AERN 45350 Avionics Name: _______________________________ 1 | P a g e Homework Set One (40 Points) Due: 25 September 2015 General Instructions: Answer the following questions, submitting your answers on Blackboard. SHOW YOUR WORK on any math problems. Consider the following voltage signal: V t 12sin377t 1. What is the peak voltage of the signal [Volts]? 2. What is the angular frequency [rad/sec]? 3. What is the frequency of the signal [Hz]? 4. What is the period of the signal [sec/cycle]? In a heterodyne receiver, the intermediate frequency of the receiver is 21.4 MHz. 5. What is the local oscillator frequency (f1) if the tuned frequency (f2) is 120.9 MHz? 6. If the local oscillator frequency (f1) is 145.7 MHz, what is the tuned frequency (f2)? The gain of a power amplifier is 5. 7. If 30W are coming in, what is the power going out? 8. What is the gain in decibels (dB)? The attenuation of a voltage attenuator is 10. 9. If 120V are coming in, what is the voltage going out? 10. What is the loss in decibels (dB)? 11. What is the component of the ILS that provides the extended centerline of the runway? 12. What is the component of the ILS that provides vertical guidance to the runway? 13. If the aircraft is on the correct trajectory, the airplane will arrive at the outer marker on the ILS corresponding to intercepting what? 14. If the aircraft is on the correct trajectory, the airplane will arrive at the middle marker on the ILS corresponding to reaching what? 15. All marker beacons transmit at what frequency? 16. Why doesn’t this cause problems (all marker beacons transmitting on the same frequency)? 17. What are the four components to an ILS? 18. What is the most common ILS category? 19. Which ILS category requires aircraft with the “auto-land” feature? 20. An attenuator leads to a power ratio of 0.5. What is that in decibels (dB)?
Vermont Technical College Electronic Applications ELT-2060 Lab 07: Common Mode Rejection Ratio and Instrumentation Amplifiers Reference: Laboratory Manual to Accompany Operational Amplifiers and Linear Integrated Circuits, Robert Coughlin, Sixth Edition. For the following exercise, make sure to record all calculations, estimations and measured results. Components: LM741 Op Amp, INA126 instrumentation Amp, 10 Ω, 1 kΩ, 470 Ω, 10 kΩ ½ W, 15 kΩ, 82 kΩ, 2-100 kΩ, , 50 kΩ potentiometer Objectives: a. LM741 Differential Voltage Gain, Common Mode Voltage Gain, Common Mode Rejection Ratio b. INA126 instrumentation amplifiers a. Differential Voltage Gain, Common Mode Voltage Gain, Common Mode Rejection Ratio Build the circuit of figure 1. Measure both E1 and E2 with respect to ground and record the values. Next calculate the differential voltage across the 10Ω resistor. Ediff= E1-E2. Calculate the differential voltage gain Adiff Vo = Adiff(E1-E2) or for this schematic Adiff = m = mR/R Measure Vo ` Modify the circuit as shown in figure 2, this now includes a common mode adjustment. In this circuit both inputs (+ input, – input) are shorted together and to E2, which is now the common mode voltage ECM. Measure and record E2 =ECM = __________ Measure Vo of the amplifier and adjust the 50k potentiometer for the smallest output voltage possible. Record this voltage as Vo-cm (Note this value should be approximately 1mV). Vo-cm=_________ Calculate common-mode voltage gain Acm = Vo-cm/Ecm Acm=_______ CMRR= Adiff/Acm CMRR =________ CMRR in dB = _________dB b. INA126 Instrumentation amplifiers 1. Wire the Instrumentation amplifier shown in figure 3. Set the differential gain Adiff to 10 by adjusting the 10-k Ω potentiometer. Again measure E1 and E2 with respect to ground E1=_____ E2=_______ 2. Predict the output voltage Vo from the equation Vo = Adiff(E1-E2) Calculated Vo= ____ Measured Vo=_____ 3. Readjust the 10-k Ω potentiometer for a differential gain of 100. Predict the output voltage Vo from the equation Vo = 100(E1-E2) Calculated Vo= ____ Measured Vo=_____ 4. To measure the common-mode voltage gain of the AD820 instrumentation amplifier, connect both inputs (pin 2 and pin 3) together and to E2 (see figure 4). Remeasure E2, in this configuration E2 = Ecm. Ecm=_______ 5. Measure Vocm Vocm=____ 6. Common-mode voltage gain = Acm= Vocm/Eocm 7. CMRR = Adiff/Acm CMRR = __________ CMRR in dB = _________ dB Compare your results to the INA126 data sheet Lab Report: This lab requires a semi-formal lab report. Record all calculations, estimations, and measured results. Support your lab results using MultiSim; include your MultiSim schematics in your lab report to support your laboratory findings. Please include a written English language paragraph for all lab steps that required an explanation.
Physics 2010 Sid Rudolph Fall 2009 MIDTERM 4 REVIEW Problems marked with an asterisk (*) are for the final. Solutions are on the course web page. 1. A. The drawing to the right shows glass tubing, a rubber bulb and two bottles. Is the situation you see possible? If so, carefully describe what has taken place in order to produce the situation depicted. B. The picture depicts three glass vessels, each filled with a liquid. The liquids each have different densities, and DA > DB > DC. In vessel B sits an unknown block halfway to the bottom and completely submerged. 1. _______ In which vessel would the block sit on the bottom? 2. _______ In which vessel would the block float on the top? 3. _______ In which vessel would the block feel the smallest buoyant force? 4. _______ In which vessels are buoyant forces on the block are the same? 5. _______ Assume the coefficient of volume expansion for the liquid in B and the block are $B > $block. If the temperature of vessel B with the block is raised, would block B rise to the surface, sink to the bottom, or remain where it is? 2. A circular tank with a 1.50 m radius is filled with two fluids, a 4.00 m layer of water and a 3.00 m layer of oil. Use Doil = 8.24 × 10 kg/m and Dwater = 1.00 × 10 kg/m , and Datm = 1.01 × 10 N/m . 