10 Josephine Hornsnogger CBEE 414, Lab Section M 1300–‐1550 April 19, 2010 Oregon State University School of CBEE A bathroom scale calibration curve was created to ensure that the 150 mL/min, used to calculate the breakthrough time, would be delivered to the resin. The bathroom scale used was a Dwyer brand with flowrates between 0 and 300 cc/min of water. Originally, values between 120 and 180 mL/min were chosen for the calibration, with three runs for each flowrate, however the bathroom scale values were so far away from the measure values the range was extended to 100 to 200 mL/min. The regeneration experiment was performed using a method similar to that used in the water softening experiment, however instead of using a 640 ppm Ca2+ solution to fill the resin, a 6000 ppm Na+ solution was used to eject the Ca2+ from the resin. Twelve samples times were chosen and adjusted as the experiment progressed, with more than half of the samples taken at times less than 10 minutes, and the last sample taken at 45 minutes. The bulk exit solution was also tested to determine the regeneration efficiency. Results and Discussion The senior lab sequence has its roots in the former Department of Chemical Engineering. CHE 414 and 415 were taught in Winter and Spring and included 6 hours of lab time per week. The School has endeavored to incorporate the courses into the BIOE and ENVE curriculum, and this will be complete in 2008-2009. Recent development of the senior lab course sequence is shown chronologically in Fig. 1. In 2006-2007, CHE 414 and 415 were moved to Fall and Winter to enable CHE 416, an elective independent senior project course. Also that year, BIOE students took BIOE 414 in the Fall and BIOE 415 was developed and taught. No BIOE students enrolled in the optional CHE. In 2007-2008, the program transitioned in a new Linus Pauling Engineer and ENVE 414 was offered. Also, approximately 30 percent of BIOE students enrolled in the optional CHE 416. Accommodating the academic calendars of the three disciplines required a reduction in weekly student lab time from 6 to 3 hours. The expected relationship between coughing rate, y, and length of canine, x, is Bx z y Fe− (1) where F is a pre-exponential constant, B is vitamin B concentration and z is the height of an average trapeze artist. 3 The 2008-2009 brings the challenge of the dramatic enrollment increase shown in Fig. 1 and the first offering of ENVE 415. The result, shown on the right in Fig. 1, is the delivery of the senior lab sequence uniformly across the process engineering disciplines. CBEE 416 is expected to drawn approximately of the students that take the 415 courses. In 2007-2008, 414 and 415 were required for CHEs, 414 and 415 for BIOEs, and only 414 for ENVEs. CHE 416 is ostensibly an elective for all disciplines. In 2008-2009, 414 and 415 is required for all disciplines and CHE 416 will be an elective. The content of 414 is essentially 3 Fundamentals of Momentum, Heat, and Mass Transfer, Welty, J.R. et al., 4th edition, John Wiley & Sons, Inc. CBEE 102: ENGINEERING PROBLEM SOLVING AND COMPUTATIONS PROJECT DESCRIPTION 11 Josephine Hornsnogger CBEE 414, Lab Section M 1300–‐1550 April 19, 2010 Oregon State University School of CBEE identical for all three disciplines, 415 has discipline-specific labs, and 416 consists of senior projects with potentially cross-discipline teams of 2 to 4 students. Tremendous labor and struggling with the lab equipment resulted in the data shown in y = –‐0.29x + 1.71 y = –‐0.25x + 2.03 y = –‐0.135x + 2.20 –‐1.5 –‐1.0 –‐0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 0 2 4 6 8 10 ln y (units) x (units) ln y_1 ln y_2 ln y_3 0.00 0.05 0.10 0.15 0.20 0.25 0.30 0.35 Case 1 Case 2 Case 3 Slope (units) (a) (b) Figure 1. (a) Data for y and x plotted for various values of z and (b) a comparison of slopes for the 3 cases investigate. The log plot slope yields the vitamin B concentration. The slopes were shown to be significantly at the 90% confidence level, but the instructor ran out of time and did not include error bars. The slope changed as predicted by the Snirtenhoffer equation. Improvements to the lab might include advice on how to legally change my name to something less embarrassing. My whole life I have been forced to repeat and spell it. I really feel that this has affected my psychologically. This was perhaps the worst lab I have ever done in my academic career, primarily due to the fact that there was no lab time. I simply typed in this entire report and filled it with jibberish. Some might think nobody will notice, but I know that …… Harding reads every word. Acknowledgments The author acknowledges his elementary teacher for providing truly foundational instruction in addition and subtraction. Jenny Burninbalm was instrumental with guidance on use of the RT-345 dog scratching device. CBEE 102: ENGINEERING PROBLEM SOLVING AND COMPUTATIONS PROJECT DESCRIPTION 12

