What about individuals who may suffer from a dual diagnosis? What services are available for them?

What about individuals who may suffer from a dual diagnosis? What services are available for them?

When an individual have both a substance misuse problem and … Read More...
Autism (Autism Spectrum Disorder) •What is autism? •How is autism diagnosed? •What is Social (Pragmatic) Communication Disorder? •What treatments are available for people with autism? •What causes autism? •What do SLPs do when working with individuals with autism? •What resources are available about autism?

Autism (Autism Spectrum Disorder) •What is autism? •How is autism diagnosed? •What is Social (Pragmatic) Communication Disorder? •What treatments are available for people with autism? •What causes autism? •What do SLPs do when working with individuals with autism? •What resources are available about autism?

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CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

“No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 1 by Jennifer M. Dechaine1,2 and James E. Johnson1 1Department of Biological Sciences 2Department of Science Education Central Washington University, Ellensburg, WA NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE Part I – The Basic Question Introduction Imagine going out for a brisk winter snowshoe and suddenly stumbling upon hundreds of bat carcasses littering the forest floor. Unfortunately, this unsettling sight has become all too common in the United States (Figure 1). White-nose syndrome (WNS), first discovered in 2006, has now spread to 20 states and has led to the deaths of over 5.5 million bats (as of January 2012). WNS is a disease caused by the fungus, Pseudogymnoascus destructans. Bats infected with WNS develop white fuzz on their noses (Figure 2, next page) and often exhibit unnatural behavior, such as flying outside during the winter when they should be hibernating. WNS affects at least six different bat species in the United States and quickly decimates bat populations (colony mortality is commonly greater than 90%). Scientists have predicted that if deaths continue at the current rate, several bat species will become locally extinct within 20 years. Bats provide natural pest control by eating harmful insects, such as crop pests and disease carrying insect species, and losing bat populations would have devastating consequences for the U.S. economy. Researchers have sprung into action to study how bats become infected with and transmit P. destructans, but a key component of this research is determining where the fungus came from in the first place. Some have suggested that it is an invasive species from a different country while others think it is a North American fungal species that has recently become better able to cause disease. In this case study, we examine the origin of P. destructans causing WNS in North America. Some Other Important Observations • WNS was first documented at four cave sites in New York State in 2006. • The fungus can be spread among bats by direct contact or spores can be transferred between caves by humans (on clothing) or other animals. • European strains of the fungus occur in low levels across Europe but have led to few bat deaths there. • Bats with WNS frequently awake during hibernation, causing them to use important fat reserves, leading to death. No Bats in the Belfry: The Origin of White- Nose Syndrome in Little Brown Bats Figure 1. Many bats dead in winter from white-nose syndrome. NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE “No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 2 Questions 1. What is the basic question of this study and why is it interesting? 2. What specific testable hypotheses can you develop to explain the observations and answer the basic question of this study? Write at least two alternative hypotheses. 3. What predictions about the effects of European strains of P. destructans on North American bats can you make if your hypotheses are correct? Write at least one prediction for each of your hypotheses. Figure 2. White fuzz on the muzzle of a little brown bat indicating infection by the disease. NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE “No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 3 Part II – The Hypothesis As discussed in Part I, researchers had preliminary data suggesting that the pathogen causing WNS is an invasive fungal species (P. destructans) brought to North America from Europe. They had also observed that P. destructans occurs on European bats but rarely causes their death. Preliminary research also suggested that one reason that bats have been dying from WNS is that the disorder arouses them from hibernation, causing the bats to waste fat reserves flying during the winter when food is not readily available. These observations led researchers to speculate that European P. destructans will affect North American bat hibernation at least as severely as does North American P. destructans (Warnecke et al. 2012). Questions 1. Explicitly state the researchers’ null (H0 ) and alternative hypotheses (HA) for this study. 2. Describe an experiment you could use to differentiate between these hypotheses (H0 and HA). NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE “No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 4 Part III – Experiments and Observations In 2010, Lisa Warnecke and colleagues (2012) isolated P. destructans fungal spores from Europe and North America. They collected 54 male little brown bats (Myotis lucifugus) from the wild and divided these bats equally into three treatment groups. • Group 1 was inoculated with the North American P. destructans spores (NAGd treatment). • Group 2 was inoculated with the European P. destructans spores (EUGd treatment). • Group 3 was inoculated using the inoculation serum with no spores (Control treatment). All three groups were put into separate dark chambers that simulated the environmental conditions of a cave. All bats began hibernating within the first week of the study. The researchers used infrared cameras to examine the bats’ hibernation over four consecutive intervals of 26 days each. They then used the cameras to determine the total number of times a bat was aroused from hibernation during each interval. Questions 1. Use the graph below to predict what the results will look like if the null hypothesis is supported. The total arousal counts in the control treatment at each interval is graphed for you (open bars). Justifiy your predictions. 2. Use the graph below to predict what the results will look like if the null hypothesis is rejected. The total arousal counts in the control treatment at each interval is graphed for you (open bars). Justify your predictions. Null Supported Total Arousal counts Interval Null Rejected Total Arousal counts Interval NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE “No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 5 2 Credits: Title block photo by David A. Riggs (http://www.flickr.com/photos/driggs/6933593833/sizes/l/), cropped, used in accordance with CC BY-SA 2.0 (http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/2.0/). Figure 1 photo by Kevin Wenner/Pennsylvania Game Commision (http://www. portal.state.pa.us/portal/server.pt/document/901415/white-nose_kills_hundreds_of_bats_in_lackawanna_county_pdf ). Figure 2 photo courtesy of Ryan von Linden/New York Department of Environmental Conservation, http://www.flickr.com/photos/usfwshq/5765048289/sizes/l/in/ set-72157626818845664/, used in accordance with CC BY 2.0 (http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/2.0/deed.en). Case copyright held by the National Center for Case Study Teaching in Science, University at Buffalo, State University of New York. Originally published February 6, 2014. Please see our usage guidelines, which outline our policy concerning permissible reproduction of this work. Part IV – Results Figure 3 (below) shows the real data from the study. There is no data for interval 4 bats that were exposed to the European P. destructans (gray bar) because all of the bats in that group died. Questions 1. How do your predictions compare with the experimental results? Be specific. 2. Do the results support or reject the null hypothesis? 3. If the European P. destructans is causing WNS in North America, how come European bats aren’t dying from the same disease? References U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service. 2012. White-Nose Syndrome. Available at: http://whitenosesyndrome.org/. Last accessed December 20, 2013. Warnecke, L., et al. 2012. Inoculation of bats with European Geomyces destructans supports the novel pathogen hypothesis for the origin of white-nose syndrome. PNAS Online Early Edition: http://www.pnas.org/cgi/ doi/10.1073/pnas.1200374109. Last accessed December 20, 2013. Figure 3. Changes in hibernation patterns in M. lucifugus following inoculation with North American P. destructans (NAGd), European P. destructans (EUGd), or the control serum. Interval Total Arousal counts