2 3 3 3 5 2 A. What are the gauge and absolute pressures 1.00 m above the bottom of the tank? B. A block of material in the shape of a cube (m = 100 kg and side length = 42.0 cm) is released at the top of the oil layer. Where does the block come to rest? Justify your answer. If it comes to rest between two layers, specify which layers and what portion of the block sits in each layer. [Note: Vcube = a ]3 C. A small 1.00 cm radius opening is made in the side of the tank 0.500 m up from its base (block was removed). What volume of water drains from the tank in 10.0 s? (b) (a) 3. A tube is inserted into a vein in the wrist of a patient in a reclined position on a hospital bed. The heart is vertically 25.0 cm above the position of the wrist where the tube is inserted. Take DBLOOD = 1.06 × 103 kg/m3. The gauge venous blood pressure at the level of the heart is 6.16 × 103 N/m2. Assume blood behaves as an ideal nonviscous fluid. A. What is the gauge venous blood pressure at the position of the wrist? B. The tube coming from the wrist is connected to a bottle of whole blood the patient needs in a transfusion. See above figure (b). What is the minimum height above the level of the heart at which the bottle must be held to deliver the blood to the patient? C. Suppose the bottle of blood is held 1.00 m above the level of the heart. Assume the tube inserted in the wrist has a diameter of 2.80 mm. What is the velocity, v, and flow rate of blood as it enters the wrist. You may also assume the rate at which the blood level in the bottle drops is very small. The answer you get here is a substantial overstatement. Blood is not really a non-viscous fluid. 4. A 0.500 kg block is attached to a horizontal spring and oscillates back and forth on a frictionless surface with a frequency of f = 3.00 hz. The amplitude of this motion is 6.00 × 10 m. Assume to = 0 and is the instant the block is -2 at the equilibrium position moving to the left. A. Write expressions x(t) = !A sin (Tt) and v(t) = !AT cos (Tt) filling in the values of A and T. B. What is the total mechanical energy (METOT) of the block-spring system? C. Suppose the block, at the moment it reaches its maximum velocity to the left splits in half with only one of the halves remaining attached to the spring. What are the amplitude and frequency of the resulting oscillations? D. Suppose, instead of splitting at the position of maximum velocity to the left, the block now splits when it is at the extreme position in the left. What are the amplitude and frequency of the resulting motion? E. Describe in words what would happen to the period of oscillation if a second block identical to the first block were dropped on the first block at either of its extreme positions. 5. A. A spring has one end attached to a wall and the other end attached to two identical masses, mA and mB. The system is set into oscillation on a frictionless surface with amplitude A. See figure. When the system is momentarily at rest at x = -A whatever it is that holds mA to mB fails; and later in the motion mB moves away from mA to the right. 1. Location where the acceleration of mA is maximum and negative. 2. Location where the KE of mA is maximum. The next few questions ask you to compare the behavior of the mass-spring system after and before mB detached. Energy considerations are most useful here. 3. The amplitude of the mass-spring oscillation has (increased, decreased, not changed) after mB detaches. 4. The frequency of the mass-spring oscillation has (increased, decreased, stayed the same) after mB detaches. 5. The maximum speed of mA has (increased, decreased, stayed the same) after mB detaches. 6. The period of oscillation of the mass-spring system has (increased, decreased, stayed the same) after mB detaches. 7. The fraction of the total mechanical energy of the entire spring-2 mass system carried away with mB after mB detaches is B. A spherical object is completely immersed in a liquid and is neutrally buoyant some distance above the bottom of the vessel. See figure. The upper surface of the liquid is open to the earth’s atmosphere. 1. How is the density of the fluid related to the density of the spherical object? 2. Assume the fluid and object are incompressible. In addition, the $sphere (coefficient of volume expansion) > $liquid. For the following items below, indicate whether the object sinks to the bottom, rises to the surface, or does nothing based on the changes described. a. Atmospheric pressure drops by 20%. b. Salt is dissolved in the liquid in the same way fresh water is turned into salt water. c. The entire apparatus is warmed 10oC (liquid and object are both warmed). d. The entire apparatus is transported to the surface of the moon. (gmoon = 1.6 m/s , PATM = 0 on moon) 2 e. 100 cm3 of the liquid is removed from the top. The object is still initially submerged. 6. A. A mass m is attached to a spring and oscillating on a frictionless, horizontal surface. See figure. At the instant the mass passes the equilibrium position moving to the right, half the mass detaches from the other half. The oscillating system is now the spring and half the original mass with the detached mass moving off to the right with constant velocity. Relative to the original spring-mass system, the new spring-mass system with half the mass oscillates with … In the spaces provided below, enter the words larger, smaller or the same that best completes the above sentence.. 1. amplitude 2. period 3. frequency 4. maximum velocity 5. mechanical energy B. A solid cylinder is floating at the interface between water and oil with 3/4 of the cylinder in the water region and 1/4 of the cylinder in the oil region. See figure. Select the item in the parenthesis that best fits the statement. 1. The item (oil, water, and/or cylinder) with the largest density. 2. The item (oil, water, and/or cylinder) with the smallest density. 3. The weight of the cylinder (is equal to, greater than or less than) the total buoyant force it feels. 4. The density of the cylinder (is equal to, less than, or greater than) the density of water. rC. Three thermometers in different settings record temperatures T1 = 1000°F, T2 = 1000°C, and T3 = 1000 K. In the space below select T1, T2 or T3, that best fits the statement. 1. The thermometer in the hottest environment. 2. The thermometer in the coolest environment. 3. The thermometer reading a temperature 900° above the boiling point of water. 7. An oil tanker in the shape of a rectangular solid is filled with oil (Doil = 880 kg/m ). The flat bottom of the 3 hull is 48.0 m wide and sits 26.0 m below the surface of the surrounding water. Inside the hull the oil is stored to a depth of 24.0 m. The length of the tanker, assumed filled with oil along the entire length, is 280 m. View from Rear View from Side Note: Dsalt water = 1.015 × 10 kg/m ; Vrectangular solid = length × width × height. 