Tornado Eddy Investigation Abstract The objective of this lab was to write a bunch of jibberish to provide students with a formatting template. Chemical engineering, bioengineering, and environmental engineering are “process engineering” disciplines. Good abstracts contains real content, such as 560 mL/min, 35 deg, and 67 percent yield. Ideal degreed graduates are technically strong, bring broad system perspectives to problem solving, and have the professional “soft skills” to make immediate contributions in the workplace. The senior lab sequence is the “capstone” opportunity to realize this ideal by integrating technical skills and developing professional soft skills to ensure workforce preparedness. The best conclusions are objective and numerical, such as operating conditions of 45 L/min at 32 deg C with expected costs of $4.55/lb. Background Insect exchange processes are often used in bug filtration, as they are effective at removing either positive or negative insects from water. An insect exchange column is a packed or fluidized bed filled with resin beads. Water flows through the column and most of the insects from the water enter the beads, but some of them pass in between the beads, which makes the exchange of insects non-ideal. Insectac 249 resin is a cation exchange resin, as it is being used to attract cationic Ca2+ from the toxic waste stream. This means the resin is negatively charged, and needs to be regenerated with a solution that produces positively charged insects, in this case, salt water which contains Na+ insects. The resin contains acidic styrene backbones which capture the cationic insects in a reversible process. A curve of Ca2+ concentration concentration vs. time was obtained after a standard curve was made to determine how many drops from the low cost barium test kit from Aquarium Pharmaceuticals (API)1 bottle #2 would correspond to a certain concentration in solution. A standard curve works by preparing solutions with known concentrations and testing these concentrations using the kit to create a curve of number of drops from bottle #2 (obtained result) vs. concentration of Ca2+ in solution (desired response). The standard curve can then be used for every test on the prototype and in the field, to quickly and accurately obtain a concentration from the test kit. The barium concentration vs. time curve can be used to calculate the exchange capacity of the resin and, in later tests, the regeneration efficiency. The curves must be used to get the total amount of barium removed from the water, m. Seen in Equation 2, the volumetric flow rate of water, , is multiplied by the integral from tinitial to tfinal of the total concentration of Ca2+ absorbed by the resin as a function of time, C. (2) 1 http://aquariumpharm.com/Products/Product.aspx?ProductID=72 , date accessed: 11/26/10 CBEE 102: ENGINEERING PROBLEM SOLVING AND COMPUTATIONS PROJECT DESCRIPTION 9 Josephine Hornsnogger CBEE 414, Lab Section M 1300–‐1550 April 19, 2010 Oregon State University School of CBEE A graphical trapezoid method was used to evaluate the integral and get the final solution in equivalents of Ca2+ per L, it must be noted that there are 2 equivalents per mole of barium, as the charge of the barium insect is +2. An initial exchange capacity was calculated for the virgin resin, and an adjusted exchange capacity was calculated once the resin was regenerated. The regenerated resin capacity was found by multiplying the virgin resin capacity by the regeneration efficiency, expressed in Equation 3. (3) See Appendix A for the calculation of the exchange capacities and the regeneration efficiency. Materials and Methods Rosalie and Peter Johnson of Corvallis established the Linus Pauling Chair in Chemical Engineering to honor Oregon State University’s most famous graduate. Peter Johnson, former President and owner of Tekmax, Inc., a company which revolutionized battery manufacturing equipment, is a 1955 graduate of the College of Engineering.2 The Chair, also known as the Linus Pauling Distinguished Engineer or Linus Pauling Engineer (LPE), was originally designed to focus on the traditional “capstone” senior lab sequence in the former Department of Chemical Engineering. The focus is now extended to all the process engineering disciplines. The LPE is charged with establishing strong ties with industry, ensuring current and relevant laboratory experiences, and helping upperclass students develop skills in communication, teamwork, project management, and leadership. Include details about lab procedures not sufficiently detailed in the SOP, problems you had, etc. The bulk solution prepared to create the standard curve was used in the second day of testing to obtain the exchange capacity of the insectac 249 resin. The solution was pumped through a bathroom scale into the prototype insect exchange column. 