In case the body have to stay in lower temperature for extended time period (more than 1 hour), how does the body regulate its response?

In case the body have to stay in lower temperature for extended time period (more than 1 hour), how does the body regulate its response?

Arterioles transporting blood to external capillaries beneath the surface of … Read More...
31. A circuit has a continuous path through which charge can flow from a voltage source to a device that uses electrical energy. What is the name of this type of circuit? a. a short circuit c. an open circuit b. a closed circuit d. a circuit schematic

31. A circuit has a continuous path through which charge can flow from a voltage source to a device that uses electrical energy. What is the name of this type of circuit? a. a short circuit c. an open circuit b. a closed circuit d. a circuit schematic

31. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 18-1.2   … Read More...
CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

Question 1, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 2 10 points The compound eyes of bees and other insects are highly sensitive to light in the ultraviolet portion of the spectrum, particularly light with frequencies between 7.5 × 1014 Hz and 1.0 × 1015 Hz. The speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s. What is the largest wavelength to which these frequencies correspond? Question 3, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 3 10 points A plane electromagnetic sinusoidal wave of frequency 10.7 MHz travels in free space. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s. Determine the wavelength of the wave. Question 4, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 3 10 points Find the period of the wave. Question 2, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 2 10 points What is the smallest wavelength? Question 5, chap 33, sect 3. part 3 of 3 10 points At some point and some instant, the electric field has has a value of 998 N/C. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at this point and this instant. Question 6, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 2 10 points A plane electromagnetic sinusoidal wave of frequency 10.7 MHz travels in free space. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s. Determine the wavelength of the wave. Question 8, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 1 10 points The magnetic field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is 9.9 × 10−6 T. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s . Calculate the amplitude of the electric field if the wave is traveling in free space. Question 7, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 2 10 points At some point and some instant, the electric field has has a value of 998 V/m. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at this point and this instant. Question 9, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 1 10 points The cable is carrying the current I(t). at the surface of a long transmission cable of resistivity ρ, length ℓ and radius a, using the expression ~S = 1 μ0 ~E × ~B . Question 10, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 1 10 points In 1965 Penzias and Wilson discovered the cosmic microwave radiation left over from the Big Bang expansion of the universe. The energy density of this radiation is 7.64 × 10−14 J/m3. The speed of light 2.99792 × 108 m/s and the permeability of free space is 4π × 10−7 N/A2. Determine the corresponding electric field amplQuestion 11, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 5 10 points Consider a monochromatic electromagnetic plane wave propagating in the x direction. At a particular point in space, the magnitude of the electric field has an instantaneous value of 998 V/m in the positive y-direction. The wave is traveling in the positive x-direction. x y z E wave propagation The speed of light is 2.99792×108 m/s, the permeability of free space is 4π×10−7 T ・ N/A and the permittivity of free space 8.85419 × 10−12 C2/N ・ m2. Compute the instantaneous magnitude of the magnetic field at the same point and time.itude. Question 12, chap 33, sect 5. part 2 of 5 10 points What is the instantaneous magnitude of the Poynting vector at the same point and time? Question 13, chap 33, sect 5. part 3 of 5 10 points What are the directions of the instantaneous magnetic field and theQuestion 14, chap 33, sect 5. part 4 of 5 10 points What is the instantaneous value of the energy density of the electric field? Question 16, chap 33, sect 6. part 1 of 4 10 points Consider an electromagnetic plane wave with time average intensity 104 W/m2 . The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s and the permeability of free space is 4 π × 10−7 T・m/A. What is its maximum electric field? What is the instantaneous value of the energy density of the magnetic field? Question 17, chap 33, sect 6. part 2 of 4 10 points What is the the maximum magnetic field? Question 19, chap 33, sect 6. part 4 of 4 10 points Consider an electromagnetic wave pattern as shown in the figure below. Question 18, chap 33, sect 6. part 3 of 4 10 points What is the pressure on a surface which is perpendicular to the beam and is totally reflective? Question 20, chap 33, sect 8. part 1 of 1 10 points A coin is at the bottom of a beaker. The beaker is filled with 1.6 cm of water (n1 = 1.33) covered by 2.1 cm of liquid (n2 = 1.4) floating on the water. How deep does the coin appear to be from the upper surface of the liquid (near the top of the beaker)? An cylindrical opaque drinking glass has a diameter 3 cm and height h, as shown in the figure. An observer’s eye is placed as shown (the observer is just barely looking over the rim of the glass). When empty, the observer can just barely see the edge of the bottom of the glass. When filled to the brim with a transparent liquid, the observer can just barely see the center of the bottom of the glass. The liquid in the drinking glass has an index of refraction of 1.4 . θi h d θr eye Calculate the angle θr . Question 22, chap 33, sect 8. part 2 of 2 10 points Calculate the height h of the glass.