3 3 A. At the bottom of the hull, what is the water pressure on the outside and the oil pressure on the inside of the horizontal bottom part of the hull? Assume the Po above the oil is the same as the Po above the water and its value is Po = 1.01 × 10 N/m . 5 2 B. If you did part A correctly you determined that the water pressure on the horizontal bottom part of the hull is larger than the oil pressure there. Explain why this MUST be the case. C. What buoyant force does the tanker feel? D. What is the weight of the tanker, excluding the weight of the oil in the hull? 8. A. Water is poured into a tall glass cylinder until it reaches a height of 24.0 cm above the bottom of the cylinder. Next, olive oil (Doil = 920 kg/m ) is very carefully added until the total amount of 3 fluid reaches 48.0 cm above the bottom of the cylinder. Olive oil and water do not mix. See figure. Take Dwater = 1.00 × 10 kg/m and Patm = 1.01 × 10 N/m . 3 3 5 2 1. Indicate on the drawing which layer is water and which is olive oil. 2. What is the gauge pressure 10.0 cm below the top of the upper fluid layer in the cylinder. 3. What is the gauge pressure on the bottom of the cylinder? 4. If the cylinder is in the shape of a right circular cylinder with radius of 3.60 cm, what force is exerted on the bottom of the cylinder? B. A 0.200 kg mass is hung from a massless spring. At equilibrium, the spring stretched 28.0 cm below its unstretched length. This mass is now replaced with a 0.500 kg mass. The 0.500 kg mass is lowered to the original equilibrium position of the 0.200 kg mass and suddenly released producing vertical SHM. 1. What is the spring constant for this spring? 2. What is the period of oscillation for the 0.500 kg/spring system? 3. What is the amplitude of this oscillation? r9. The drawing shows a possible design for a thermostat. It consists of an aluminum rod whose length is 5.00 cm at 20.0°C. The thermostat switches an air conditioner when the end of the rod just touches the contact. The position of the contact can be changed with an adjustment screw. What is the size of the spacing such that the air conditioner turns on at 27.0°C. This is not a very practical device. Take “al = 2.3 × 10 /°C. -5 r10. The following is an effective technique for determining the temperature TF inside a furnace. Inside the furnace is 100 gm of molten (i.e., in a liquid state) lead (Pb). The lead is dropped into an aluminum calorimeter containing 200 gm water both at an initial temperature of 10.0°C. After equilibrium is reached, the temperature reads 21.8°C. Assumptions: (1) No water is vaporized; (2) no heat is lost to or gained from the environment; and (3) the specific heat for the lead is the same whether the lead is a solid or a liquid. DATA TABLE LEAD CALORIMETER WATER mPb = 100 gm mAl = 150 gm mW = 200 gm CPb = 0.0305 cal/gm°C CAl = 0.215 cal/gm°C CW = 1.0 cal/gm°C LF = 6.0 ca./gm (heat of fusion) Tinit = 10.0°C Tinit = 10.0°C MPPb = 327°C (melting point) TF = unknown Tequilibrium = 21.8°C A. In words, describe the distinct steps in the cooling of lead. B. How many calories of heat are absorbed by the calorimeter and the water it contains to reach 21.8°C? C. How many calories are lost by the lead in cooling from TF to the final equilibrium temperature of 21.8°C? D. What was the original furnace temperature? E. If the same amount of aluminum (CAl = 0.215 cal/gm°C and LM = 21.5 cal/gm) were used in the same furnace instead of lead, would the final equilibrium temperature be higher, less or the same as in the lead case? No calculation is needed to answer this. Please explain. r11. The length of aluminum cable between consecutive support towers carrying electricity to a large metropolitan area is 180.00 m on a hot August day when the temperature is 38°C. Use “(Al) = 24 × 10-6/°C. A. What is the length of the same section of aluminum cable on a very cold winter day when T = -24°C? B. If the same length of copper (” = 17 × 10-6/°C) cable (i.e., 180.00 m on the same hot August day) were used instead of aluminum, would the length of the copper cable be shorter, longer or the same as that of the aluminum on the same winter day as in (A)? Please explain your conclusion You do not have to do any calculations here. r12. You wish to make a cup of coffee with cream in a 0.250 kg mug (cmug = 900 J/kg°C) with 0.325 kg coffee (ccoffee = 4.18 × 10 J/kg°C) starting at 25.0°C and 0.010 kg cream (ccream = 3.80 × 10 J/kg°C) at 10.0°C. 3 3 You use a 50.0 W electric heater to bring the coffee, cream and mug to a final temperature of 90.0°C. How long must the coffee system be heated? Indicate clearly the assumptions you need to make. r13. A 75.0 kg patient is running a fever of 106°F and is given an alcohol rubdown to lower his body temperature. Take the specific heat of the human body to be Cbody = 3.48 × 10 J/kg°C, the heat of 3 evaporation of the rubbing alcohol to be Lv(alcohol) = 8.51 × 10 J/kg, and the density of the rubbing 5 alcohol to be 793 kg/m3. You may assume that all the heat removed from the fevered body goes into evaporating the alcohol, and that while the patient’s body is cooling, his metabolism adds no measurable heat. A. What quantity of heat must be removed from the body to lower its temperature to 99.0°F? B. What volume of rubbing alcohol is required? C. This is a qualitative question. Give an answer and explanation. Suppose you were told that the alcohol applied started at room temperature (. 