45 mL of resin was rinsed and added to the column. The bed was fluidized as the solution was pumped through the resin, but for the creation of the Ca2+ concentration vs. time curve, the solution was pumped down through the column, as illustrated in the process flow diagram seen in Figure 1. Figure 1. Process sketch of the insect exchange column used for the project. Ref: http://www.generon.co.uk/acatalog/Chromatography.html 2 Harding, P. Viscosity Measurement SOP, Spring, 2010. CBEE 102: ENGINEERING PROBLEM SOLVING AND COMPUTATIONS PROJECT DESCRIPTION 10 Josephine Hornsnogger CBEE 414, Lab Section M 1300–‐1550 April 19, 2010 Oregon State University School of CBEE A bathroom scale calibration curve was created to ensure that the 150 mL/min, used to calculate the breakthrough time, would be delivered to the resin. The bathroom scale used was a Dwyer brand with flowrates between 0 and 300 cc/min of water. Originally, values between 120 and 180 mL/min were chosen for the calibration, with three runs for each flowrate, however the bathroom scale values were so far away from the measure values the range was extended to 100 to 200 mL/min. The regeneration experiment was performed using a method similar to that used in the water softening experiment, however instead of using a 640 ppm Ca2+ solution to fill the resin, a 6000 ppm Na+ solution was used to eject the Ca2+ from the resin. Twelve samples times were chosen and adjusted as the experiment progressed, with more than half of the samples taken at times less than 10 minutes, and the last sample taken at 45 minutes. The bulk exit solution was also tested to determine the regeneration efficiency. Results and Discussion The senior lab sequence has its roots in the former Department of Chemical Engineering. CHE 414 and 415 were taught in Winter and Spring and included 6 hours of lab time per week. The School has endeavored to incorporate the courses into the BIOE and ENVE curriculum, and this will be complete in 2008-2009. Recent development of the senior lab course sequence is shown chronologically in Fig. 1. In 2006-2007, CHE 414 and 415 were moved to Fall and Winter to enable CHE 416, an elective independent senior project course. Also that year, BIOE students took BIOE 414 in the Fall and BIOE 415 was developed and taught. No BIOE students enrolled in the optional CHE. In 2007-2008, the program transitioned in a new Linus Pauling Engineer and ENVE 414 was offered. Also, approximately 30 percent of BIOE students enrolled in the optional CHE 416. Accommodating the academic calendars of the three disciplines required a reduction in weekly student lab time from 6 to 3 hours. The expected relationship between coughing rate, y, and length of canine, x, is Bx z y Fe− (1) where F is a pre-exponential constant, B is vitamin B concentration and z is the height of an average trapeze artist. 3 The 2008-2009 brings the challenge of the dramatic enrollment increase shown in Fig. 1 and the first offering of ENVE 415. The result, shown on the right in Fig. 1, is the delivery of the senior lab sequence uniformly across the process engineering disciplines. CBEE 416 is expected to drawn approximately of the students that take the 415 courses. In 2007-2008, 414 and 415 were required for CHEs, 414 and 415 for BIOEs, and only 414 for ENVEs. CHE 416 is ostensibly an elective for all disciplines. In 2008-2009, 414 and 415 is required for all disciplines and CHE 416 will be an elective. The content of 414 is essentially 3 Fundamentals of Momentum, Heat, and Mass Transfer, Welty, J.R. et al., 4th edition, John Wiley & Sons, Inc. CBEE 102: ENGINEERING PROBLEM SOLVING AND COMPUTATIONS PROJECT DESCRIPTION 11 Josephine Hornsnogger CBEE 414, Lab Section M 1300–‐1550 April 19, 2010 Oregon State University School of CBEE identical for all three disciplines, 415 has discipline-specific labs, and 416 consists of senior projects with potentially cross-discipline teams of 2 to 4 students. Tremendous labor and struggling with the lab equipment resulted in the data shown in y = –‐0.29x + 1.71 y = –‐0.25x + 2.03 y = –‐0.135x + 2.20 –‐1.5 –‐1.0 –‐0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 0 2 4 6 8 10 ln y (units) x (units) ln y_1 ln y_2 ln y_3 0.00 0.05 0.10 0.15 0.20 0.25 0.30 0.35 Case 1 Case 2 Case 3 Slope (units) (a) (b) Figure 1. (a) Data for y and x plotted for various values of z and (b) a comparison of slopes for the 3 cases investigate. The log plot slope yields the vitamin B concentration. The slopes were shown to be significantly at the 90% confidence level, but the instructor ran out of time and did not include error bars. The slope changed as predicted by the Snirtenhoffer equation. Improvements to the lab might include advice on how to legally change my name to something less embarrassing. My whole life I have been forced to repeat and spell it. I really feel that this has affected my psychologically. This was perhaps the worst lab I have ever done in my academic career, primarily due to the fact that there was no lab time. I simply typed in this entire report and filled it with jibberish. Some might think nobody will notice, but I know that …… Harding reads every word. Acknowledgments The author acknowledges his elementary teacher for providing truly foundational instruction in addition and subtraction. Jenny Burninbalm was instrumental with guidance on use of the RT-345 dog scratching device. CBEE 102: ENGINEERING PROBLEM SOLVING AND COMPUTATIONS PROJECT DESCRIPTION 12