Question 1, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 2 10 points The compound eyes of bees and other insects are highly sensitive to light in the ultraviolet portion of the spectrum, particularly light with frequencies between 7.5 × 1014 Hz and 1.0 × 1015 Hz. The speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s. What is the largest wavelength to which these frequencies correspond? Question 3, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 3 10 points A plane electromagnetic sinusoidal wave of frequency 10.7 MHz travels in free space. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s. Determine the wavelength of the wave. Question 4, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 3 10 points Find the period of the wave. Question 2, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 2 10 points What is the smallest wavelength? Question 5, chap 33, sect 3. part 3 of 3 10 points At some point and some instant, the electric field has has a value of 998 N/C. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at this point and this instant. Question 6, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 2 10 points A plane electromagnetic sinusoidal wave of frequency 10.7 MHz travels in free space. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s. Determine the wavelength of the wave. Question 8, chap 33, sect 3. part 1 of 1 10 points The magnetic field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is 9.9 × 10−6 T. The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s . Calculate the amplitude of the electric field if the wave is traveling in free space. Question 7, chap 33, sect 3. part 2 of 2 10 points At some point and some instant, the electric field has has a value of 998 V/m. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at this point and this instant. Question 9, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 1 10 points The cable is carrying the current I(t). at the surface of a long transmission cable of resistivity ρ, length ℓ and radius a, using the expression ~S = 1 μ0 ~E × ~B . Question 10, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 1 10 points In 1965 Penzias and Wilson discovered the cosmic microwave radiation left over from the Big Bang expansion of the universe. The energy density of this radiation is 7.64 × 10−14 J/m3. The speed of light 2.99792 × 108 m/s and the permeability of free space is 4π × 10−7 N/A2. Determine the corresponding electric field amplQuestion 11, chap 33, sect 5. part 1 of 5 10 points Consider a monochromatic electromagnetic plane wave propagating in the x direction. At a particular point in space, the magnitude of the electric field has an instantaneous value of 998 V/m in the positive y-direction. The wave is traveling in the positive x-direction. x y z E wave propagation The speed of light is 2.99792×108 m/s, the permeability of free space is 4π×10−7 T ・ N/A and the permittivity of free space 8.85419 × 10−12 C2/N ・ m2. Compute the instantaneous magnitude of the magnetic field at the same point and time.itude. Question 12, chap 33, sect 5. part 2 of 5 10 points What is the instantaneous magnitude of the Poynting vector at the same point and time? Question 13, chap 33, sect 5. part 3 of 5 10 points What are the directions of the instantaneous magnetic field and theQuestion 14, chap 33, sect 5. part 4 of 5 10 points What is the instantaneous value of the energy density of the electric field? Question 16, chap 33, sect 6. part 1 of 4 10 points Consider an electromagnetic plane wave with time average intensity 104 W/m2 . The speed of light is 2.99792 × 108 m/s and the permeability of free space is 4 π × 10−7 T・m/A. What is its maximum electric field? What is the instantaneous value of the energy density of the magnetic field? Question 17, chap 33, sect 6. part 2 of 4 10 points What is the the maximum magnetic field? Question 19, chap 33, sect 6. part 4 of 4 10 points Consider an electromagnetic wave pattern as shown in the figure below. Question 18, chap 33, sect 6. part 3 of 4 10 points What is the pressure on a surface which is perpendicular to the beam and is totally reflective? Question 20, chap 33, sect 8. part 1 of 1 10 points A coin is at the bottom of a beaker. The beaker is filled with 1.6 cm of water (n1 = 1.33) covered by 2.1 cm of liquid (n2 = 1.4) floating on the water. How deep does the coin appear to be from the upper surface of the liquid (near the top of the beaker)? An cylindrical opaque drinking glass has a diameter 3 cm and height h, as shown in the figure. An observer’s eye is placed as shown (the observer is just barely looking over the rim of the glass). When empty, the observer can just barely see the edge of the bottom of the glass. When filled to the brim with a transparent liquid, the observer can just barely see the center of the bottom of the glass. The liquid in the drinking glass has an index of refraction of 1.4 . θi h d θr eye Calculate the angle θr . Question 22, chap 33, sect 8. part 2 of 2 10 points Calculate the height h of the glass.

After giving birth, changes in sleep patterns, energy level, and appetite, as well as difficulty in concentrating, irritability, and heightened anxiety, are characteristics of the condition known as: Question 6 options: Anorexia nervosa Postpartum depression Placental abruption Preeclampsia

After giving birth, changes in sleep patterns, energy level, and appetite, as well as difficulty in concentrating, irritability, and heightened anxiety, are characteristics of the condition known as: Question 6 options: Anorexia nervosa Postpartum depression Placental abruption Preeclampsia

After giving birth, changes in sleep patterns, energy level, and … Read More...
Most gravity waves are formed most directly by Question 40 options: differences in sea-surface height caused by changes in ocean depth geostrophic flow transfer of energy from the sun to the water transfer of energy from wind to water

Most gravity waves are formed most directly by Question 40 options: differences in sea-surface height caused by changes in ocean depth geostrophic flow transfer of energy from the sun to the water transfer of energy from wind to water