70°F) and were given the specific heat for the alcohol. Thus, you now expect some of the body heat warming the alcohol to the temperature of the fever before evaporation occurs. How would this effect the result of the calculation in part (B)? r14. A 56.0 kg hypothermia victim is running a body temperature of 91.0°F. The victim is far away from any immediate medical treatment. Her friends decide to treat the hypothermia victim by placing the victim in a sleeping bag with one of her friends and use the heat from the friend to raise the victim’s body temperature. Take the specific heat of the human body to be Cbody = 3.48 × 10 J/kg°C. Assume that the sleeping bag acts 3 like a perfect calorimeter and also assume no heat is lost to or obtained from the sleeping bag. Finally, assume all the heat that warms the hypothermia victim comes from the basic metabolic heat produced by the body of the victim’s friend in the sleeping bag with her and that metabolism is rated at 2.00 × 106 cal/day, and that the victim’s metabolism is negligible. A. How much heat must be added to the victim’s body to get her temperature up to 98.0°F? B. How long must the victim remain in the sleeping bag with her friend to achieve this temperature change? C. This is a qualitative question. If the thermal characteristics of the sleeping bag are now taken into account, but still assuming no heat leaves or enters the sleeping bag, how will the answer to question (b) above be different? r15. A few years back a lawsuit was filed by a woman against McDonald’s because she scalded herself with a Styrofoam cup filled with coffee which she spilled on herself while driving. This question was spawned by that incredible legal action and represents a possible action taken by McDonald’s to insure cooler coffee. Suppose a typical cup of coffee sold by McDonald’s is basically 400 ml of hot water and when poured into the Styrofoam cup its temperature is 96.0°C. Take 1.00 ml to have a mass of 1.00 gm and = 4.19 kJ/kg°C. Neglect any heat lost to the cup and assume no heat is lost by the coffee to the environment. A. How much heat in joules must the coffee lose to bring its temperature to a drinkable 68.0°C? B. McDonald’s possible approach to lowering the temperature of the 96.0°C coffee to 68.0°C is to add a cube of ice initially at 0.0°C. (Take Lf = 334 kJ/kg.) What mass of ice has to be added to the coffee to reduce its initial temperature to the desired 68.0°C? r16. During this past Thanksgiving your instructor overdid it and consumed 3000 Cal of food and dessert. Remember 1.0 Cal = 4.19 x 10 J. For the questions below, as 3 sume no heat is lost to the environment. [Note: = 33.5 x 105 J/kg; = 4.19 x 103 J/kgoC] A. If all of this energy went into heating 65.0 kg water starting at 37.0oC (a mass approximately that of your instructor), what would be the final temperature of this water? B. Assume your instructor removes these overeating calories by running 10 kilometer races [note: 1.61 km = 1.00 mile]. Using the rule of thumb that 1 mile of jogging will require 100 Cal, what is the minimum number of races your instructor must run to consume the 3000 Cal in part A as exercise? C. The year before, your instructor was particularly gluttonous and consumed 5000 Cal. Assuming the same conditions of water mass (65.0 kg) and starting temperature (37.0oC) as in A, what is the final temperature of the water system, and if any water vaporizes to steam, how much? [Note: BP(H2O) = 100 C] o 17. Below is the position vs. time graph for the simple harmonic of a spring oscillation on a frictionless horizontal surface. Motion to the right is positive. 1. The earliest instant of time, including t0 = 0 at which the PEelastic is maximum. 2. The earliest instant of time at which the KE of the mass is a maximum and the mass is moving to the right. 3. The earliest instant of time at which the acceleration of the mass is maximum and positive. 4. The earliest instant of time at which the speed of the mass is zero. 18. A. A spring is attached to a post at the top of a 15.0° frictionless ramp. A 2.00 kg mass is attached to the spring and the mass is slowly allowed to stretch the spring to the equilibrium position of the mass-spring system, the spring stretches by 0.400 m See figure. The mass is now pulled an additional 10.0 cm and released. The mass-spring system executes simple harmonic motion. 1. What is the spring constant, k, of the spring. 2. What are the amplitude and period of oscillation of the mass-spring system? B. A solid, uniform cylinder is floating at the interface between water (Dwater = 1.00 × 103 kg/m ) and oil (Doil = 8.24 × 10 kg/m ) with 3/4 of the cylinder in the water region and 3 3 3 1/4 of the cylinder in the oil region. Assume the axis of the cylinder is perfectly vertical. See figure. 1. What is the density of the material out of which the cylinder is made? 2. Assume the upper surface of the oil region si open to the atmosphere (Datm = 1.01 × 10 N/m ) and the oil-water interface is 0.500 m below the 5 2 upper surface of the oil. Also assume the height of the cylinder is 10.0 cm. What is the gauge pressure on the bottom surface of the cylinder? Recall: Pgauge = P – PATM. 19. A. A mass m is attached to a spring and is oscillating on a frictionless horizontal surface (see figure). At the instant the mass is at an amplitude position a second identical mass is carefully placed on top of the original mass. The oscillating system is now the spring and the two identical masses. Relative to the original spring-single mass system, the new spring-2-mass system oscillates with a … In the spaces provided below, enter (I) for increased, (D) for decreased, or (R) remains unchanged, that best completes the above last sentence. 1. amplitude. 2. period. 3. frequency. 4. spring constant. 5. maximum speed. 6. mechanical energy. 7. maximum acceleration. B. Suppose you are asked about the absolute pressure at some depth h below the surface of a liquid. The top surface is exposed to the atmosphere on a sunny day in Salt Lake City. For each statement below in the spaces provided, enter I for increase, D for decrease, or R for remains the same, when accounting for what happens to the absolute pressure at the point you are observing. 1. More liquid is added so now the observation point is farther below the surface. 2. The fluid is now exchanged for a less dense fluid. The observation point is at same h. 3. The experiment is moved to New York City, which is at sea level, on a sunny day. 4. The fluid is now seen to be moving with some speed v past the observation point. 5. The observation point is moved closer to the surface of the liquid. 6. The air above the fluid is removed by a vacuum system. 7. The apparatus is moved to a laboratory on the surface of the moon. 20. A 3.00 kg mass is attached to a spring (k = 52.0 N/m) that is hanging vertically from a fixed support. The mass is moved to a position 0.800 m lower than the unstretched position of the end of the spring. The spring is then released and the mass-spring system executes SHM. Take the 0.800 m of the mass as the reference location for its gravitational PE. A. What is the equilibrium position of the mass-spring system? B. What is the amplitude of the SHM the mass-spring system executes? C. What is the period of the oscillation of this system? D. What is the total mechanical energy of the mass-spring system at the moment the mass is released? E. What are (i) the KE of the mass and (ii) the speed of the mass when the spring is at its equilibrium position? 