For any additional help, please contact: info@checkyourstudy.com Call / Whatsapp … Read More...
You rub a clear plastic pen with wool, and observe that a tape is attracted to the pen. Assuming that the pen has a net negative charge, which of the following could be true? Check all that apply.â €‹ A. The tape might be negatively charged B. The tape might be uncharged + C. The tape might be positively charged + D. There is not enough information to conclude anything E. The assumption that the pen has negative charge is incorrect

You rub a clear plastic pen with wool, and observe that a tape is attracted to the pen. Assuming that the pen has a net negative charge, which of the following could be true? Check all that apply.â €‹ A. The tape might be negatively charged B. The tape might be uncharged + C. The tape might be positively charged + D. There is not enough information to conclude anything E. The assumption that the pen has negative charge is incorrect

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1) What is the energy stored in the 10.0 micro-Farad capacitor of a heart defibrillator charged to 9000 V? ________________ 2) Electron guns are used in x-ray machines. The electrons are accelerated through a relatively large voltage and directed onto a metal target, producing x-rays. How many electrons per second strike the target if the current is 0.500 mA?

1) What is the energy stored in the 10.0 micro-Farad capacitor of a heart defibrillator charged to 9000 V? ________________ 2) Electron guns are used in x-ray machines. The electrons are accelerated through a relatively large voltage and directed onto a metal target, producing x-rays. How many electrons per second strike the target if the current is 0.500 mA?

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A dipole consisting of two oppositely charged balls connected by a wooden stick is located as shown in the diagram at right. A block of plastic is located nearby, as shown. LocationsB, C, and Dall lie on a line perpendicular to the axis of the dipole, passing through the midpoint of the dipole. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The polarization of a molecule located at D would be the same as the polarization of a molecule located at C B. A molecule located at D would be polarized less than a molecule located at C C. A molecule located at C would be not be polarized at all D. A molecule located at D would be polarized more than a molecule located at C Correct + E. Information given is insufficient to fully answer the question

A dipole consisting of two oppositely charged balls connected by a wooden stick is located as shown in the diagram at right. A block of plastic is located nearby, as shown. LocationsB, C, and Dall lie on a line perpendicular to the axis of the dipole, passing through the midpoint of the dipole. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The polarization of a molecule located at D would be the same as the polarization of a molecule located at C B. A molecule located at D would be polarized less than a molecule located at C C. A molecule located at C would be not be polarized at all D. A molecule located at D would be polarized more than a molecule located at C Correct + E. Information given is insufficient to fully answer the question

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1. A marketing facility purchases new furniture for their offices at a retail price of $125,000. An additional $20,000 has been charged for insurance, shipping, and handling. The company expects to use the furniture for 10 years (useful life) and then sell at a salvage (market) value of $15,000. Use the SL method of depreciation to answer these questions. a. What is the depreciation during the second year?

