CEE 260 / MIE 273 Probability & Statistics Name: Final Exam, version D — 100 points (120 minutes) PLEASE READ QUESTIONS CAREFULLY and SHOW YOUR WORK! CALCULATORS PERMITTED – ABSOLUTELY NO REFERENCES! 1. Suppose the waiting time (in minutes) for your 911 SC Targa to reach operating temperature in the morning is uniformly distributed on [0,10], while the waiting time in the evening is uniformly distributed on [0,5] independent of morning waiting time. a. (5%) If you drive your Targa each morning and evening for a week (5 morning and 5 evening rides), what is the variance of your total waiting time? b. (5%) What is the expected value of the difference between morning and evening waiting time on a given day? 2. (10%) Find the maximum likelihood estimator (MLE) of ϴ when Xi ~ Exponential(ϴ) and you have observed X1, X2, X3, …, Xn. 2 3. The waiting time for delivery of a new Porsche 911 Carrera at the local dealership is distributed exponentially with a population mean of 3.55 months and population standard deviation of 1.1 months. Recently, in an effort to reduce the waiting time, the dealership has experimented with an online ordering system. A sample of 100 customers during a recent sales promotion generated a mean waiting time of 3.18 months using the new system. Assume that the population standard deviation of the waiting time has not changed from 1.1 months. (hint: the source distribution is irrelevant, but its parameters are relevant) a. (15%) What is the probability that the average wait time is between 3.2 and 6.4 months? (hint: draw a sketch for full credit) b. (10%) At the 0.05 level of significance, using the critical values approach to hypothesis testing, is there evidence that the population mean waiting time to accept delivery is less than 3.55 months? c. (10%) At the 0.01 level of significance, using the p-value approach to hypothesis testing, is there evidence that the population mean waiting time to accept delivery is less than 3.55 months? 3 4. Porsche AG is a leading manufacturer of performance automobiles. The 911 Carrera model, Porsche’s premier sports car, reaches a top track speed of 180 miles per hour. Engineers claim the new advanced technology 911 GT2 automatically adjusts its top speed depending on the weather conditions. Suppose that in an effort to test this claim, Porsche selects a few 911 GT2 models to test drive on the company track in Stuttgart, Germany. The average top speed for the sample of 25 test drives is 182.36 mph, with a standard deviation of 7.24 mph. a. (5%) Without using complete sentences, what might be some problems with the sampling conducted above? Identify and explain at least 2. b. (15%) Using the critical values approach to hypothesis testing and a 0.10 level of significance, is there evidence that the mean top track speed is different for the 911 GT2? (hint: state the null and alternative hypotheses, draw a sketch, and show your work for full credit) c. (10%) Set up a 95% confidence interval estimate of the population mean top speed of the 911 GT2. d. (5%) Compare the results of (b) and (c). What conclusions do you reach about the top speed of the new 911 GT2? 4 5. (10%) Porsche USA believes that sales of the venerable 911 Carrera are a function of annual income (in thousands of dollars) and a risk tolerance index of the potential buyer. Determine the regression equation and provide a succinct analysis of Porsche’s conjecture using the following Excel results. SUMMARY OUTPUT Regression Stat istics Multiple R 0.805073 R Square 0.648142 Adjusted R Square 0.606747 Standard Error 7.76312 Observations 20 ANOVA df SS MS F Significance F Regression 2 1887.227445 943.6137225 15.65747206 0.000139355 Residual 17 1024.522555 60.26603265 Total 19 2911.75 Coefficients Standard Error t Stat P-value Lower 95% Upper 95% Intercept 23.50557 6.845545641 3.433702952 0.003167982 9.062731576 37.94840898 Income 0.613408 0.125421229 4.890786567 0.000137795 0.348792801 0.878024121 Risk Index -0.00126 0.004519817 -0.278357691 0.784095184 -0.010794106 0.008277854 BONUS (5 points) What is the probability that 2 or more students in our class of 22 have the same birthday?

CEE 260 / MIE 273 Probability & Statistics Name: Final Exam, version D — 100 points (120 minutes) PLEASE READ QUESTIONS CAREFULLY and SHOW YOUR WORK! CALCULATORS PERMITTED – ABSOLUTELY NO REFERENCES! 1. Suppose the waiting time (in minutes) for your 911 SC Targa to reach operating temperature in the morning is uniformly distributed on [0,10], while the waiting time in the evening is uniformly distributed on [0,5] independent of morning waiting time. a. (5%) If you drive your Targa each morning and evening for a week (5 morning and 5 evening rides), what is the variance of your total waiting time? b. (5%) What is the expected value of the difference between morning and evening waiting time on a given day? 2. (10%) Find the maximum likelihood estimator (MLE) of ϴ when Xi ~ Exponential(ϴ) and you have observed X1, X2, X3, …, Xn. 2 3. The waiting time for delivery of a new Porsche 911 Carrera at the local dealership is distributed exponentially with a population mean of 3.55 months and population standard deviation of 1.1 months. Recently, in an effort to reduce the waiting time, the dealership has experimented with an online ordering system. A sample of 100 customers during a recent sales promotion generated a mean waiting time of 3.18 months using the new system. Assume that the population standard deviation of the waiting time has not changed from 1.1 months. (hint: the source distribution is irrelevant, but its parameters are relevant) a. (15%) What is the probability that the average wait time is between 3.2 and 6.4 months? (hint: draw a sketch for full credit) b. (10%) At the 0.05 level of significance, using the critical values approach to hypothesis testing, is there evidence that the population mean waiting time to accept delivery is less than 3.55 months? c. (10%) At the 0.01 level of significance, using the p-value approach to hypothesis testing, is there evidence that the population mean waiting time to accept delivery is less than 3.55 months? 3 4. Porsche AG is a leading manufacturer of performance automobiles. The 911 Carrera model, Porsche’s premier sports car, reaches a top track speed of 180 miles per hour. Engineers claim the new advanced technology 911 GT2 automatically adjusts its top speed depending on the weather conditions. Suppose that in an effort to test this claim, Porsche selects a few 911 GT2 models to test drive on the company track in Stuttgart, Germany. The average top speed for the sample of 25 test drives is 182.36 mph, with a standard deviation of 7.24 mph. a. (5%) Without using complete sentences, what might be some problems with the sampling conducted above? Identify and explain at least 2. b. (15%) Using the critical values approach to hypothesis testing and a 0.10 level of significance, is there evidence that the mean top track speed is different for the 911 GT2? (hint: state the null and alternative hypotheses, draw a sketch, and show your work for full credit) c. (10%) Set up a 95% confidence interval estimate of the population mean top speed of the 911 GT2. d. (5%) Compare the results of (b) and (c). What conclusions do you reach about the top speed of the new 911 GT2? 4 5. (10%) Porsche USA believes that sales of the venerable 911 Carrera are a function of annual income (in thousands of dollars) and a risk tolerance index of the potential buyer. Determine the regression equation and provide a succinct analysis of Porsche’s conjecture using the following Excel results. SUMMARY OUTPUT Regression Stat istics Multiple R 0.805073 R Square 0.648142 Adjusted R Square 0.606747 Standard Error 7.76312 Observations 20 ANOVA df SS MS F Significance F Regression 2 1887.227445 943.6137225 15.65747206 0.000139355 Residual 17 1024.522555 60.26603265 Total 19 2911.75 Coefficients Standard Error t Stat P-value Lower 95% Upper 95% Intercept 23.50557 6.845545641 3.433702952 0.003167982 9.062731576 37.94840898 Income 0.613408 0.125421229 4.890786567 0.000137795 0.348792801 0.878024121 Risk Index -0.00126 0.004519817 -0.278357691 0.784095184 -0.010794106 0.008277854 BONUS (5 points) What is the probability that 2 or more students in our class of 22 have the same birthday?