21. A 38.0 kg block is moving back and forth on a frictionless horizontal surface between two springs. The spring on the right has a force constant kR = 2.50 × 10 N/m. When the block is between the two 3 springs its speed (v) is 1.82 m/s. See figure. A. If the block compresses the left spring to 5.62 cm beyond its uncompressed length, determine the value of kL. B. What is the maximum compression of the right spring when the mass interacts with it? C. What is the total time the spring on the right is compressed during a single event? 22. Two identical containers are connected at the bottom via a tube of negligible volume and a valve which is closed. Both containers are filled initially to the same height of 1.00 m, one with chloroform (DC = 1530 kg/m ) in the left chamber and the other 3 with mercury in the right chamber (DHg = 1.36 × 10 kg/m ). 4 3 Sitting on top of each identical circular container is a massless plate that can slide up or down without friction and without allowing any fluid to leak past. The radius of the circular plate is 12.0 cm. The valve is now opened. A. What volume of mercury drains into the chloroform container? (Note: Vcyl = Br h) 2 B. What mass must be placed on the plate on the chloroform side to force all the mercury, but none of the chloroform, back to the mercury chamber? 23. A 12.0 kg mass M is attached to a cord that is wrapped around a wheel in the shape of a uniform disk of radius r = 12.0 cm and mass m = 10.0 kg. The block starts from rest and accelerates down the frictionless incline with constant acceleration. Assume the disk axle is frictionless. Note: Idisk = 1/2 mr . 2 A. Use energy methods to find the velocity of the block after it has moved 2.00 m down the incline. B. What is the constant acceleration of the block and the angular acceleration of the wheel? C. How many revolutions does the wheel turn for the distance the block travels in (A)? D. If the uniform disk were replaced by a uniform sphere with the same r and m of the disk, would the acceleration of the block attached to the sphere be larger, smaller, or the same as that for the block attached to the disk? Note: Isphere = 2/5 mr . 2 24. A pulley is in the shape of a uniform disk of mass m = 5.00 kg and radius r = 6.40 cm. The pulley can rotate without friction about an axis through the center of mass. A massless cord is wrapped around the pulley and connected to a 1.80 kg mass. The 1.80 kg mass is released from rest and falls 1.50 m. See figure. Note: Idisk = 1/2 mr . 2 A. Use energy methods to determine the speed of the block after falling 1.50 m. B. What is the constant acceleration of the block and the angular acceleration of the wheel? C. How many revolutions does the pulley disk turn for the distance the block travels in (A)? D Suppose the disk were replaced by a uniform sphere with the same r and m of the disk. Would the acceleration of the block attached to the sphere be larger, smaller, or the same as that for the block attached to the the disk? Note: Isphere 2/5 mr . 2 26. A 700.0 N fisherman is walking toward the edge of a 200 N plank as shown. He has placed a can of worms weighing 75.0 N on the left side of the plank as indicated in the drawing. The plank is the horizontal section in the drawing. A. Identify all the forces the plank feels before it begins to tip. Draw a free body diagram. B. As the fisherman nears the point on the plank where it begins to tip, how do the upward forces the supports exert on the plank change. C. How far a distance, as measured from the center of the right support, can he walk before the plank begins to tip? 26. A 75.0 kg sign hangs from a 4.80 m uniform horizontal rod whose mass is 120 kg. The rod is supported by a cable that makes an angle of 53° with the rod. he sign hangs 3.60 m out along the rod. A. What is the tension in the cable? B. What are the forces PPv and PPH exerted by the wall on the left end of the rod? 27. A 1.00 × 104 N great white shark is hanging by a cable attached to a 4.00 m massless rod that can pivot at its base. See figure. A. Determine the tension in the cable supporting the upper end of the rod. See figure. B. Determine the force (a vector quantity) exerted on the base of the rod. Suggestion: Find this force by first evaluating the separate components of the force. See figure. 28. A 6.00 m uniform beam extends horizontally from a hinge fixed on a wall on the left. A cable is attached to the right end of the beam. The cable makes an angle of 30.0° with respect to the horizontal and the right end of the cable is fixed to a wall on the right. At the right end of the cable hangs a 140.0 kg mass. The mass of the beam is 240.0 kg. See figure. A. Find the tension in the cable. B. Find the vertical and horizontal forces the hinge exerts on the left end of the beam. 29 A. The blades of a “Cuisinart” blender when run at the “mix” level, start from rest and reach 2.00 × 103 rpm (revolutions per minute) in 1.60 s. The edges of the blades are 3.10 cm from the center of the circle about which they rotate. 1. What is the angular acceleration of the blades in rad/s2 while they are accelerating? 2. Through how many rotations did the blades travel in that 1.60 s? 3. If the blades have a moment of inertia of 5.00 × 10-5 kg m2, what net torque did the blades feel while accelerating? B. A 7.50 × 10 N 4 shipping crate is hanging by a cable attached to a uniform 1.20 × 104 N steel beam that can pivot at its base. A second cable supports the beam and is attached to a wall. See figure. 1. Determine the tension T in the upper cable. 2. Determine the magnitude of the force exerted on the beam at its base. See drawing. 