1. A marketing facility purchases new furniture for their offices at a retail price of $125,000. An additional $20,000 has been charged for insurance, shipping, and handling. The company expects to use the furniture for 10 years (useful life) and then sell at a salvage (market) value of $15,000. Use the SL method of depreciation to answer these questions. a. What is the depreciation during the second year?

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The charge required to operate the flash lamp of a camera is 30uC. if a capacitor charged with a 6 volt battery is used to supply this charge, what is its capacitance and how much energy does it store ? a) C=2uF;U=9*10-5J, b) C=5uF;U=9*10-5J, c) C=5uF;U=1.8*10-4 J, d) C=180uF;U=4.5*10-5J, e) C=180uF;U=9*10-5J,

The charge required to operate the flash lamp of a camera is 30uC. if a capacitor charged with a 6 volt battery is used to supply this charge, what is its capacitance and how much energy does it store ? a) C=2uF;U=9*10-5J, b) C=5uF;U=9*10-5J, c) C=5uF;U=1.8*10-4 J, d) C=180uF;U=4.5*10-5J, e) C=180uF;U=9*10-5J,

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1. Which of the following statements for electric field lines are true? (Give ALL correct answers, i.e., B, AC, BCD…) A) E-field lines point inward toward negative charges. B) E-field lines may cross. C) E-field lines do not begin or end in a charge-free region (except at infinity). D) Where the E-field lines are dense the E-field must be weak. E) E-field lines make circles around positive charges. F) A point charge q, released from rest will initially move along an E-field line. G) E-field lines point outward from positive charges. 2. Consider two uniformly charged parallel plates as shown above. The magnitudes of the charges are equal. (For each statement select T True, F False). A) If the plates are oppositely charged, there is no electric field at c. B) If both plates are negatively charged, the electric field at a points towards the top of the page. C) If both plates are positively charged, there is no electric field at b. 3. As shown in the figure above, a ball of mass 1.050 g and positive charge q =38.1microC is suspended on a string of negligible mass in a uniform electric field. We observe that the ball hangs at an angle of theta=15.0° from the vertical. What is the magnitude of the electric field?

1. Which of the following statements for electric field lines are true? (Give ALL correct answers, i.e., B, AC, BCD…) A) E-field lines point inward toward negative charges. B) E-field lines may cross. C) E-field lines do not begin or end in a charge-free region (except at infinity). D) Where the E-field lines are dense the E-field must be weak. E) E-field lines make circles around positive charges. F) A point charge q, released from rest will initially move along an E-field line. G) E-field lines point outward from positive charges. 2. Consider two uniformly charged parallel plates as shown above. The magnitudes of the charges are equal. (For each statement select T True, F False). A) If the plates are oppositely charged, there is no electric field at c. B) If both plates are negatively charged, the electric field at a points towards the top of the page. C) If both plates are positively charged, there is no electric field at b. 3. As shown in the figure above, a ball of mass 1.050 g and positive charge q =38.1microC is suspended on a string of negligible mass in a uniform electric field. We observe that the ball hangs at an angle of theta=15.0° from the vertical. What is the magnitude of the electric field?

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a boat is advertised for $4700 can be bought under the following hire purchase agreement, no deposit charged but loan must be paid off monthly over period of three years. interest is charged at flat rate of 16% per annum what is monthly repayment

a boat is advertised for $4700 can be bought under the following hire purchase agreement, no deposit charged but loan must be paid off monthly over period of three years. interest is charged at flat rate of 16% per annum what is monthly repayment

Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

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