Most gravity waves are formed most directly by Question 40 … Read More...
Assignment 11 Due: 11:59pm on Wednesday, April 30, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Conceptual Question 13.2 The gravitational force of a star on orbiting planet 1 is . Planet 2, which is twice as massive as planet 1 and orbits at twice the distance from the star, experiences gravitational force . Part A What is the ratio ? ANSWER: Correct Conceptual Question 13.3 A 1500 satellite and a 2200 satellite follow exactly the same orbit around the earth. Part A What is the ratio of the force on the first satellite to that on the second satellite? ANSWER: Correct F1 F2 F1 F2 = 2 F1 F2 kg kg F1 F2 = 0.682 F1 F2 Part B What is the ratio of the acceleration of the first satellite to that of the second satellite? ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.2 The centers of a 15.0 lead ball and a 90.0 lead ball are separated by 9.00 . Part A What gravitational force does each exert on the other? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the ratio of this gravitational force to the weight of the 90.0 ball? ANSWER: a1 a2 = 1 a1 a2 kg g cm 1.11×10−8 N g 1.26×10−8 Correct Problem 13.6 The space shuttle orbits 310 above the surface of the earth. Part A What is the gravitational force on a 7.5 sphere inside the space shuttle? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct ± A Satellite in Orbit A satellite used in a cellular telephone network has a mass of 2310 and is in a circular orbit at a height of 650 above the surface of the earth. Part A What is the gravitational force on the satellite? Take the gravitational constant to be = 6.67×10−11 , the mass of the earth to be = 5.97×1024 , and the radius of the Earth to be = 6.38×106 . Express your answer in newtons. Hint 1. How to approach the problem Use the equation for the law of gravitation to calculate the force on the satellite. Be careful about the units when performing the calculations. km kg Fe on s = 67.0 N kg km Fgrav G N m2/kg2 me kg re m Hint 2. Law of gravitation According to Newton’s law of gravitation, , where is the gravitational constant, and are the masses of the two objects, and is the distance between the centers of mass of the two objects. Hint 3. Calculate the distance between the centers of mass What is the distance from the center of mass of the satellite to the center of mass of the earth? Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: ANSWER: Correct Part B What fraction is this of the satellite’s weight at the surface of the earth? Take the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the earth to be = 9.80 . Hint 1. How to approach the problem All you need to do is to take the ratio of the gravitational force on the satellite to the weight of the satellite at ground level. There are two ways to do this, depending on how you define the force of gravity at the surface of the earth. ANSWER: F = Gm1m2/r2 G m1 m2 r r = 7.03×10r 6 m = 1.86×10Fgrav 4 N g m/s2 0.824 Correct Although it is easy to find the weight of the satellite using the constant acceleration due to gravity, it is instructional to consider the weight calculated using the law of gravitation: . Dividing the gravitational force on the satellite by , we find that the ratio of the forces due to the earth’s gravity is simply the square of the ratio of the earth’s radius to the sum of the earth’s radius and the height of the orbit of the satellite above the earth, . This will also be the fraction of the weight of, say, an astronaut in an orbit at the same altitude. Notice that an astronaut’s weight is never zero. When people speak of “weightlessness” in space, what they really mean is “free fall.” Problem 13.8 Part A What is the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the moon? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the Jupiter? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct w = G m/ me r2e Fgrav = Gmem/(re + h)2 w [re/(re + h)]2 gmoon = 1.62 m s2 gJupiter = 25.9 m s2 Enhanced EOC: Problem 13.14 A rocket is launched straight up from the earth’s surface at a speed of 1.90×104 . You may want to review ( pages 362 – 365) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Mathematical Expressions Involving Squares Part A What is its speed when it is very far away from the earth? Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is conserved in this problem? What is the rocket’s initial kinetic energy in terms of its unknown mass, ? What is the rocket’s initial gravitational potential energy in terms of its unknown mass, ? When the rocket is very far away from the Earth, what is its gravitational potential energy? Using conservation of energy, what is the rocket’s kinetic energy when it is very far away from the Earth? Therefore, what is the rocket’s velocity when it is very far away from the Earth? ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.13 Part A m/s m m 1.54×104 ms What is the escape speed from Venus? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.17 The asteroid belt circles the sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. One asteroid has a period of 4.2 earth years. Part A What is the asteroid’s orbital radius? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the asteroid’s orbital speed? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: vescape = 10.4 km s = 3.89×1011 R m = 1.85×104 v ms Correct Problem 13.32 Part A At what height above the earth is the acceleration due to gravity 15.0% of its value at the surface? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the speed of a satellite orbiting at that height? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.36 Two meteoroids are heading for earth. Their speeds as they cross the moon’s orbit are 2 . 1.01×107 m 4920 ms km/s Part A The first meteoroid is heading straight for earth. What is its speed of impact? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B The second misses the earth by 5500 . What is its speed at its closest point? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Incorrect; Try Again Problem 14.2 An air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates between the 11.0 mark and the 67.0 mark on the track. The glider completes 11.0 oscillations in 32.0 . Part A What is the period of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. v1 = 11.3 km s km v2 = cm cm s ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the frequency of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the angular frequency of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the amplitude? Express your answer with the appropriate units. 2.91 s 0.344 Hz 2.16 rad s ANSWER: Correct Part E What is the maximum speed of the glider? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Good Vibes: Introduction to Oscillations Learning Goal: To learn the basic terminology and relationships among the main characteristics of simple harmonic motion. Motion that repeats itself over and over is called periodic motion. There are many examples of periodic motion: the earth revolving around the sun, an elastic ball bouncing up and down, or a block attached to a spring oscillating back and forth. The last example differs from the first two, in that it represents a special kind of periodic motion called simple harmonic motion. The conditions that lead to simple harmonic motion are as follows: There must be a position of stable equilibrium. There must be a restoring force acting on the oscillating object. The direction of this force must always point toward the equilibrium, and its magnitude must be directly proportional to the magnitude of the object’s displacement from its equilibrium position. Mathematically, the restoring force is given by , where is the displacement from equilibrium and is a constant that depends on the properties of the oscillating system. The resistive forces in the system must be reasonably small. In this problem, we will introduce some of the basic quantities that describe oscillations and the relationships among them. Consider a block of mass attached to a spring with force constant , as shown in the figure. The spring can be either stretched or compressed. The block slides on a frictionless horizontal surface, as shown. When the spring is relaxed, the block is located at . If the 28.0 cm 60.5 cms F  F = −kx x k m k x = 0 block is pulled to the right a distance and then released, will be the amplitude of the resulting oscillations. Assume that the mechanical energy of the block-spring system remains unchanged in the subsequent motion of the block. Part A After the block is released from , it will ANSWER: Correct As the block begins its motion to the left, it accelerates. Although the restoring force decreases as the block approaches equilibrium, it still pulls the block to the left, so by the time the equilibrium position is reached, the block has gained some speed. It will, therefore, pass the equilibrium position and keep moving, compressing the spring. The spring will now be pushing the block to the right, and the block will slow down, temporarily coming to rest at . After is reached, the block will begin its motion to the right, pushed by the spring. The block will pass the equilibrium position and continue until it reaches , completing one cycle of motion. The motion will then repeat; if, as we’ve assumed, there is no friction, the motion will repeat indefinitely. The time it takes the block to complete one cycle is called the period. Usually, the period is denoted and is measured in seconds. The frequency, denoted , is the number of cycles that are completed per unit of time: . In SI units, is measured in inverse seconds, or hertz ( ). A A x = A remain at rest. move to the left until it reaches equilibrium and stop there. move to the left until it reaches and stop there. move to the left until it reaches and then begin to move to the right. x = −A x = −A x = −A x = −A x = A T f f = 1/T f Hz Part B If the period is doubled, the frequency is ANSWER: Correct Part C An oscillating object takes 0.10 to complete one cycle; that is, its period is 0.10 . What is its frequency ? Express your answer in hertz. ANSWER: Correct unchanged. doubled. halved. s s f f = 10 Hz Part D If the frequency is 40 , what is the period ? Express your answer in seconds. ANSWER: Correct The following questions refer to the figure that graphically depicts the oscillations of the block on the spring. Note that the vertical axis represents the x coordinate of the oscillating object, and the horizontal axis represents time. Part E Which points on the x axis are located a distance from the equilibrium position? ANSWER: Hz T T = 0.025 s A Correct Part F Suppose that the period is . Which of the following points on the t axis are separated by the time interval ? ANSWER: Correct Now assume for the remaining Parts G – J, that the x coordinate of point R is 0.12 and the t coordinate of point K is 0.0050 . Part G What is the period ? Express your answer in seconds. Hint 1. How to approach the problem In moving from the point to the point K, what fraction of a full wavelength is covered? Call that fraction . Then you can set . Dividing by the fraction will give the R only Q only both R and Q T T K and L K and M K and P L and N M and P m s T t = 0 a aT = 0.005 s a period . ANSWER: Correct Part H How much time does the block take to travel from the point of maximum displacement to the opposite point of maximum displacement? Express your answer in seconds. ANSWER: Correct Part I What distance does the object cover during one period of oscillation? Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: Correct Part J What distance does the object cover between the moments labeled K and N on the graph? T T = 0.02 s t t = 0.01 s d d = 0.48 m d Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.4 Part A What is the amplitude of the oscillation shown in the figure? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct d = 0.36 m A = 20.0 cm Part B What is the frequency of this oscillation? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the phase constant? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.10 An air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 1.50 . At the glider is 4.60 left of the equilibrium position and moving to the right at 33.4 . Part A What is the phase constant? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: f = 0.25 Hz 0 = -60 % s t = 0 s cm cm/s 0 = -2.09 rad Correct Part B What is the phase at ? Express your answer as an integer and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the phase at ? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the phase at ? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: t = 0.5 s  = 0 rad t = 1.0 s  = 2.09 rad t = 1.5 s  = 4.19 rad Correct Problem 14.12 A 140 air-track glider is attached to a spring. The glider is pushed in 12.2 and released. A student with a stopwatch finds that 14.0 oscillations take 19.0 . Part A What is the spring constant? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.14 The position of a 50 g oscillating mass is given by , where is in s. If necessary, round your answers to three significant figures. Determine: Part A The amplitude. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct g cm s 3.00 Nm x(t) = (2.0 cm)cos(10t − /4) t 2.00 cm Part B The period. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C The spring constant. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D The phase constant. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct 0.628 s 5.00 Nm -0.785 rad Part E The initial coordinate of the mass. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part F The initial velocity. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part G The maximum speed. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct 1.41 cm 14.1 cms 20.0 cms Part H The total energy. Express your answer to one decimal place and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part I The velocity at . Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Enhanced EOC: Problem 14.17 A spring with spring constant 16 hangs from the ceiling. A ball is attached to the spring and allowed to come to rest. It is then pulled down 4.0 and released. The ball makes 35 oscillations in 18 seconds. You may want to review ( pages 389 – 391) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Differentiation of Trigonometric Functions Part A What is its the mass of the ball? 1.0 mJ t = 0.40 s 1.46 cms N/m cm s Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is the period of oscillation? What is the angular frequency of the oscillations? How is the angular frequency related to the mass and spring constant? What is the mass? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is its maximum speed? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is the amplitude of the oscillations? How is the maximum speed related to the amplitude of the oscillations and the angular frequency? ANSWER: Correct Changing the Period of a Pendulum m = 110 g vmax = 49 cms A simple pendulum consisting of a bob of mass attached to a string of length swings with a period . Part A If the bob’s mass is doubled, approximately what will the pendulum’s new period be? Hint 1. Period of a simple pendulum The period of a simple pendulum of length is given by , where is the acceleration due to gravity. ANSWER: Correct Part B If the pendulum is brought on the moon where the gravitational acceleration is about , approximately what will its period now be? Hint 1. How to approach the problem Recall the formula of the period of a simple pendulum. Since the gravitational acceleration appears in the denominator, the period must increase when the gravitational acceleration decreases. m L T T L T = 2 Lg −−  g T/2 T ‘2T 2T g/6 ANSWER: Correct Part C If the pendulum is taken into the orbiting space station what will happen to the bob? Hint 1. How to approach the problem Recall that the oscillations of a simple pendulum occur when a pendulum bob is raised above its equilibrium position and let go, causing the pendulum bob to fall. The gravitational force acts to bring the bob back to its equilibrium position. In the space station, the earth’s gravity acts on both the station and everything inside it, giving them the same acceleration. These objects are said to be in free fall. ANSWER: Correct In the space station, where all objects undergo the same acceleration due to the earth’s gravity, the tension in the string is zero and the bob does not fall relative to the point to which the string is attached. T/6 T/’6 ‘6T 6T It will continue to oscillate in a vertical plane with the same period. It will no longer oscillate because there is no gravity in space. It will no longer oscillate because both the pendulum and the point to which it is attached are in free fall. It will oscillate much faster with a period that approaches zero. Problem 14.20 A 175 ball is tied to a string. It is pulled to an angle of 8.0 and released to swing as a pendulum. A student with a stopwatch finds that 15 oscillations take 13 . Part A How long is the string? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.22 Part A What is the length of a pendulum whose period on the moon matches the period of a 2.1- -long pendulum on the earth? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.42 An ultrasonic transducer, of the type used in medical ultrasound imaging, is a very thin disk ( = 0.17 ) driven back and forth in SHM at by an electromagnetic coil. g % s L = 19 cm m lmoon = 0.35 m m g 1.0 MHz Part A The maximum restoring force that can be applied to the disk without breaking it is 4.4×104 . What is the maximum oscillation amplitude that won’t rupture the disk? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the disk’s maximum speed at this amplitude? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 94.2%. You received 135.71 out of a possible total of 144 points. N amax = 6.6 μm vmax = 41 ms