“No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 1 by Jennifer M. Dechaine1,2 and James E. Johnson1 1Department of Biological Sciences 2Department of Science Education Central Washington University, Ellensburg, WA NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE Part I – The Basic Question Introduction Imagine going out for a brisk winter snowshoe and suddenly stumbling upon hundreds of bat carcasses littering the forest floor. Unfortunately, this unsettling sight has become all too common in the United States (Figure 1). White-nose syndrome (WNS), first discovered in 2006, has now spread to 20 states and has led to the deaths of over 5.5 million bats (as of January 2012). WNS is a disease caused by the fungus, Pseudogymnoascus destructans. Bats infected with WNS develop white fuzz on their noses (Figure 2, next page) and often exhibit unnatural behavior, such as flying outside during the winter when they should be hibernating. WNS affects at least six different bat species in the United States and quickly decimates bat populations (colony mortality is commonly greater than 90%). Scientists have predicted that if deaths continue at the current rate, several bat species will become locally extinct within 20 years. Bats provide natural pest control by eating harmful insects, such as crop pests and disease carrying insect species, and losing bat populations would have devastating consequences for the U.S. economy. Researchers have sprung into action to study how bats become infected with and transmit P. destructans, but a key component of this research is determining where the fungus came from in the first place. Some have suggested that it is an invasive species from a different country while others think it is a North American fungal species that has recently become better able to cause disease. In this case study, we examine the origin of P. destructans causing WNS in North America. Some Other Important Observations • WNS was first documented at four cave sites in New York State in 2006. • The fungus can be spread among bats by direct contact or spores can be transferred between caves by humans (on clothing) or other animals. • European strains of the fungus occur in low levels across Europe but have led to few bat deaths there. • Bats with WNS frequently awake during hibernation, causing them to use important fat reserves, leading to death. No Bats in the Belfry: The Origin of White- Nose Syndrome in Little Brown Bats Figure 1. Many bats dead in winter from white-nose syndrome. NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE “No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 2 Questions 1. What is the basic question of this study and why is it interesting? 2. What specific testable hypotheses can you develop to explain the observations and answer the basic question of this study? Write at least two alternative hypotheses. 3. What predictions about the effects of European strains of P. destructans on North American bats can you make if your hypotheses are correct? Write at least one prediction for each of your hypotheses. Figure 2. White fuzz on the muzzle of a little brown bat indicating infection by the disease. NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE “No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 3 Part II – The Hypothesis As discussed in Part I, researchers had preliminary data suggesting that the pathogen causing WNS is an invasive fungal species (P. destructans) brought to North America from Europe. They had also observed that P. destructans occurs on European bats but rarely causes their death. Preliminary research also suggested that one reason that bats have been dying from WNS is that the disorder arouses them from hibernation, causing the bats to waste fat reserves flying during the winter when food is not readily available. These observations led researchers to speculate that European P. destructans will affect North American bat hibernation at least as severely as does North American P. destructans (Warnecke et al. 2012). Questions 1. Explicitly state the researchers’ null (H0 ) and alternative hypotheses (HA) for this study. 2. Describe an experiment you could use to differentiate between these hypotheses (H0 and HA). NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE “No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 4 Part III – Experiments and Observations In 2010, Lisa Warnecke and colleagues (2012) isolated P. destructans fungal spores from Europe and North America. They collected 54 male little brown bats (Myotis lucifugus) from the wild and divided these bats equally into three treatment groups. • Group 1 was inoculated with the North American P. destructans spores (NAGd treatment). • Group 2 was inoculated with the European P. destructans spores (EUGd treatment). • Group 3 was inoculated using the inoculation serum with no spores (Control treatment). All three groups were put into separate dark chambers that simulated the environmental conditions of a cave. All bats began hibernating within the first week of the study. The researchers used infrared cameras to examine the bats’ hibernation over four consecutive intervals of 26 days each. They then used the cameras to determine the total number of times a bat was aroused from hibernation during each interval. Questions 1. Use the graph below to predict what the results will look like if the null hypothesis is supported. The total arousal counts in the control treatment at each interval is graphed for you (open bars). Justifiy your predictions. 2. Use the graph below to predict what the results will look like if the null hypothesis is rejected. The total arousal counts in the control treatment at each interval is graphed for you (open bars). Justify your predictions. Null Supported Total Arousal counts Interval Null Rejected Total Arousal counts Interval NATIONAL CENTER FOR CASE STUDY TEACHING IN SCIENCE “No Bats in the Belfry” by Dechaine and Johnson Page 5 2 Credits: Title block photo by David A. Riggs (http://www.flickr.com/photos/driggs/6933593833/sizes/l/), cropped, used in accordance with CC BY-SA 2.0 (http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/2.0/). Figure 1 photo by Kevin Wenner/Pennsylvania Game Commision (http://www. portal.state.pa.us/portal/server.pt/document/901415/white-nose_kills_hundreds_of_bats_in_lackawanna_county_pdf ). Figure 2 photo courtesy of Ryan von Linden/New York Department of Environmental Conservation, http://www.flickr.com/photos/usfwshq/5765048289/sizes/l/in/ set-72157626818845664/, used in accordance with CC BY 2.0 (http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/2.0/deed.en). Case copyright held by the National Center for Case Study Teaching in Science, University at Buffalo, State University of New York. Originally published February 6, 2014. Please see our usage guidelines, which outline our policy concerning permissible reproduction of this work. Part IV – Results Figure 3 (below) shows the real data from the study. There is no data for interval 4 bats that were exposed to the European P. destructans (gray bar) because all of the bats in that group died. Questions 1. How do your predictions compare with the experimental results? Be specific. 2. Do the results support or reject the null hypothesis? 3. If the European P. destructans is causing WNS in North America, how come European bats aren’t dying from the same disease? References U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service. 2012. White-Nose Syndrome. Available at: http://whitenosesyndrome.org/. Last accessed December 20, 2013. Warnecke, L., et al. 2012. Inoculation of bats with European Geomyces destructans supports the novel pathogen hypothesis for the origin of white-nose syndrome. PNAS Online Early Edition: http://www.pnas.org/cgi/ doi/10.1073/pnas.1200374109. Last accessed December 20, 2013. Figure 3. Changes in hibernation patterns in M. lucifugus following inoculation with North American P. destructans (NAGd), European P. destructans (EUGd), or the control serum. Interval Total Arousal counts