info@checkyourstudy.com CEE 260 / MIE 273 Probability & Statistics Name: … Read More...
Which equation correctly represents the first ionization of aluminum? A) Al (g) Al(g) e − − ® + B) Al(g) Al- (g) e− ® + C) Al(g) e Al- (g) − + ® D) Al(g)®Al+ (g) + e- E) Al (g) e Al(g) + − + ®

Which equation correctly represents the first ionization of aluminum? A) Al (g) Al(g) e − − ® + B) Al(g) Al- (g) e− ® + C) Al(g) e Al- (g) − + ® D) Al(g)®Al+ (g) + e- E) Al (g) e Al(g) + − + ®

Use nodal analysis to find V1 in the circuit given that I1 = 8mA; I2 = 6mA;R1 = 2kW;R2 = 8kW; R3 = 4kW and R4 = 8kW:Note: since there are no voltage sources, the bottom node is chosen as the reference because it has the most number of elements connected to it. Fill in the values for the two nodal analysis equations using the convention that positive current in an independent current source is defined as entering the node and positive current in the resistor is defined as leaving the node. The nodal analysis equation at node 1: V1 + V2 = The nodal analysis equation at node 2: V1 + V2 = Now solve for V1 = V

Use nodal analysis to find V1 in the circuit given that I1 = 8mA; I2 = 6mA;R1 = 2kW;R2 = 8kW; R3 = 4kW and R4 = 8kW:Note: since there are no voltage sources, the bottom node is chosen as the reference because it has the most number of elements connected to it. Fill in the values for the two nodal analysis equations using the convention that positive current in an independent current source is defined as entering the node and positive current in the resistor is defined as leaving the node. The nodal analysis equation at node 1: V1 + V2 = The nodal analysis equation at node 2: V1 + V2 = Now solve for V1 = V

Correct Answers:  0.000625  -0.000125  -0.008  -0.000125 … Read More...
Lab Assignment 2 CECS 201, Instructor: Brian Lojeck Date Assigned: 9/11/2015 Date Due: 1. Lab report: 9/25/2015 at the start of lecture, UPLOADED TO BEACHBOARD 2. Demonstration on-board to be done in lab after lecture on 9/25/2015 File Needed: LabAssignment2.ucf is available on the beachboard. Download the correct version for your board (Nexys3, Nexys2_500K, or Nexys2_1200K) Task: Using the lab lectures and the examples in the lab lecture documents use the Xylinx ISE software to design a circuit with 4 inputs (named SW0, SW1, SW2, SW3) and one output (named LED0). The inputs are the first 4 switches on the Digilent board, the output is the first LED light on the board. Note that the input and output names must match EXACTLY as shown above. The circuit will be a “voting” circuit. The output will be high (the led will turn on) whenever more outputs have a value of 1 then a value of 0. The output will be low (the led will turn off) whenever more outputs have a value of 0 then 1. If equal numbers of 1 and 0 are entered, the light should turn off. Design a truth table for the circuit using the description above. Use Karnaugh Maps to find the simplified SOP equation based on the truth table. Implement the equation in a schematic file. Test the schematic using a Verilog testbench. Download the project to your Digilent board to make sure it works properly. Note that you will need to download the code to your board in lab to demonstrate the project and receive full credit for the lab. Hand In For Your Lab Report, as a PDF file, or as a series of screenshots in a word document 1. A cover sheet for the report 2. The truth table for the circuit 3. The K-maps you used to simplify the equations (scans or decent cell-phone photos of the page are acceptable) 4. A printout of your schematic file (printed in landscape mode) 5. A printout of your testbench file (printed in portrait mode) 6. A printout of the results of your simulation (the timing diagram). Remember to print in landscape mode, and to use the printing menu to ensure the printout is readable (not zoomed out too far) and that all data is shown (not zoomed in too far)

Lab Assignment 2 CECS 201, Instructor: Brian Lojeck Date Assigned: 9/11/2015 Date Due: 1. Lab report: 9/25/2015 at the start of lecture, UPLOADED TO BEACHBOARD 2. Demonstration on-board to be done in lab after lecture on 9/25/2015 File Needed: LabAssignment2.ucf is available on the beachboard. Download the correct version for your board (Nexys3, Nexys2_500K, or Nexys2_1200K) Task: Using the lab lectures and the examples in the lab lecture documents use the Xylinx ISE software to design a circuit with 4 inputs (named SW0, SW1, SW2, SW3) and one output (named LED0). The inputs are the first 4 switches on the Digilent board, the output is the first LED light on the board. Note that the input and output names must match EXACTLY as shown above. The circuit will be a “voting” circuit. The output will be high (the led will turn on) whenever more outputs have a value of 1 then a value of 0. The output will be low (the led will turn off) whenever more outputs have a value of 0 then 1. If equal numbers of 1 and 0 are entered, the light should turn off. Design a truth table for the circuit using the description above. Use Karnaugh Maps to find the simplified SOP equation based on the truth table. Implement the equation in a schematic file. Test the schematic using a Verilog testbench. Download the project to your Digilent board to make sure it works properly. Note that you will need to download the code to your board in lab to demonstrate the project and receive full credit for the lab. Hand In For Your Lab Report, as a PDF file, or as a series of screenshots in a word document 1. A cover sheet for the report 2. The truth table for the circuit 3. The K-maps you used to simplify the equations (scans or decent cell-phone photos of the page are acceptable) 4. A printout of your schematic file (printed in landscape mode) 5. A printout of your testbench file (printed in portrait mode) 6. A printout of the results of your simulation (the timing diagram). Remember to print in landscape mode, and to use the printing menu to ensure the printout is readable (not zoomed out too far) and that all data is shown (not zoomed in too far)

info@checkyourstudy.com
Assignment 11 Due: 11:59pm on Wednesday, April 30, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Conceptual Question 13.2 The gravitational force of a star on orbiting planet 1 is . Planet 2, which is twice as massive as planet 1 and orbits at twice the distance from the star, experiences gravitational force . Part A What is the ratio ? ANSWER: Correct Conceptual Question 13.3 A 1500 satellite and a 2200 satellite follow exactly the same orbit around the earth. Part A What is the ratio of the force on the first satellite to that on the second satellite? ANSWER: Correct F1 F2 F1 F2 = 2 F1 F2 kg kg F1 F2 = 0.682 F1 F2 Part B What is the ratio of the acceleration of the first satellite to that of the second satellite? ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.2 The centers of a 15.0 lead ball and a 90.0 lead ball are separated by 9.00 . Part A What gravitational force does each exert on the other? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the ratio of this gravitational force to the weight of the 90.0 ball? ANSWER: a1 a2 = 1 a1 a2 kg g cm 1.11×10−8 N g 1.26×10−8 Correct Problem 13.6 The space shuttle orbits 310 above the surface of the earth. Part A What is the gravitational force on a 7.5 sphere inside the space shuttle? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct ± A Satellite in Orbit A satellite used in a cellular telephone network has a mass of 2310 and is in a circular orbit at a height of 650 above the surface of the earth. Part A What is the gravitational force on the satellite? Take the gravitational constant to be = 6.67×10−11 , the mass of the earth to be = 5.97×1024 , and the radius of the Earth to be = 6.38×106 . Express your answer in newtons. Hint 1. How to approach the problem Use the equation for the law of gravitation to calculate the force on the satellite. Be careful about the units when performing the calculations. km kg Fe on s = 67.0 N kg km Fgrav G N m2/kg2 me kg re m Hint 2. Law of gravitation According to Newton’s law of gravitation, , where is the gravitational constant, and are the masses of the two objects, and is the distance between the centers of mass of the two objects. Hint 3. Calculate the distance between the centers of mass What is the distance from the center of mass of the satellite to the center of mass of the earth? Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: ANSWER: Correct Part B What fraction is this of the satellite’s weight at the surface of the earth? Take the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the earth to be = 9.80 . Hint 1. How to approach the problem All you need to do is to take the ratio of the gravitational force on the satellite to the weight of the satellite at ground level. There are two ways to do this, depending on how you define the force of gravity at the surface of the earth. ANSWER: F = Gm1m2/r2 G m1 m2 r r = 7.03×10r 6 m = 1.86×10Fgrav 4 N g m/s2 0.824 Correct Although it is easy to find the weight of the satellite using the constant acceleration due to gravity, it is instructional to consider the weight calculated using the law of gravitation: . Dividing the gravitational force on the satellite by , we find that the ratio of the forces due to the earth’s gravity is simply the square of the ratio of the earth’s radius to the sum of the earth’s radius and the height of the orbit of the satellite above the earth, . This will also be the fraction of the weight of, say, an astronaut in an orbit at the same altitude. Notice that an astronaut’s weight is never zero. When people speak of “weightlessness” in space, what they really mean is “free fall.” Problem 13.8 Part A What is the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the moon? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the Jupiter? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct w = G m/ me r2e Fgrav = Gmem/(re + h)2 w [re/(re + h)]2 gmoon = 1.62 m s2 gJupiter = 25.9 m s2 Enhanced EOC: Problem 13.14 A rocket is launched straight up from the earth’s surface at a speed of 1.90×104 . You may want to review ( pages 362 – 365) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Mathematical Expressions Involving Squares Part A What is its speed when it is very far away from the earth? Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is conserved in this problem? What is the rocket’s initial kinetic energy in terms of its unknown mass, ? What is the rocket’s initial gravitational potential energy in terms of its unknown mass, ? When the rocket is very far away from the Earth, what is its gravitational potential energy? Using conservation of energy, what is the rocket’s kinetic energy when it is very far away from the Earth? Therefore, what is the rocket’s velocity when it is very far away from the Earth? ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.13 Part A m/s m m 1.54×104 ms What is the escape speed from Venus? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.17 The asteroid belt circles the sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. One asteroid has a period of 4.2 earth years. Part A What is the asteroid’s orbital radius? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the asteroid’s orbital speed? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: vescape = 10.4 km s = 3.89×1011 R m = 1.85×104 v ms Correct Problem 13.32 Part A At what height above the earth is the acceleration due to gravity 15.0% of its value at the surface? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the speed of a satellite orbiting at that height? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.36 Two meteoroids are heading for earth. Their speeds as they cross the moon’s orbit are 2 . 1.01×107 m 4920 ms km/s Part A The first meteoroid is heading straight for earth. What is its speed of impact? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B The second misses the earth by 5500 . What is its speed at its closest point? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Incorrect; Try Again Problem 14.2 An air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates between the 11.0 mark and the 67.0 mark on the track. The glider completes 11.0 oscillations in 32.0 . Part A What is the period of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. v1 = 11.3 km s km v2 = cm cm s ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the frequency of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the angular frequency of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the amplitude? Express your answer with the appropriate units. 2.91 s 0.344 Hz 2.16 rad s ANSWER: Correct Part E What is the maximum speed of the glider? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Good Vibes: Introduction to Oscillations Learning Goal: To learn the basic terminology and relationships among the main characteristics of simple harmonic motion. Motion that repeats itself over and over is called periodic motion. There are many examples of periodic motion: the earth revolving around the sun, an elastic ball bouncing up and down, or a block attached to a spring oscillating back and forth. The last example differs from the first two, in that it represents a special kind of periodic motion called simple harmonic motion. The conditions that lead to simple harmonic motion are as follows: There must be a position of stable equilibrium. There must be a restoring force acting on the oscillating object. The direction of this force must always point toward the equilibrium, and its magnitude must be directly proportional to the magnitude of the object’s displacement from its equilibrium position. Mathematically, the restoring force is given by , where is the displacement from equilibrium and is a constant that depends on the properties of the oscillating system. The resistive forces in the system must be reasonably small. In this problem, we will introduce some of the basic quantities that describe oscillations and the relationships among them. Consider a block of mass attached to a spring with force constant , as shown in the figure. The spring can be either stretched or compressed. The block slides on a frictionless horizontal surface, as shown. When the spring is relaxed, the block is located at . If the 28.0 cm 60.5 cms F  F = −kx x k m k x = 0 block is pulled to the right a distance and then released, will be the amplitude of the resulting oscillations. Assume that the mechanical energy of the block-spring system remains unchanged in the subsequent motion of the block. Part A After the block is released from , it will ANSWER: Correct As the block begins its motion to the left, it accelerates. Although the restoring force decreases as the block approaches equilibrium, it still pulls the block to the left, so by the time the equilibrium position is reached, the block has gained some speed. It will, therefore, pass the equilibrium position and keep moving, compressing the spring. The spring will now be pushing the block to the right, and the block will slow down, temporarily coming to rest at . After is reached, the block will begin its motion to the right, pushed by the spring. The block will pass the equilibrium position and continue until it reaches , completing one cycle of motion. The motion will then repeat; if, as we’ve assumed, there is no friction, the motion will repeat indefinitely. The time it takes the block to complete one cycle is called the period. Usually, the period is denoted and is measured in seconds. The frequency, denoted , is the number of cycles that are completed per unit of time: . In SI units, is measured in inverse seconds, or hertz ( ). A A x = A remain at rest. move to the left until it reaches equilibrium and stop there. move to the left until it reaches and stop there. move to the left until it reaches and then begin to move to the right. x = −A x = −A x = −A x = −A x = A T f f = 1/T f Hz Part B If the period is doubled, the frequency is ANSWER: Correct Part C An oscillating object takes 0.10 to complete one cycle; that is, its period is 0.10 . What is its frequency ? Express your answer in hertz. ANSWER: Correct unchanged. doubled. halved. s s f