Assignment 11 Due: 11:59pm on Wednesday, April 30, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Conceptual Question 13.2 The gravitational force of a star on orbiting planet 1 is . Planet 2, which is twice as massive as planet 1 and orbits at twice the distance from the star, experiences gravitational force . Part A What is the ratio ? ANSWER: Correct Conceptual Question 13.3 A 1500 satellite and a 2200 satellite follow exactly the same orbit around the earth. Part A What is the ratio of the force on the first satellite to that on the second satellite? ANSWER: Correct F1 F2 F1 F2 = 2 F1 F2 kg kg F1 F2 = 0.682 F1 F2 Part B What is the ratio of the acceleration of the first satellite to that of the second satellite? ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.2 The centers of a 15.0 lead ball and a 90.0 lead ball are separated by 9.00 . Part A What gravitational force does each exert on the other? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the ratio of this gravitational force to the weight of the 90.0 ball? ANSWER: a1 a2 = 1 a1 a2 kg g cm 1.11×10−8 N g 1.26×10−8 Correct Problem 13.6 The space shuttle orbits 310 above the surface of the earth. Part A What is the gravitational force on a 7.5 sphere inside the space shuttle? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct ± A Satellite in Orbit A satellite used in a cellular telephone network has a mass of 2310 and is in a circular orbit at a height of 650 above the surface of the earth. Part A What is the gravitational force on the satellite? Take the gravitational constant to be = 6.67×10−11 , the mass of the earth to be = 5.97×1024 , and the radius of the Earth to be = 6.38×106 . Express your answer in newtons. Hint 1. How to approach the problem Use the equation for the law of gravitation to calculate the force on the satellite. Be careful about the units when performing the calculations. km kg Fe on s = 67.0 N kg km Fgrav G N m2/kg2 me kg re m Hint 2. Law of gravitation According to Newton’s law of gravitation, , where is the gravitational constant, and are the masses of the two objects, and is the distance between the centers of mass of the two objects. Hint 3. Calculate the distance between the centers of mass What is the distance from the center of mass of the satellite to the center of mass of the earth? Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: ANSWER: Correct Part B What fraction is this of the satellite’s weight at the surface of the earth? Take the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the earth to be = 9.80 . Hint 1. How to approach the problem All you need to do is to take the ratio of the gravitational force on the satellite to the weight of the satellite at ground level. There are two ways to do this, depending on how you define the force of gravity at the surface of the earth. ANSWER: F = Gm1m2/r2 G m1 m2 r r = 7.03×10r 6 m = 1.86×10Fgrav 4 N g m/s2 0.824 Correct Although it is easy to find the weight of the satellite using the constant acceleration due to gravity, it is instructional to consider the weight calculated using the law of gravitation: . Dividing the gravitational force on the satellite by , we find that the ratio of the forces due to the earth’s gravity is simply the square of the ratio of the earth’s radius to the sum of the earth’s radius and the height of the orbit of the satellite above the earth, . This will also be the fraction of the weight of, say, an astronaut in an orbit at the same altitude. Notice that an astronaut’s weight is never zero. When people speak of “weightlessness” in space, what they really mean is “free fall.” Problem 13.8 Part A What is the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the moon? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the Jupiter? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct w = G m/ me r2e Fgrav = Gmem/(re + h)2 w [re/(re + h)]2 gmoon = 1.62 m s2 gJupiter = 25.9 m s2 Enhanced EOC: Problem 13.14 A rocket is launched straight up from the earth’s surface at a speed of 1.90×104 . You may want to review ( pages 362 – 365) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Mathematical Expressions Involving Squares Part A What is its speed when it is very far away from the earth? Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is conserved in this problem? What is the rocket’s initial kinetic energy in terms of its unknown mass, ? What is the rocket’s initial gravitational potential energy in terms of its unknown mass, ? When the rocket is very far away from the Earth, what is its gravitational potential energy? Using conservation of energy, what is the rocket’s kinetic energy when it is very far away from the Earth? Therefore, what is the rocket’s velocity when it is very far away from the Earth? ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.13 Part A m/s m m 1.54×104 ms What is the escape speed from Venus? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.17 The asteroid belt circles the sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. One asteroid has a period of 4.2 earth years. Part A What is the asteroid’s orbital radius? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the asteroid’s orbital speed? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: vescape = 10.4 km s = 3.89×1011 R m = 1.85×104 v ms Correct Problem 13.32 Part A At what height above the earth is the acceleration due to gravity 15.0% of its value at the surface? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the speed of a satellite orbiting at that height? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.36 Two meteoroids are heading for earth. Their speeds as they cross the moon’s orbit are 2 . 1.01×107 m 4920 ms km/s Part A The first meteoroid is heading straight for earth. What is its speed of impact? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B The second misses the earth by 5500 . What is its speed at its closest point? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Incorrect; Try Again Problem 14.2 An air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates between the 11.0 mark and the 67.0 mark on the track. The glider completes 11.0 oscillations in 32.0 . Part A What is the period of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. v1 = 11.3 km s km v2 = cm cm s ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the frequency of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the angular frequency of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the amplitude? Express your answer with the appropriate units. 2.91 s 0.344 Hz 2.16 rad s ANSWER: Correct Part E What is the maximum speed of the glider? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Good Vibes: Introduction to Oscillations Learning Goal: To learn the basic terminology and relationships among the main characteristics of simple harmonic motion. Motion that repeats itself over and over is called periodic motion. There are many examples of periodic motion: the earth revolving around the sun, an elastic ball bouncing up and down, or a block attached to a spring oscillating back and forth. The last example differs from the first two, in that it represents a special kind of periodic motion called simple harmonic motion. The conditions that lead to simple harmonic motion are as follows: There must be a position of stable equilibrium. There must be a restoring force acting on the oscillating object. The direction of this force must always point toward the equilibrium, and its magnitude must be directly proportional to the magnitude of the object’s displacement from its equilibrium position. Mathematically, the restoring force is given by , where is the displacement from equilibrium and is a constant that depends on the properties of the oscillating system. The resistive forces in the system must be reasonably small. In this problem, we will introduce some of the basic quantities that describe oscillations and the relationships among them. Consider a block of mass attached to a spring with force constant , as shown in the figure. The spring can be either stretched or compressed. The block slides on a frictionless horizontal surface, as shown. When the spring is relaxed, the block is located at . If the 28.0 cm 60.5 cms F  F = −kx x k m k x = 0 block is pulled to the right a distance and then released, will be the amplitude of the resulting oscillations. Assume that the mechanical energy of the block-spring system remains unchanged in the subsequent motion of the block. Part A After the block is released from , it will ANSWER: Correct As the block begins its motion to the left, it accelerates. Although the restoring force decreases as the block approaches equilibrium, it still pulls the block to the left, so by the time the equilibrium position is reached, the block has gained some speed. It will, therefore, pass the equilibrium position and keep moving, compressing the spring. The spring will now be pushing the block to the right, and the block will slow down, temporarily coming to rest at . After is reached, the block will begin its motion to the right, pushed by the spring. The block will pass the equilibrium position and continue until it reaches , completing one cycle of motion. The motion will then repeat; if, as we’ve assumed, there is no friction, the motion will repeat indefinitely. The time it takes the block to complete one cycle is called the period. Usually, the period is denoted and is measured in seconds. The frequency, denoted , is the number of cycles that are completed per unit of time: . In SI units, is measured in inverse seconds, or hertz ( ). A A x = A remain at rest. move to the left until it reaches equilibrium and stop there. move to the left until it reaches and stop there. move to the left until it reaches and then begin to move to the right. x = −A x = −A x = −A x = −A x = A T f f = 1/T f Hz Part B If the period is doubled, the frequency is ANSWER: Correct Part C An oscillating object takes 0.10 to complete one cycle; that is, its period is 0.10 . What is its frequency ? Express your answer in hertz. ANSWER: Correct unchanged. doubled. halved. s s f f = 10 Hz Part D If the frequency is 40 , what is the period ? Express your answer in seconds. ANSWER: Correct The following questions refer to the figure that graphically depicts the oscillations of the block on the spring. Note that the vertical axis represents the x coordinate of the oscillating object, and the horizontal axis represents time. Part E Which points on the x axis are located a distance from the equilibrium position? ANSWER: Hz T T = 0.025 s A Correct Part F Suppose that the period is . Which of the following points on the t axis are separated by the time interval ? ANSWER: Correct Now assume for the remaining Parts G – J, that the x coordinate of point R is 0.12 and the t coordinate of point K is 0.0050 . Part G What is the period ? Express your answer in seconds. Hint 1. How to approach the problem In moving from the point to the point K, what fraction of a full wavelength is covered? Call that fraction . Then you can set . Dividing by the fraction will give the R only Q only both R and Q T T K and L K and M K and P L and N M and P m s T t = 0 a aT = 0.005 s a period . ANSWER: Correct Part H How much time does the block take to travel from the point of maximum displacement to the opposite point of maximum displacement? Express your answer in seconds. ANSWER: Correct Part I What distance does the object cover during one period of oscillation? Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: Correct Part J What distance does the object cover between the moments labeled K and N on the graph? T T = 0.02 s t t = 0.01 s d d = 0.48 m d Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.4 Part A What is the amplitude of the oscillation shown in the figure? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct d = 0.36 m A = 20.0 cm Part B What is the frequency of this oscillation? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the phase constant? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.10 An air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 1.50 . At the glider is 4.60 left of the equilibrium position and moving to the right at 33.4 . Part A What is the phase constant? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: f = 0.25 Hz 0 = -60 % s t = 0 s cm cm/s 0 = -2.09 rad Correct Part B What is the phase at ? Express your answer as an integer and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the phase at ? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the phase at ? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: t = 0.5 s  = 0 rad t = 1.0 s  = 2.09 rad t = 1.5 s  = 4.19 rad Correct Problem 14.12 A 140 air-track glider is attached to a spring. The glider is pushed in 12.2 and released. A student with a stopwatch finds that 14.0 oscillations take 19.0 . Part A What is the spring constant? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.14 The position of a 50 g oscillating mass is given by , where is in s. If necessary, round your answers to three significant figures. Determine: Part A The amplitude. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct g cm s 3.00 Nm x(t) = (2.0 cm)cos(10t − /4) t 2.00 cm Part B The period. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C The spring constant. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D The phase constant. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct 0.628 s 5.00 Nm -0.785 rad Part E The initial coordinate of the mass. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part F The initial velocity. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part G The maximum speed. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct 1.41 cm 14.1 cms 20.0 cms Part H The total energy. Express your answer to one decimal place and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part I The velocity at . Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Enhanced EOC: Problem 14.17 A spring with spring constant 16 hangs from the ceiling. A ball is attached to the spring and allowed to come to rest. It is then pulled down 4.0 and released. The ball makes 35 oscillations in 18 seconds. You may want to review ( pages 389 – 391) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Differentiation of Trigonometric Functions Part A What is its the mass of the ball? 1.0 mJ t = 0.40 s 1.46 cms N/m cm s Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is the period of oscillation? What is the angular frequency of the oscillations? How is the angular frequency related to the mass and spring constant? What is the mass? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is its maximum speed? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is the amplitude of the oscillations? How is the maximum speed related to the amplitude of the oscillations and the angular frequency? ANSWER: Correct Changing the Period of a Pendulum m = 110 g vmax = 49 cms A simple pendulum consisting of a bob of mass attached to a string of length swings with a period . Part A If the bob’s mass is doubled, approximately what will the pendulum’s new period be? Hint 1. Period of a simple pendulum The period of a simple pendulum of length is given by , where is the acceleration due to gravity. ANSWER: Correct Part B If the pendulum is brought on the moon where the gravitational acceleration is about , approximately what will its period now be? Hint 1. How to approach the problem Recall the formula of the period of a simple pendulum. Since the gravitational acceleration appears in the denominator, the period must increase when the gravitational acceleration decreases. m L T T L T = 2 Lg −−  g T/2 T ‘2T 2T g/6 ANSWER: Correct Part C If the pendulum is taken into the orbiting space station what will happen to the bob? Hint 1. How to approach the problem Recall that the oscillations of a simple pendulum occur when a pendulum bob is raised above its equilibrium position and let go, causing the pendulum bob to fall. The gravitational force acts to bring the bob back to its equilibrium position. In the space station, the earth’s gravity acts on both the station and everything inside it, giving them the same acceleration. These objects are said to be in free fall. ANSWER: Correct In the space station, where all objects undergo the same acceleration due to the earth’s gravity, the tension in the string is zero and the bob does not fall relative to the point to which the string is attached. T/6 T/’6 ‘6T 6T It will continue to oscillate in a vertical plane with the same period. It will no longer oscillate because there is no gravity in space. It will no longer oscillate because both the pendulum and the point to which it is attached are in free fall. It will oscillate much faster with a period that approaches zero. Problem 14.20 A 175 ball is tied to a string. It is pulled to an angle of 8.0 and released to swing as a pendulum. A student with a stopwatch finds that 15 oscillations take 13 . Part A How long is the string? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.22 Part A What is the length of a pendulum whose period on the moon matches the period of a 2.1- -long pendulum on the earth? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.42 An ultrasonic transducer, of the type used in medical ultrasound imaging, is a very thin disk ( = 0.17 ) driven back and forth in SHM at by an electromagnetic coil. g % s L = 19 cm m lmoon = 0.35 m m g 1.0 MHz Part A The maximum restoring force that can be applied to the disk without breaking it is 4.4×104 . What is the maximum oscillation amplitude that won’t rupture the disk? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the disk’s maximum speed at this amplitude? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 94.2%. You received 135.71 out of a possible total of 144 points. N amax = 6.6 μm vmax = 41 ms