30. The drawing shows a uniform ladder of length L and weight 220 N. The ladder is sitting at an angle of 30° above the horizontal resting on the corner of a concrete wall at a point that is one-fourth of the way from the end of the ladder. A 640 N construction worker is standing on the ladder one-third of the way up from the end of the ladder which is resting on the ground. Assume the corner of the wall on which the ladder rests exerts only a normal force on the ladder at the point where there is contact. A. What is the magnitude of the normal force the wall exerts on the ladder? B. Find the magnitude of both the normal force the ground exerts on the left end of the ladder and the static frictional force the ground exerts on the left end of the ladder. 31. A. A solid, right circular cylinder (radius = 0.150 m, height = 0.120 m) has a mass m. The cylinder is floating in a tank in the interface between two liquids that do not mix: water on the bottom and oil above. One-third of the cylinder is in the oil layer (Doil = 725 kg/m ) 3 and two-thirds in the water layer (Dwater = 1.00 × 10 kg/m ). See 3 3 drawing. Note: V(circular cylinder) = B r2 h. 1. Find the mass of the cylinder. 2. With the cylinder present, take the thickness of the oil layer to be 0.200 m and the thickness of the water layer to be 0.300 m. What is the gauge pressure at the bottom of the tank? Assume the top of the oil layer is exposed to the atmosphere. B. A block rests on a frictionless horizontal surface and is attached to a spring. When set into simple harmonic motion, the block oscillates back and forth with an angular frequency of T = 7.52 rad/s. The drawing indicates the position of the block when the spring is unstretched. That position is labeled “x = 0 m” in the drawing. The drawing also shows a small bottle whose left edge is located at Xb = 0.0900 m. The block is now pulled to the right, stretching the spring by Xs = 0.0343 m, and is then thrown to the left, i.e., given an initial push to the left. In order for the block to knock over the bottle when it is moving to the right, it must be “thrown” with an initial speed to the left v0. Ignoring the width of the block, what is the minimum value of v0? 32. B. Three objects, a disk (ICM = ½ MR ), a hoop (ICM = MR ), and a hollow ball (ICM = b MR ) all have 2 2 2 the same mass and radius. Each is subject to the same uniform tangential force that causes the object, starting from rest, to rotate with increasing angular speed about an axis through the center of mass for each object. In the case of the hollow ball the tangential force has a moment arm equal to the radius of the ball. In the space below, enter D for disk, H for hoop, and/or B for hollow ball, or same to best answer the question. 1. The object with the largest moment of inertia about the axis through the CM. 2. The object experiencing the greatest net torque. 3. The object with the greatest angular acceleration during the period the force is acting. 4. The object rotating with the smallest angular speed assuming the force has been acting for the same length of time on each object. 33. A. A uniform disk (D), hoop (H), and sphere (S), all with the same mass and radius, can freely rotate about an axis through the center of mass (CM) of each. A massless string is wrapped around each item. The string is used to apply a constant and equal tangential force to each object. See figure. For the statements below, enter D, H, S, none or the same. Assume all objects start from rest at the same instant. 1. The one with the smallest moment of inertia about the shown axis. 2. The object experiencing the largest net torque. 3. The object undergoing the smallest angular acceleration. 4. The object with the largest angular speed after an elapsed time of 5.0 s. 5. The object for which the largest amount of string has unraveled in 5.0 s. 6. The object with the smallest KErot after 5.0 s. 7. The object that undergoes the most rotations in 5.0 s. B. A spherical object is completely immersed in a liquid of density Dliq some distance above the bottom of the vessel. See figure. The upper surface is initially open to the earth’s atmosphere at sea level. Assume the liquid and object are both incompressible. For the items below, indicate whether the object sinks to the bottom (B), rises to the surface (T), or does nothing (N). 1. The vessel is brought to Salt Lake City. 2. Salt is dissolved in the liquid in the same way fresh water is turned into salt water. 3. The top 50 cm3 of the liquid is removed from the vessel. 4. The entire apparatus is transported to the surface of the moon. 5. The volume of the spherical object is increased by heating it without heating the liquid. 6. The spherical object is moved 10 cm farther down in the vessel and released. 7. A mass is placed on the top surface of the liquid in the vessel increasing the pressure at the surface. No fluid leaks. 34. A 2.20 × 103 N uniform beam is attached to an overhead beam as shown in the drawing. A 3.60 × 103 N trunk hangs from an attachment to the beam two-thirds of the way down from the upper connection of the beam to the overhead support. A cable is tied to the lower end of the beam and is also attached to the wall on the right. A. What is the tension in the cable connecting the lower end of the beam to the wall? B. What are magnitude of the vertical and horizontal components of the force the overhead beam exerts on the upper end of the beam at P? 35. A. A 12.0 kg block moves back and forth on a frictionless horizontal surface between two springs. The spring on the right has a force constant k = 825 N/m. When the block arrives at the spring on the right, it compresses that spring 0.180 m from its unstretched position. 1. What is the total mechanical energy of the block and two spring system? 2. With what speed does the block travel between the two springs while not in contact with either spring? 3. Suppose the block, after arriving at the left spring, remains in contact with that spring for a total time of 0.650 s, before separating on its way to the right spring? Using the connection between this 0.650 s and the period of oscillation between the block and the left spring, determine the spring constant of the left spring. B. A turkey baster (see figure) consists of a squeeze bulb attached to a plastic tube. When the bulb is squeezed and released, with the open end of the tube under the surface of the turkey gravy, the gravy rises in the tube to a distance h, as shown in the drawing. It can then be squirted over the turkey. Using Patm = 1.013 × 105 N/m2 for atmospheric pressure and 1.10 × 103 kg/m3 for the density of the gravy, determine the absolute pressure of the air in the bulb with the distance h = 0.160 m. Give answer to three significant digits. 