f = 10 Hz Part D If the frequency is 40 , what is the period ? Express your answer in seconds. ANSWER: Correct The following questions refer to the figure that graphically depicts the oscillations of the block on the spring. Note that the vertical axis represents the x coordinate of the oscillating object, and the horizontal axis represents time. Part E Which points on the x axis are located a distance from the equilibrium position? ANSWER: Hz T T = 0.025 s A Correct Part F Suppose that the period is . Which of the following points on the t axis are separated by the time interval ? ANSWER: Correct Now assume for the remaining Parts G – J, that the x coordinate of point R is 0.12 and the t coordinate of point K is 0.0050 . Part G What is the period ? Express your answer in seconds. Hint 1. How to approach the problem In moving from the point to the point K, what fraction of a full wavelength is covered? Call that fraction . Then you can set . Dividing by the fraction will give the R only Q only both R and Q T T K and L K and M K and P L and N M and P m s T t = 0 a aT = 0.005 s a period . ANSWER: Correct Part H How much time does the block take to travel from the point of maximum displacement to the opposite point of maximum displacement? Express your answer in seconds. ANSWER: Correct Part I What distance does the object cover during one period of oscillation? Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: Correct Part J What distance does the object cover between the moments labeled K and N on the graph? T T = 0.02 s t t = 0.01 s d d = 0.48 m d Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.4 Part A What is the amplitude of the oscillation shown in the figure? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct d = 0.36 m A = 20.0 cm Part B What is the frequency of this oscillation? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the phase constant? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.10 An air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 1.50 . At the glider is 4.60 left of the equilibrium position and moving to the right at 33.4 . Part A What is the phase constant? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: f = 0.25 Hz 0 = -60 % s t = 0 s cm cm/s 0 = -2.09 rad Correct Part B What is the phase at ? Express your answer as an integer and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the phase at ? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the phase at ? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: t = 0.5 s  = 0 rad t = 1.0 s  = 2.09 rad t = 1.5 s  = 4.19 rad Correct Problem 14.12 A 140 air-track glider is attached to a spring. The glider is pushed in 12.2 and released. A student with a stopwatch finds that 14.0 oscillations take 19.0 . Part A What is the spring constant? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.14 The position of a 50 g oscillating mass is given by , where is in s. If necessary, round your answers to three significant figures. Determine: Part A The amplitude. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct g cm s 3.00 Nm x(t) = (2.0 cm)cos(10t − /4) t 2.00 cm Part B The period. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C The spring constant. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D The phase constant. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct 0.628 s 5.00 Nm -0.785 rad Part E The initial coordinate of the mass. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part F The initial velocity. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part G The maximum speed. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct 1.41 cm 14.1 cms 20.0 cms Part H The total energy. Express your answer to one decimal place and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part I The velocity at . Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Enhanced EOC: Problem 14.17 A spring with spring constant 16 hangs from the ceiling. A ball is attached to the spring and allowed to come to rest. It is then pulled down 4.0 and released. The ball makes 35 oscillations in 18 seconds. You may want to review ( pages 389 – 391) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Differentiation of Trigonometric Functions Part A What is its the mass of the ball? 1.0 mJ t = 0.40 s 1.46 cms N/m cm s Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is the period of oscillation? What is the angular frequency of the oscillations? How is the angular frequency related to the mass and spring constant? What is the mass? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is its maximum speed? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is the amplitude of the oscillations? How is the maximum speed related to the amplitude of the oscillations and the angular frequency? ANSWER: Correct Changing the Period of a Pendulum m = 110 g vmax = 49 cms A simple pendulum consisting of a bob of mass attached to a string of length swings with a period . Part A If the bob’s mass is doubled, approximately what will the pendulum’s new period be? Hint 1. Period of a simple pendulum The period of a simple pendulum of length is given by , where is the acceleration due to gravity. ANSWER: Correct Part B If the pendulum is brought on the moon where the gravitational acceleration is about , approximately what will its period now be? Hint 1. How to approach the problem Recall the formula of the period of a simple pendulum. Since the gravitational acceleration appears in the denominator, the period must increase when the gravitational acceleration decreases. m L T T L T = 2 Lg −−  g T/2 T ‘2T 2T g/6 ANSWER: Correct Part C If the pendulum is taken into the orbiting space station what will happen to the bob? Hint 1. How to approach the problem Recall that the oscillations of a simple pendulum occur when a pendulum bob is raised above its equilibrium position and let go, causing the pendulum bob to fall. The gravitational force acts to bring the bob back to its equilibrium position. In the space station, the earth’s gravity acts on both the station and everything inside it, giving them the same acceleration. These objects are said to be in free fall. ANSWER: Correct In the space station, where all objects undergo the same acceleration due to the earth’s gravity, the tension in the string is zero and the bob does not fall relative to the point to which the string is attached. T/6 T/’6 ‘6T 6T It will continue to oscillate in a vertical plane with the same period. It will no longer oscillate because there is no gravity in space. It will no longer oscillate because both the pendulum and the point to which it is attached are in free fall. It will oscillate much faster with a period that approaches zero. Problem 14.20 A 175 ball is tied to a string. It is pulled to an angle of 8.0 and released to swing as a pendulum. A student with a stopwatch finds that 15 oscillations take 13 . Part A How long is the string? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.22 Part A What is the length of a pendulum whose period on the moon matches the period of a 2.1- -long pendulum on the earth? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.42 An ultrasonic transducer, of the type used in medical ultrasound imaging, is a very thin disk ( = 0.17 ) driven back and forth in SHM at by an electromagnetic coil. g % s L = 19 cm m lmoon = 0.35 m m g 1.0 MHz Part A The maximum restoring force that can be applied to the disk without breaking it is 4.4×104 . What is the maximum oscillation amplitude that won’t rupture the disk? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the disk’s maximum speed at this amplitude? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 94.2%. You received 135.71 out of a possible total of 144 points. N amax = 6.6 μm vmax = 41 ms