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Elastic Collision Write up for TA Jessica Andersen The following pages include what is expected for the PHY 112 Elastic Collision lab. Below each section heading are general tips for lab writing that can be applied to any lab in the future. Point values associated with each section are stated, as well are the points associated for topics within that section. Read through completely before beginning. Introduction ( 20 pts total ) Tips for a good Introduction section: Be thorough but do not write a five paragraph essay! Concisely present the purpose and background material. You don’t need to number equations unless you will be referring back to them. Simply explain what they apply to as you introduce them. A 2pt bullet should not correspond to more than two lines of writing in your report. – Include a statement of purpose for the lab. (5pts) – Define the necessary conditions of an Elastic Collision (5pts) – Introduce the concept of conservation of linear momentum and derive the equation for calculating linear momentum in the x-direction and the y direction. (5pts) – Introduce the concept of conservation of energy and derive the equation for calculating kinetic energy of the system before and after the collision. (5pts) Methods (10 pts total) Tips for a good Methods section: Don’t spend too much time on this section! Be very quick and to the point. Write as if you are giving instructions to someone else. This will sound much more professional and you won’t have to worry about the use of “I” or “we”, which can tend to make a lab report sound very informal. – Briefly describe the setup of the lab and what precautions were taken to ensure something close to an elastic collision (5pts) – What frequency was the “zapper” set to? (5pts) Results (25 pts total) Tips for a good Results section: This is an important section. It should be organized and formatted in a way that makes it very easy to read. Your tables should have borders and bolded headings where you see appropriate. Always include a brief description of each table at the opening of the section. REMEMBER, the Results section is about conveying your data in a readable and easy to understand way. • do not divide tables across pages • do not include more than 3 decimal places unless they are legitimately important – Include a table that summarizes all of the values recorded from the collision path. (5pts) – Include a table that displays the Kinetic Energy before and after the collision (5pts) – Include a table that displays the Linear Momentum in both directions before and after the collision (10pts) – Include a summary table that calculates the percent error between before collision values and after collision values. Use the before collision values as your theoretical value. (5pts) Discussion (40 pts total) Tips for a good Discussion section: This section is worth almost half of your report! I want to see that you put legitimate thought into your data and how it relates to what you learn in lecture. Show me that you understand the things we talked about in class. Be thorough, but remember that long and drawn out does not necessary achieve this. • do not present data as one large paragraph, make them smaller and easier to read • do not refer back to tables, actually state the values when asked for • you may refer back to graphs when necessary • do not use math vocabulary wrong, if you are unsure of a definition, look it up!!! – Present the percent error values for both momentum and energy calculations. (10pts) – Why was the energy and momentum BEFORE collision used as the theoretical value? (hint: It has to do with us assuming we have an Elastic Collision) (10pts) – Present the frequency of the “zapper”. What does this mean about the time that passes between each dot on the collision path? (10pts) – Discuss sources of error in this lab and how they may have affected our final result. (10pts) Appendix (5pts total) – Just staple on whatever notes you took in class.