36. A. The pictures below depict three glass vessels, each filled with a liquid. The liquids each have different densities, and DA > DB > DC. In vessel C an unknown block is neutrally buoyant halfway to the bottom and completely submerged. A, B, and/or C, or none are all possible answers. 1. _______ In which vessel(s) would the block sink all the way to the bottom? 2. _______ In which vessel(s) would the largest volume of the block be exposed above the surface of the liquid? 3. _______ In which vessel(s) would the buoyant forces on the block be the same? B. A swinging pendulum (A) and a mass-spring system (B) are built to have identical periods. For the statements below enter either A, B, U (unchanged) to best fit which oscillating system would have the larger period as a result of the change. 1. _______ The mass of the mass-spring system is increased. 2. _______ The mass of the swinging pendulum is increased without altering the location of its center of mass. 3. _______ The spring constant of the mass-spring system is increased. 4. _______ The length of the swinging pendulum system is increased. 5. _______ Both systems are taken to the moon and set oscillating. C. A block of mass m moves back and forth on a frictionless surface between two springs. See drawing. Assume kL > kR. For the statements below enter L for the left spring, R for the right spring, or same as the case may be. 1. _______ The spring that has the maximum compression when m is momentarily at rest. 2. _______ The spring that stores the larger elastic potential energy when maximally compressed. 3. _______ The spring that momentarily stops the block in the least time once the block arrives at the spring. 37. A uniform beam extending at right angles from a wall is used to display an advertising sign for an eatery. The beam is 2.50 m long an weighs 80.0 N. The sign, whose dimensions are 1.00 m by 0.800 m, is uniform, and weighs 200. N, hangs from the beam as shown in the drawing. A cable, attached to the wall of the eatery at a point on the beam where the inside end of the sign is attached to the beam and making an angle of 60.0° with the beam, supports this advertising structure. A. What is the magnitude of the tension in the cable supporting the beam? B. What are the magnitudes of the horizontal and vertical forces the wall exerts on the left end of the beam? 38. A. Examine the picture shown to the right. Initially, before the pump is turned on, the two masses (m1 = 1.00 kg, m2 = 2.75 kg) are held in place. the pressures above and below m1 are Patm = 1.01 × 10 N/m and 5 2 the spring is in its unstretched position. The pump is turned on and the masses are allowed to move. The mass m1 moves without friction inside a cylindrical piston of radius r = 3.85 cm. Once equilibrium is established, by what distance has the spring stretched? Take k = 2.00 × 103 N/m for the spring constant. B. A solid cylinder (radius 0.125 m and height 0.150 m) has a mass of 6.50 kg. The cylinder is floating in water. Oil (Doil = 725 kg/m ) is poured on top of the water until 3 the situation shown in the drawing results. How much of the height (in meters) of the cylinder remains in the water layer?
Design of Electrical Systems Name: ______________________________ Note: All problems weighted equally. Show your work on all problems to receive partial credit. Resources: a) The Fundamental Logic Gate Family, Author Unknown b) Electric Devices and Circuit Theory 7th Edition, Boylestad c) Introductory Circuit Analysis 10th Edition, Boylestad d) Power Supplies (Voltage Regulators) Chapter 19, Boylestad e) Electronic Devices and Circuit Theory Chapter 5, Boylestad f) Operational Amplifiers Handout, Self g) Switch Mode Power Supplies, Philips Semiconductor h) NI Tutorial 13714-en October 6, 2013 i) NI Tutorial 13714-en V2.0 October 6, 2013 j) National Instruments Circuit Design Applications http://www.ni.com/multisim/applications/pro/ k) ENERGY STAR https://www.energystar.gov/index.cfm?c=most_efficient.me_comp_monitor_under_23_inches l) Manufactures Device Data Sheets 1) For the VDB shown below, please find the following quantities and plot the load line (Saturation / Cutoff), Q pt (Quiescent Point) and sketch input waveform and output wave form. Remember to test for Exact vs. Approximate Method. Given Bdc = hfe = 150 and RL of 10KΩ. Efficiency _ Class _____ Degrees ___ VR2_______ VE_______ VC _______ VCE ______ IC _______ IE _______ IB _______ PD _______ re’ _______ Av _______ mpp ______ Vout______ What is the effect of reducing RL to 500Ω ________________________________ What is the effect of reducing the Source Frequency to 50 Hz ________________ | | | | | | |____________________________________________ 2) For the following Networks, please complete the Truth Tables, Logic Gate Type, provide the Boolean Logic Expression. A | Vout 0 | 1 | Logic Gate Type _______ Boolean Logic Expression _________ A B| Vout 0 0| 0 1| 1 0| 1 1| Logic Gate Type _______ Boolean Logic Expression _________ A B C| Vout 0 0 0| 0 0 1| 0 1 0| 0 1 1| 1 0 0| 1 0 1| 1 1 0| 1 1 1| Logic Gate Type _______ Boolean Logic Expression _________ Operation of Transistors ____________ 3) For the Network shown below, please refer to Electronic Devices and Circuit Theory Chapter 5, Boylestad to solve for the following values: Given: Bdc1 = hfe1 = 55 Bdc2 = hfe2 = 70 Bdc Total ______ IB1 _________ IB2 _________ VC1 __________ VC2 __________ VE1 __________ VE2 __________ What is this Transistor Configuration? _______________________ What are the advantages of this Transistor Configuration? _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ 4) Design a Four (4) output Power Supply with the following Specifications, Provide a clean schematic sketch of circuit (Please provide the schematic sketch on a separate piece of graph paper). Use a straight edge and label everything. Refer to Data Sheets as necessary. Specifications: 120 VAC rms 60 Hz Source Positive + 15 VDC Driving a 15Ω 20 Watt Resistive Load Positive +8 VDC Driving a 10Ω 2 Watt Resistive Load Negative – 12 VDC Driving a 10Ω 2 Watt Resistive Load Negative – 5 VDC Driving a 4Ω 2 Watt Resistive Load Parts available (Must use parts): 1x 120 VAC 40 Volt 3.5 Amp Center Tap Transformer 1x Fuse 1x Bridge Rectifier 12 Amp 1x LM7808 1x LM7815 1x LM7905 1x