Assignment 11 Due: 11:59pm on Wednesday, April 30, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Conceptual Question 13.2 The gravitational force of a star on orbiting planet 1 is . Planet 2, which is twice as massive as planet 1 and orbits at twice the distance from the star, experiences gravitational force . Part A What is the ratio ? ANSWER: Correct Conceptual Question 13.3 A 1500 satellite and a 2200 satellite follow exactly the same orbit around the earth. Part A What is the ratio of the force on the first satellite to that on the second satellite? ANSWER: Correct F1 F2 F1 F2 = 2 F1 F2 kg kg F1 F2 = 0.682 F1 F2 Part B What is the ratio of the acceleration of the first satellite to that of the second satellite? ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.2 The centers of a 15.0 lead ball and a 90.0 lead ball are separated by 9.00 . Part A What gravitational force does each exert on the other? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the ratio of this gravitational force to the weight of the 90.0 ball? ANSWER: a1 a2 = 1 a1 a2 kg g cm 1.11×10−8 N g 1.26×10−8 Correct Problem 13.6 The space shuttle orbits 310 above the surface of the earth. Part A What is the gravitational force on a 7.5 sphere inside the space shuttle? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct ± A Satellite in Orbit A satellite used in a cellular telephone network has a mass of 2310 and is in a circular orbit at a height of 650 above the surface of the earth. Part A What is the gravitational force on the satellite? Take the gravitational constant to be = 6.67×10−11 , the mass of the earth to be = 5.97×1024 , and the radius of the Earth to be = 6.38×106 . Express your answer in newtons. Hint 1. How to approach the problem Use the equation for the law of gravitation to calculate the force on the satellite. Be careful about the units when performing the calculations. km kg Fe on s = 67.0 N kg km Fgrav G N m2/kg2 me kg re m Hint 2. Law of gravitation According to Newton’s law of gravitation, , where is the gravitational constant, and are the masses of the two objects, and is the distance between the centers of mass of the two objects. Hint 3. Calculate the distance between the centers of mass What is the distance from the center of mass of the satellite to the center of mass of the earth? Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: ANSWER: Correct Part B What fraction is this of the satellite’s weight at the surface of the earth? Take the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the earth to be = 9.80 . Hint 1. How to approach the problem All you need to do is to take the ratio of the gravitational force on the satellite to the weight of the satellite at ground level. There are two ways to do this, depending on how you define the force of gravity at the surface of the earth. ANSWER: F = Gm1m2/r2 G m1 m2 r r = 7.03×10r 6 m = 1.86×10Fgrav 4 N g m/s2 0.824 Correct Although it is easy to find the weight of the satellite using the constant acceleration due to gravity, it is instructional to consider the weight calculated using the law of gravitation: . Dividing the gravitational force on the satellite by , we find that the ratio of the forces due to the earth’s gravity is simply the square of the ratio of the earth’s radius to the sum of the earth’s radius and the height of the orbit of the satellite above the earth, . This will also be the fraction of the weight of, say, an astronaut in an orbit at the same altitude. Notice that an astronaut’s weight is never zero. When people speak of “weightlessness” in space, what they really mean is “free fall.” Problem 13.8 Part A What is the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the moon? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the free-fall acceleration at the surface of the Jupiter? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct w = G m/ me r2e Fgrav = Gmem/(re + h)2 w [re/(re + h)]2 gmoon = 1.62 m s2 gJupiter = 25.9 m s2 Enhanced EOC: Problem 13.14 A rocket is launched straight up from the earth’s surface at a speed of 1.90×104 . You may want to review ( pages 362 – 365) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Mathematical Expressions Involving Squares Part A What is its speed when it is very far away from the earth? Express your answer with the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is conserved in this problem? What is the rocket’s initial kinetic energy in terms of its unknown mass, ? What is the rocket’s initial gravitational potential energy in terms of its unknown mass, ? When the rocket is very far away from the Earth, what is its gravitational potential energy? Using conservation of energy, what is the rocket’s kinetic energy when it is very far away from the Earth? Therefore, what is the rocket’s velocity when it is very far away from the Earth? ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.13 Part A m/s m m 1.54×104 ms What is the escape speed from Venus? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.17 The asteroid belt circles the sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. One asteroid has a period of 4.2 earth years. Part A What is the asteroid’s orbital radius? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the asteroid’s orbital speed? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: vescape = 10.4 km s = 3.89×1011 R m = 1.85×104 v ms Correct Problem 13.32 Part A At what height above the earth is the acceleration due to gravity 15.0% of its value at the surface? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the speed of a satellite orbiting at that height? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 13.36 Two meteoroids are heading for earth. Their speeds as they cross the moon’s orbit are 2 . 1.01×107 m 4920 ms km/s Part A The first meteoroid is heading straight for earth. What is its speed of impact? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B The second misses the earth by 5500 . What is its speed at its closest point? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Incorrect; Try Again Problem 14.2 An air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates between the 11.0 mark and the 67.0 mark on the track. The glider completes 11.0 oscillations in 32.0 . Part A What is the period of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. v1 = 11.3 km s km v2 = cm cm s ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the frequency of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the angular frequency of the oscillations? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the amplitude? Express your answer with the appropriate units. 2.91 s 0.344 Hz 2.16 rad s ANSWER: Correct Part E What is the maximum speed of the glider? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Good Vibes: Introduction to Oscillations Learning Goal: To learn the basic terminology and relationships among the main characteristics of simple harmonic motion. Motion that repeats itself over and over is called periodic motion. There are many examples of periodic motion: the earth revolving around the sun, an elastic ball bouncing up and down, or a block attached to a spring oscillating back and forth. The last example differs from the first two, in that it represents a special kind of periodic motion called simple harmonic motion. The conditions that lead to simple harmonic motion are as follows: There must be a position of stable equilibrium. There must be a restoring force acting on the oscillating object. The direction of this force must always point toward the equilibrium, and its magnitude must be directly proportional to the magnitude of the object’s displacement from its equilibrium position. Mathematically, the restoring force is given by , where is the displacement from equilibrium and is a constant that depends on the properties of the oscillating system. The resistive forces in the system must be reasonably small. In this problem, we will introduce some of the basic quantities that describe oscillations and the relationships among them. Consider a block of mass attached to a spring with force constant , as shown in the figure. The spring can be either stretched or compressed. The block slides on a frictionless horizontal surface, as shown. When the spring is relaxed, the block is located at . If the 28.0 cm 60.5 cms F  F = −kx x k m k x = 0 block is pulled to the right a distance and then released, will be the