Elastic Collision Write up for TA Jessica Andersen The following pages include what is expected for the PHY 112 Elastic Collision lab. Below each section heading are general tips for lab writing that can be applied to any lab in the future. Point values associated with each section are stated, as well are the points associated for topics within that section. Read through completely before beginning. Introduction ( 20 pts total ) Tips for a good Introduction section: Be thorough but do not write a five paragraph essay! Concisely present the purpose and background material. You don’t need to number equations unless you will be referring back to them. Simply explain what they apply to as you introduce them. A 2pt bullet should not correspond to more than two lines of writing in your report. – Include a statement of purpose for the lab. (5pts) – Define the necessary conditions of an Elastic Collision (5pts) – Introduce the concept of conservation of linear momentum and derive the equation for calculating linear momentum in the x-direction and the y direction. (5pts) – Introduce the concept of conservation of energy and derive the equation for calculating kinetic energy of the system before and after the collision. (5pts) Methods (10 pts total) Tips for a good Methods section: Don’t spend too much time on this section! Be very quick and to the point. Write as if you are giving instructions to someone else. This will sound much more professional and you won’t have to worry about the use of “I” or “we”, which can tend to make a lab report sound very informal. – Briefly describe the setup of the lab and what precautions were taken to ensure something close to an elastic collision (5pts) – What frequency was the “zapper” set to? (5pts) Results (25 pts total) Tips for a good Results section: This is an important section. It should be organized and formatted in a way that makes it very easy to read. Your tables should have borders and bolded headings where you see appropriate. Always include a brief description of each table at the opening of the section. REMEMBER, the Results section is about conveying your data in a readable and easy to understand way. • do not divide tables across pages • do not include more than 3 decimal places unless they are legitimately important – Include a table that summarizes all of the values recorded from the collision path. (5pts) – Include a table that displays the Kinetic Energy before and after the collision (5pts) – Include a table that displays the Linear Momentum in both directions before and after the collision (10pts) – Include a summary table that calculates the percent error between before collision values and after collision values. Use the before collision values as your theoretical value. (5pts) Discussion (40 pts total) Tips for a good Discussion section: This section is worth almost half of your report! I want to see that you put legitimate thought into your data and how it relates to what you learn in lecture. Show me that you understand the things we talked about in class. Be thorough, but remember that long and drawn out does not necessary achieve this. • do not present data as one large paragraph, make them smaller and easier to read • do not refer back to tables, actually state the values when asked for • you may refer back to graphs when necessary • do not use math vocabulary wrong, if you are unsure of a definition, look it up!!! – Present the percent error values for both momentum and energy calculations. (10pts) – Why was the energy and momentum BEFORE collision used as the theoretical value? (hint: It has to do with us assuming we have an Elastic Collision) (10pts) – Present the frequency of the “zapper”. What does this mean about the time that passes between each dot on the collision path? (10pts) – Discuss sources of error in this lab and how they may have affected our final result. (10pts) Appendix (5pts total) – Just staple on whatever notes you took in class.