LM7912 Psource _____________ Fuse size with 25% Service Factor, 1-10 Amps increments of 1A, 10 – 50 Amps increments of 5 Amps ______ Are we exceeding Power Dissipation of any components? If so please identify and provide a brief explanation: _________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________ 5) For the circuit shown below please calculate the following quantities, and Plot the Trans-Conductance Curve (Transfer Curve), (Please provide the plot on a separate piece of graph paper): You will need to refer to the 2N3819 N-Channel JFET ON Semiconductor Data Sheet Posted on Bb. VDS _________ VP ___________ VGS(off) ______ VS __________ VD __________ VG __________ PDD _________ PSource ______ VGSQ ________ IDQ __________ 6) Determine both the Upper and Lower Cutoff frequencies. Sketch Bode plot and label everything including dB Role-Off. Construct Network in Multisim and perform AC Analysis verifying frequency response and Upper and Lower Cutoff Frequencies in support of your calculations. Attach Screen shot of your Multisim Model and AC Analysis. Repeat the above for a 2nd Order Active BP Filter. You will need to research this configuration. Make sure that you use the same values for R and C. Upper and Lower Cutoff Frequencies are determined by for the 2nd Order Active BP Filter fc = 1/(2(3.14)SQRT(R1R2C1C2)). Demonstrate a change in Roll-Off from 1st Order to 2nd Order. First Order: Lower Cutoff Frequency ________ Upper Cutoff Frequency ________ Roll-Off ______________________ | | | | | | | |_____________________________________________________________ Second Order: Lower Cutoff Frequency ________ Upper Cutoff Frequency ________ Roll-Off ______________________ | | | | | | |_____________________________________________________________ 7) The following questions relate to LED Backlight LCD Monitors. (Please feel free to use more paper if need be). See Resources. Please explain the differences between LED Backlight LCD Monitor, LCD and CCFL Monitors (Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp) Monitors. What are some advantages of LED Backlight LCD Monitors when compared with LCD and CCFL Monitors? What color LEDs are used in the creation of an LED Backlight LCD Monitor? Does a Black Background use less energy than a White Background? If you can believe the hype, how and why are LED Backlight LCD Monitors among the most energy efficient, higher than heirs apparent? 8) In this problem the goal is to verify the Transfer Characteristics of the 2N7000G Enhancement Mode N-Channel MOSFET against the manufactures Data Sheets. Please create in Multisim a Model as exampled below. First Plot by hand on Graph Paper various VGS Voltages vs ID. Second simulate using the DC Sweep Analysis. From these results verify against the 2N7000G ON Semiconductor Data Sheet Posted on Bb, remembering that the 2N7000G ON Semiconductor Data Sheet includes both Tabulated Data and Figure 2. Transfer Characteristics. Attach all results, screen shots and write a brief description of your work. • I estimate that my mark for this exam will be: ________ % • Time spent on this exam: __________ Hours • Average of time spent per week on work for EGR-330 (outside class sessions): ______________ Hours
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Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 Assignment 4 – Noise and Correlation 1. If a signal is measured as 2.5 V and the noise is 28 mV (28 × 10−3 V), what is the SNR in dB? 2. A single sinusoidal signal is found with some noise. If the RMS value of the noise is 0.5 V and the SNR is 10 dB, what is the RMS amplitude of the sinusoid? 3. The file signal_noise.mat contains a variable x that consists of a 1.0-V peak sinusoidal signal buried in noise. What is the SNR for this signal and noise? Assume that the noise RMS is much greater than the signal RMS. Note: “signal_noise.mat” and other files used in these assignments can be downloaded from the content area of Brightspace, within the “Data Files for Exercises” folder. These files can be opened in Matlab by copying into the active folder and double-clicking on the file or using the Matlab load command using the format: load(‘signal_noise.mat’). To discover the variables within the files use the Matlab who command. 4. An 8-bit ADC converter that has an input range of ±5 V is used to convert a signal that ranges between ±2 V. What is the SNR of the input if the input noise equals the quantization noise of the converter? Hint: Refer to Equation below to find the quantization noise: 5. The file filter1.mat contains the spectrum of a fourth-order lowpass filter as variable x in dB. The file also contains the corresponding frequencies of x in variable freq. Plot the spectrum of this filter both as dB versus log frequency and as linear amplitude versus linear frequency. The frequency axis should range between 10 and 400 Hz in both plots. Hint: Use Equation below to convert: Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 6. Generate one cycle of the square wave similar to the one shown below in a 500-point MATLAB array. Determine the RMS value of this waveform. [Hint: When you take the square of the data array, be sure to use a period before the up arrow so that MATLAB does the squaring point-by-point (i.e., x.^2).]. 7. A resistor produces 10 μV noise (i.e., 10 × 10−6 V noise) when the room temperature is 310 K and the bandwidth is 1 kHz (i.e., 1000 Hz). What current noise would be produced by this resistor? 8. A 3-ma current flows through both a diode (i.e., a semiconductor) and a 20,000-Ω (i.e., 20-kΩ) resistor. What is the net current noise, in? Assume a bandwidth of 1 kHz (i.e., 1 × 103 Hz). Which of the two components is responsible for producing the most noise? 9. Determine if the two signals, x and y, in file correl1.mat are correlated by checking the angle between them. 10. Modify the approach used in Practice Problem 3 to find the angle between short signals: Do not attempt to plot these vectors as it would require a 6-dimensional plot!
Problem 1: (30 points) A 20 lb bucket is supported by three cables DA, DB, and DC as shown in the figure. 1) Draw a complete free body diagram at point D. (10 pt) 2) Express all forces in Cartesian form. (5 pt) 3) Determine the tensions in cable DC and springs DA and DB. (15pt)
Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above