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Which of the following is true of lesbian, gay, and bisexual youth? Question 5 options: They are more likely to be targeted by bullies. They are more likely to suffer physical and sexual assault. They are more likely to develop post-traumatic stress disorder. All of these choices are correct

Which of the following is true of lesbian, gay, and bisexual youth? Question 5 options: They are more likely to be targeted by bullies. They are more likely to suffer physical and sexual assault. They are more likely to develop post-traumatic stress disorder. All of these choices are correct

Which of the following is true of lesbian, gay, and … Read More...
Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

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According to the text, what was the main controversy in personality psychology that became a major contributor to the new edition of the DSM? how to define personality disorders whether or not to include the big five traits how to classify multi-personality disorder how long the DSM should be

According to the text, what was the main controversy in personality psychology that became a major contributor to the new edition of the DSM? how to define personality disorders whether or not to include the big five traits how to classify multi-personality disorder how long the DSM should be

According to the text, what was the main controversy in … Read More...
Recent work suggests that problems with the endogenous opioid system are associated with which personality disorder? schizoid narcissistic schizotypal borderline ________________________________________

Recent work suggests that problems with the endogenous opioid system are associated with which personality disorder? schizoid narcissistic schizotypal borderline ________________________________________

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A description such as “emotional hemophilia” applies most accurately to which personality disorder? borderline avoidant dependent schizoid

A description such as “emotional hemophilia” applies most accurately to which personality disorder? borderline avoidant dependent schizoid

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