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F7.10 The flame spread rate through porous solids increases with concurrent wind velocity. decreases with concurrent wind velocity. is independent of concurrent wind velocity. F7.11 Surface tension accelerates opposed-flow flame spread over liquid fuels. True False F7.12 Opposed-flow flame spread rates over a solid surface are typically much smaller than 1 mm/s. around 1mm/s. much greater than 1 mm/s. F7.13 Upward flame spread rate over a vertical surface is typically between 10 and 1000 mm/s. True False F7.14 The Steiner tunnel test described in ASTM standard E 84 is used to assess the fire performance of interior finish materials based on lateral flame spread over a vertical sample. True False F8.1 Describe the triad of fire growth. F8.2 Liquid pool fires reach steady burning conditions within seconds after ignition. True False F8.3 The heat of gasification of liquid fuels is typically less than 1 kJ/g. between 1 and 3 kJ/g. greater than 3 kJ/g. F8.4 The heat flux from the flame to the surface of real burning objects can usually be determined with sufficient accuracy so that reasonable burning rate predictions can be made. True False F8.5 The mass burning flux generally associated with extinction is 0.5 g/m2s. 5 g/m2s. 50 g/m2s. F8.6 The mass burning flux of a liquid pool fire is a function of only the pool diameter. only the fuel type. pool diameter and fuel type. F8.7 The energy release rate of real objects can be measured in an oxygen bomb calorimeter. an oxygen consumption calorimeter. a room/corner test. F8.8 The peak energy release rate of typical domestic upholstered furniture can be as high as 3000 kW. True False F8.9 Draw a typical curve of the mass burning flux of a char forming fuel as a function of time. F8.10 A fast fire as defined in NFPA 72B grows proportionally to t2 and reaches an energy release rate of 1 MW in 75 sec. 150 sec. 300 sec. F9.1 Air entrainment into turbulent pool fire flames is due to buoyancy. True False F9.2 The frequency of vortex shedding in turbulent pool fire flames increases with pool diameter. decreases with pool diameter. is independent of pool diameter. F9.3 The height of turbulent jet flames for a given fuel type and orifice size is independent of energy release rate. True False F9.4 The exit velocities of fuel vapors leaving a solid or liquid pool fire surface are responsible for entrainment of air in the plume. True False F9.5 The height of a turbulent pool fire flame is a function of only energy release rate. only pool diameter. energy release rate and pool diameter. F9.6 Turbulent pool fire flame heights fluctuate in time within a factor of 2. True False F9.7 The Q* value for jet fires is 102 or greater. 104 or greater. 106 or greater. F9.8 The temperature in the continuous flame region of moderate size turbulent pool fires is approximately 820°C. True False F9.9 The temperature at the maximum flame height of a turbulent pool fire flame is approximately 1200°C. 800°C. 300°C. F9.10 The adiabatic flame temperature of hydrocarbon fuels is 1700-2000°C. 2000-2300°C. 2300-2600°C. F10.1 The stoichiometric air to fuel mass ratio of hydrocarbon fuels is of the order of 1.5 g/g. 15 g/g. 150 g/g. F10.2 Give two examples of products of incomplete combustion that occur in fires. F10.3 Slight amounts of products of incomplete combustion are generated in overventilated fires. True False F10.4 The CO yield of a fire is a function of only the fuel involved. only the ventilation conditions. the fuel and the ventilation conditions. F10.5 A carboxyhemoglobin level of 40% in the blood is usually lethal. True (doubt) False F10.6 Carbon monoxide is the leading killer of people in fires. True False F10.7 HCN is a narcotic gas. an irritant gas. a fuel vapor. F10.8 The hazard to humans from narcotic gases is a function of only the concentration of the gas. only the duration of exposure. the product of concentration and duration of exposure. F10.9 The effects on lethality of CO, HCN, and reduced O2 are additive. True False F10.10 Irritant gases typically cause post-exposure fatalities. True False F10.11 Visibility through smoke improves with increasing optical density. True False F10.12 Heat stress occurs when the skin is exposed to a heat flux of 1 kW/m2. the skin reaches a temperature of 45°C. the body’s core temperature reaches 41°C.