amplitude of the resulting oscillations. Assume that the mechanical energy of the block-spring system remains unchanged in the subsequent motion of the block. Part A After the block is released from , it will ANSWER: Correct As the block begins its motion to the left, it accelerates. Although the restoring force decreases as the block approaches equilibrium, it still pulls the block to the left, so by the time the equilibrium position is reached, the block has gained some speed. It will, therefore, pass the equilibrium position and keep moving, compressing the spring. The spring will now be pushing the block to the right, and the block will slow down, temporarily coming to rest at . After is reached, the block will begin its motion to the right, pushed by the spring. The block will pass the equilibrium position and continue until it reaches , completing one cycle of motion. The motion will then repeat; if, as we’ve assumed, there is no friction, the motion will repeat indefinitely. The time it takes the block to complete one cycle is called the period. Usually, the period is denoted and is measured in seconds. The frequency, denoted , is the number of cycles that are completed per unit of time: . In SI units, is measured in inverse seconds, or hertz ( ). A A x = A remain at rest. move to the left until it reaches equilibrium and stop there. move to the left until it reaches and stop there. move to the left until it reaches and then begin to move to the right. x = −A x = −A x = −A x = −A x = A T f f = 1/T f Hz Part B If the period is doubled, the frequency is ANSWER: Correct Part C An oscillating object takes 0.10 to complete one cycle; that is, its period is 0.10 . What is its frequency ? Express your answer in hertz. ANSWER: Correct unchanged. doubled. halved. s s f f = 10 Hz Part D If the frequency is 40 , what is the period ? Express your answer in seconds. ANSWER: Correct The following questions refer to the figure that graphically depicts the oscillations of the block on the spring. Note that the vertical axis represents the x coordinate of the oscillating object, and the horizontal axis represents time. Part E Which points on the x axis are located a distance from the equilibrium position? ANSWER: Hz T T = 0.025 s A Correct Part F Suppose that the period is . Which of the following points on the t axis are separated by the time interval ? ANSWER: Correct Now assume for the remaining Parts G – J, that the x coordinate of point R is 0.12 and the t coordinate of point K is 0.0050 . Part G What is the period ? Express your answer in seconds. Hint 1. How to approach the problem In moving from the point to the point K, what fraction of a full wavelength is covered? Call that fraction . Then you can set . Dividing by the fraction will give the R only Q only both R and Q T T K and L K and M K and P L and N M and P m s T t = 0 a aT = 0.005 s a period . ANSWER: Correct Part H How much time does the block take to travel from the point of maximum displacement to the opposite point of maximum displacement? Express your answer in seconds. ANSWER: Correct Part I What distance does the object cover during one period of oscillation? Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: Correct Part J What distance does the object cover between the moments labeled K and N on the graph? T T = 0.02 s t t = 0.01 s d d = 0.48 m d Express your answer in meters. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.4 Part A What is the amplitude of the oscillation shown in the figure? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct d = 0.36 m A = 20.0 cm Part B What is the frequency of this oscillation? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the phase constant? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.10 An air-track glider attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 1.50 . At the glider is 4.60 left of the equilibrium position and moving to the right at 33.4 . Part A What is the phase constant? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: f = 0.25 Hz 0 = -60 % s t = 0 s cm cm/s 0 = -2.09 rad Correct Part B What is the phase at ? Express your answer as an integer and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C What is the phase at ? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D What is the phase at ? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: t = 0.5 s  = 0 rad t = 1.0 s  = 2.09 rad t = 1.5 s  = 4.19 rad Correct Problem 14.12 A 140 air-track glider is attached to a spring. The glider is pushed in 12.2 and released. A student with a stopwatch finds that 14.0 oscillations take 19.0 . Part A What is the spring constant? Express your answer with the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.14 The position of a 50 g oscillating mass is given by , where is in s. If necessary, round your answers to three significant figures. Determine: Part A The amplitude. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct g cm s 3.00 Nm x(t) = (2.0 cm)cos(10t − /4) t 2.00 cm Part B The period. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part C The spring constant. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part D The phase constant. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct 0.628 s 5.00 Nm -0.785 rad Part E The initial coordinate of the mass. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part F The initial velocity. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part G The maximum speed. Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct 1.41 cm 14.1 cms 20.0 cms Part H The total energy. Express your answer to one decimal place and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part I The velocity at . Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Enhanced EOC: Problem 14.17 A spring with spring constant 16 hangs from the ceiling. A ball is attached to the spring and allowed to come to rest. It is then pulled down 4.0 and released. The ball makes 35 oscillations in 18 seconds. You may want to review ( pages 389 – 391) . For help with math skills, you may want to review: Differentiation of Trigonometric Functions Part A What is its the mass of the ball? 1.0 mJ t = 0.40 s 1.46 cms N/m cm s Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is the period of oscillation? What is the angular frequency of the oscillations? How is the angular frequency related to the mass and spring constant? What is the mass? ANSWER: Correct Part B What is its maximum speed? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Hint 1. How to approach the problem What is the amplitude of the oscillations? How is the maximum speed related to the amplitude of the oscillations and the angular frequency? ANSWER: Correct Changing the Period of a Pendulum m = 110 g vmax = 49 cms A simple pendulum consisting of a bob of mass attached to a string of length swings with a period . Part A If the bob’s mass is doubled, approximately what will the pendulum’s new period be? Hint 1. Period of a simple pendulum The period of a simple pendulum of length is given by , where is the acceleration due to gravity. ANSWER: Correct Part B If the pendulum is brought on the moon where the gravitational acceleration is about , approximately what will its period now be? Hint 1. How to approach the problem Recall the formula of the period of a simple pendulum. Since the gravitational acceleration appears in the denominator, the period must increase when the gravitational acceleration decreases. m L T T L T = 2 Lg −−  g T/2 T ‘2T 2T g/6 ANSWER: Correct Part C If the pendulum is taken into the orbiting space station what will happen to the bob? Hint 1. How to approach the problem Recall that the oscillations of a simple pendulum occur when a pendulum bob is raised above its equilibrium position and let go, causing the pendulum bob to fall. The gravitational force acts to bring the bob back to its equilibrium position. In the space station, the earth’s gravity acts on both the station and everything inside it, giving them the same acceleration. These objects are said to be in free fall. ANSWER: Correct In the space station, where all objects undergo the same acceleration due to the earth’s gravity, the tension in the string is zero and the bob does not fall relative to the point to which the string is attached. T/6 T/’6 ‘6T 6T It will continue to oscillate in a vertical plane with the same period. It will no longer oscillate because there is no gravity in space. It will no longer oscillate because both the pendulum and the point to which it is attached are in free fall. It will oscillate much faster with a period that approaches zero. Problem 14.20 A 175 ball is tied to a string. It is pulled to an angle of 8.0 and released to swing as a pendulum. A student with a stopwatch finds that 15 oscillations take 13 . Part A How long is the string? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.22 Part A What is the length of a pendulum whose period on the moon matches the period of a 2.1- -long pendulum on the earth? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Problem 14.42 An ultrasonic transducer, of the type used in medical ultrasound imaging, is a very thin disk ( = 0.17 ) driven back and forth in SHM at by an electromagnetic coil. g % s L = 19 cm m lmoon = 0.35 m m g 1.0 MHz Part A The maximum restoring force that can be applied to the disk without breaking it is 4.4×104 . What is the maximum oscillation amplitude that won’t rupture the disk? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Part B What is the disk’s maximum speed at this amplitude? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. ANSWER: Correct Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 94.2%. You received 135.71 out of a possible total of 144 points. N amax = 6.6 μm vmax = 41 ms

please email info@checkyourstudy.com
Project 1: Particle Trajectory in Pleated Filters Due: 12:30 pm, Dec. 1, 2015, submission through blackboard Course: Numerical Methods Instructor: Dr. Hooman V. Tafreshi Most aerosol filters are made of pleated fibrous media. This is to accommodate as much filtration media as possible in a limited space available to an air filtration unit (e.g., the engine of a car). A variety of parameters contribute to the performance of a pleated filter. These parameters include, but are not limited to, geometry of the pleat (e.g., pleat height, width, and count), microscale properties of the fibrous media (e.g., fiber diameters, fiber orientation, and solid volume fraction), aerodynamic and thermal conditions of the flow (e.g., flow velocity, temperature, and operating pressure), and particle properties (e.g., diameter, density, and shape). Figure 1: Examples of pleated air filters [1‐2]. In this project you are asked to calculate the trajectory of aerosol particles as they travel inside a rectangular pleat channel. Due to the symmetry of the pleat geometry, you only need to simulate one half of the channel (see Figure 2). Figure 2: The simulation domain and boundary conditions (the figure’s aspect ratio is altered for illustration purposes). Trajectory of the aerosol particles can be calculated in a 2‐D domain by solving the Newton’s 2nd law written for the particles in the x‐ and y‐directions, v(h) inlet velocity fibrous media v(y) y tm l h x Ui u(l) u(x) 2 2 p 1 p 1 ( , ) d x dx u x y dt  dt    2 2 p 1 p 1 ( , ) d y dy v x y dt  dt    where 2 1/18 p p   d    is the particle relaxation time, 10 μm p d  is the particle diameter, 1000 kg/m3 p   is the particle density, and   1.85105 Pa.s is the air viscosity. Also, u(x, y) and v(x, y) represent the components of the air velocity in the x and y directions inside the pleat channel, respectively. The x and y positions of the particles are denoted by xp and yp, respectively. You may use the following expressions for u(x, y) and v(x, y) .     2 3 1 2 u x, y u x y h                  sin 2 v x,y v h π y h        where   i 1 u x U x l h          is the average air velocity inside the pleat channel in the x‐direction and Ui is the velocity at the pleat entrance (assume 1 m/s for this project). l = 0.0275 m and h =0.0011 m are the pleat length and height, respectively. Writing the conservation of mass for the air flowing into the channel, you can also obtain that   i v h U h l h         . These 2nd order ODEs can easily be solved using a 4th order Rung‐Kutta method. In order to obtain realistic particle trajectories, you also need to consider proper initial conditions for the velocity of the particles: x(t  0)  0 , ( 0) i p p y t   y , p ( 0) cos i i dx t U dt    , p ( 0) sin i i dy t U dt     . where i  is the angle with respect to the axial direction by which a particle enters the pleat channel (see Figure 3). The inlet angle can be obtained from the following equation: 2 75 0.78 +0.16 1.61St i i p p i y y e h h                    where   2 St 18 2 ρPdPUi μ h  is the particles Stokes number. Figure 3: An illustration of the required particle trajectory calculation inside a rectangular pleated filter. You are asked to calculate and plot the trajectories of particles released from the vertical positions of ?? ? ? 0.05?, ?? ? ? 0.25?, ?? ? ? 0.5?, ?? ? ? 0.75? , and ?? ? ? 0.95? in one single figure. To do so, you need to track the trajectories until they reach one of the channel walls (i.e., stop when xp  l or p y  h ). Use a time step of 0.00001 sec. For more information see Ref. [3]. For additional background information see Ref. [4] and references there. In submitting your project please stick to following guidelines: 1‐ In blackboard, submit all the Matlab files and report in one single zip file. For naming your zip file, adhere to the format as: Lastname_firstname_project1.zip For instance: Einstein_albert_project1.zip 2‐ The report should be in pdf format only with the name as Project1.pdf (NO word documents .docx or .doc will be graded). 3‐ Your zip file can contain as many Matlab files as you want to submit. Also please submit the main code which TA’s should run with the name as: Project1.m (You can name the function files as you desire). Summary of what you should submit: 1‐ Runge–Kutta 4th order implementation in MATLAB. 2‐ Plot 5 particle trajectories in one graph. 3‐ Report your output (the x‐y positions of the five particles at each time step) in the form of a table with 11 columns (one for time and two for the x and y of each particle). Make sure the units are second for time and meter for the x and y. 4‐ Write a short, but yet clean and professional report describing your work. Up to 25% of your grade will be based solely on the style and formatting of your report. Use proper heading for each section of your report. Be consistent in your font size. Use Times New Roman only. Make sure that figures have proper self‐explanatory captions and are cited in the body of the report. Make sure that your figures have legends as well as x and y labels with proper and consistent fonts. Don’t forget that any number presented in the report or on the figures has to have a proper unit. Equations and pages in your report should be numbered. Embed your figures in the text. Make sure they do not have unnecessary frames around them or are not plotted on a grey background (default setting of some software programs!). inlet angle Particle trajectory i p y i 0 p x  Important Note: It is possible to solve the above ODEs using built‐in solvers such as ode45 in MATLAB, and you are encouraged to consider that for validating your MATLAB program. However, the results that you submit for this project MUST be obtained from your own implementation of the 4th order Runge‐Kutta method. You will not receive full credit if your MATALB program does not work, even if your results are absolutely correct! References: 1. http://www.airexco.net/custom‐manufacturedbr12‐inch‐pleated‐filter‐c‐108_113_114/custommadebr12‐ inch‐pleated‐filter‐p‐786.html 2. http://www.ebay.com/itm/Air‐Compressor‐Air‐Filter‐Element‐CFE‐275‐Round‐Pleated‐Filter‐ /251081172328 3. A.M. Saleh and H.V. Tafreshi, A Simple Semi‐Analytical Model for Designing Pleated Air Filters under Loading, Separation and Purification Technology 137, 94 (2014) 4. A.M. Saleh, S. Fotovati, H.V. Tafreshi, and B. Pourdeyhimi, Modeling Service Life of Pleated Filters Exposed to Poly‐Dispersed Aerosols, Powder Technology 266, 79 (2014)