F7.10 The flame spread rate through porous solids increases with concurrent wind velocity. decreases with concurrent wind velocity. is independent of concurrent wind velocity. F7.11 Surface tension accelerates opposed-flow flame spread over liquid fuels. True False F7.12 Opposed-flow flame spread rates over a solid surface are typically much smaller than 1 mm/s. around 1mm/s. much greater than 1 mm/s. F7.13 Upward flame spread rate over a vertical surface is typically between 10 and 1000 mm/s. True False F7.14 The Steiner tunnel test described in ASTM standard E 84 is used to assess the fire performance of interior finish materials based on lateral flame spread over a vertical sample. True False F8.1 Describe the triad of fire growth. F8.2 Liquid pool fires reach steady burning conditions within seconds after ignition. True False F8.3 The heat of gasification of liquid fuels is typically less than 1 kJ/g. between 1 and 3 kJ/g. greater than 3 kJ/g. F8.4 The heat flux from the flame to the surface of real burning objects can usually be determined with sufficient accuracy so that reasonable burning rate predictions can be made. True False F8.5 The mass burning flux generally associated with extinction is 0.5 g/m2s. 5 g/m2s. 50 g/m2s. F8.6 The mass burning flux of a liquid pool fire is a function of only the pool diameter. only the fuel type. pool diameter and fuel type. F8.7 The energy release rate of real objects can be measured in an oxygen bomb calorimeter. an oxygen consumption calorimeter. a room/corner test. F8.8 The peak energy release rate of typical domestic upholstered furniture can be as high as 3000 kW. True False F8.9 Draw a typical curve of the mass burning flux of a char forming fuel as a function of time. F8.10 A fast fire as defined in NFPA 72B grows proportionally to t2 and reaches an energy release rate of 1 MW in 75 sec. 150 sec. 300 sec. F9.1 Air entrainment into turbulent pool fire flames is due to buoyancy. True False F9.2 The frequency of vortex shedding in turbulent pool fire flames increases with pool diameter. decreases with pool diameter. is independent of pool diameter. F9.3 The height of turbulent jet flames for a given fuel type and orifice size is independent of energy release rate. True False F9.4 The exit velocities of fuel vapors leaving a solid or liquid pool fire surface are responsible for entrainment of air in the plume. True False F9.5 The height of a turbulent pool fire flame is a function of only energy release rate. only pool diameter. energy release rate and pool diameter. F9.6 Turbulent pool fire flame heights fluctuate in time within a factor of 2. True False F9.7 The Q* value for jet fires is 102 or greater. 104 or greater. 106 or greater. F9.8 The temperature in the continuous flame region of moderate size turbulent pool fires is approximately 820°C. True False F9.9 The temperature at the maximum flame height of a turbulent pool fire flame is approximately 1200°C. 800°C. 300°C. F9.10 The adiabatic flame temperature of hydrocarbon fuels is 1700-2000°C. 2000-2300°C. 2300-2600°C. F10.1 The stoichiometric air to fuel mass ratio of hydrocarbon fuels is of the order of 1.5 g/g. 15 g/g. 150 g/g. F10.2 Give two examples of products of incomplete combustion that occur in fires. F10.3 Slight amounts of products of incomplete combustion are generated in overventilated fires. True False F10.4 The CO yield of a fire is a function of only the fuel involved. only the ventilation conditions. the fuel and the ventilation conditions. F10.5 A carboxyhemoglobin level of 40% in the blood is usually lethal. True (doubt) False F10.6 Carbon monoxide is the leading killer of people in fires. True False F10.7 HCN is a narcotic gas. an irritant gas. a fuel vapor. F10.8 The hazard to humans from narcotic gases is a function of only the concentration of the gas. only the duration of exposure. the product of concentration and duration of exposure. F10.9 The effects on lethality of CO, HCN, and reduced O2 are additive. True False F10.10 Irritant gases typically cause post-exposure fatalities. True False F10.11 Visibility through smoke improves with increasing optical density. True False F10.12 Heat stress occurs when the skin is exposed to a heat flux of 1 kW/m2. the skin reaches a temperature of 45°C. the body’s core temperature reaches 41°C.

F7.10 The flame spread rate through porous solids increases with … Read More...