Project 1: Particle Trajectory in Pleated Filters Due: 12:30 pm, Dec. 1, 2015, submission through blackboard Course: Numerical Methods Instructor: Dr. Hooman V. Tafreshi Most aerosol filters are made of pleated fibrous media. This is to accommodate as much filtration media as possible in a limited space available to an air filtration unit (e.g., the engine of a car). A variety of parameters contribute to the performance of a pleated filter. These parameters include, but are not limited to, geometry of the pleat (e.g., pleat height, width, and count), microscale properties of the fibrous media (e.g., fiber diameters, fiber orientation, and solid volume fraction), aerodynamic and thermal conditions of the flow (e.g., flow velocity, temperature, and operating pressure), and particle properties (e.g., diameter, density, and shape). Figure 1: Examples of pleated air filters [1‐2]. In this project you are asked to calculate the trajectory of aerosol particles as they travel inside a rectangular pleat channel. Due to the symmetry of the pleat geometry, you only need to simulate one half of the channel (see Figure 2). Figure 2: The simulation domain and boundary conditions (the figure’s aspect ratio is altered for illustration purposes). Trajectory of the aerosol particles can be calculated in a 2‐D domain by solving the Newton’s 2nd law written for the particles in the x‐ and y‐directions, v(h) inlet velocity fibrous media v(y) y tm l h x Ui u(l) u(x) 2 2 p 1 p 1 ( , ) d x dx u x y dt  dt    2 2 p 1 p 1 ( , ) d y dy v x y dt  dt    where 2 1/18 p p   d    is the particle relaxation time, 10 μm p d  is the particle diameter, 1000 kg/m3 p   is the particle density, and   1.85105 Pa.s is the air viscosity. Also, u(x, y) and v(x, y) represent the components of the air velocity in the x and y directions inside the pleat channel, respectively. The x and y positions of the particles are denoted by xp and yp, respectively. You may use the following expressions for u(x, y) and v(x, y) .     2 3 1 2 u x, y u x y h                  sin 2 v x,y v h π y h        where   i 1 u x U x l h          is the average air velocity inside the pleat channel in the x‐direction and Ui is the velocity at the pleat entrance (assume 1 m/s for this project). l = 0.0275 m and h =0.0011 m are the pleat length and height, respectively. Writing the conservation of mass for the air flowing into the channel, you can also obtain that   i v h U h l h         . These 2nd order ODEs can easily be solved using a 4th order Rung‐Kutta method. In order to obtain realistic particle trajectories, you also need to consider proper initial conditions for the velocity of the particles: x(t  0)  0 , ( 0) i p p y t   y , p ( 0) cos i i dx t U dt    , p ( 0) sin i i dy t U dt     . where i  is the angle with respect to the axial direction by which a particle enters the pleat channel (see Figure 3). The inlet angle can be obtained from the following equation: 2 75 0.78 +0.16 1.61St i i p p i y y e h h                    where   2 St 18 2 ρPdPUi μ h  is the particles Stokes number. Figure 3: An illustration of the required particle trajectory calculation inside a rectangular pleated filter. You are asked to calculate and plot the trajectories of particles released from the vertical positions of ?? ? ? 0.05?, ?? ? ? 0.25?, ?? ? ? 0.5?, ?? ? ? 0.75? , and ?? ? ? 0.95? in one single figure. To do so, you need to track the trajectories until they reach one of the channel walls (i.e., stop when xp  l or p y  h ). Use a time step of 0.00001 sec. For more information see Ref. [3]. For additional background information see Ref. [4] and references there. In submitting your project please stick to following guidelines: 1‐ In blackboard, submit all the Matlab files and report in one single zip file. For naming your zip file, adhere to the format as: Lastname_firstname_project1.zip For instance: Einstein_albert_project1.zip 2‐ The report should be in pdf format only with the name as Project1.pdf (NO word documents .docx or .doc will be graded). 3‐ Your zip file can contain as many Matlab files as you want to submit. Also please submit the main code which TA’s should run with the name as: Project1.m (You can name the function files as you desire). Summary of what you should submit: 1‐ Runge–Kutta 4th order implementation in MATLAB. 2‐ Plot 5 particle trajectories in one graph. 3‐ Report your output (the x‐y positions of the five particles at each time step) in the form of a table with 11 columns (one for time and two for the x and y of each particle). Make sure the units are second for time and meter for the x and y. 4‐ Write a short, but yet clean and professional report describing your work. Up to 25% of your grade will be based solely on the style and formatting of your report. Use proper heading for each section of your report. Be consistent in your font size. Use Times New Roman only. Make sure that figures have proper self‐explanatory captions and are cited in the body of the report. Make sure that your figures have legends as well as x and y labels with proper and consistent fonts. Don’t forget that any number presented in the report or on the figures has to have a proper unit. Equations and pages in your report should be numbered. Embed your figures in the text. Make sure they do not have unnecessary frames around them or are not plotted on a grey background (default setting of some software programs!). inlet angle Particle trajectory i p y i 0 p x  Important Note: It is possible to solve the above ODEs using built‐in solvers such as ode45 in MATLAB, and you are encouraged to consider that for validating your MATLAB program. However, the results that you submit for this project MUST be obtained from your own implementation of the 4th order Runge‐Kutta method. You will not receive full credit if your MATALB program does not work, even if your results are absolutely correct! References: 1. http://www.airexco.net/custom‐manufacturedbr12‐inch‐pleated‐filter‐c‐108_113_114/custommadebr12‐ inch‐pleated‐filter‐p‐786.html 2. http://www.ebay.com/itm/Air‐Compressor‐Air‐Filter‐Element‐CFE‐275‐Round‐Pleated‐Filter‐ /251081172328 3. A.M. Saleh and H.V. Tafreshi, A Simple Semi‐Analytical Model for Designing Pleated Air Filters under Loading, Separation and Purification Technology 137, 94 (2014) 4. A.M. Saleh, S. Fotovati, H.V. Tafreshi, and B. Pourdeyhimi, Modeling Service Life of Pleated Filters Exposed to Poly‐Dispersed Aerosols, Powder Technology 266, 79 (2014)

No expert has answered this question yet. You can browse … Read More...
5 years hence the age of father will be one more than three times the age of son. write linear equation in two variables to represent this statement

5 years hence the age of father will be one more than three times the age of son. write linear equation in two variables to represent this statement

info@checkyourstudy.com Whatsapp +919911743277 5 years hence the age of father … Read More...
CHM114: Exam #2 CHM 114, S2015 Exam #2, Version C 16 March 2015 Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 3. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 RH=2.18·10-18 J R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 1Å=10-10 m c=3·108 m/s Ephoton=h·n=h·c/l h=6.626·10-34 Js Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole DH°rxn =  n DHf° (products) –  n DHf° (reactants) ) 1 1 ( 2 2 f i H n n DE = R − \ -2- CHM114: Exam #2 1) Which one of the following is an incorrect orbital notation? A) 2s B) 2p C) 3f D) 3d E) 4s 2) The energy of a photon that has a frequency of 8.21 1015s 1 − × is __________ J. A) 8.08 10 50 − × B) 1.99 10 25 − × C) 5.44 10 18 − × D) 1.24×1049 E) 1.26 10 19 − × 3) The ground state electron configuration of Ga is __________. A) 1s22s23s23p64s23d104p1 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104d1 E) [Ar]4s23d11 4) Of the bonds N–N, N=N, and NN, the N-N bond is __________. A) strongest/shortest B) weakest/longest C) strongest/longest D) weakest/shortest E) intermediate in both strength and length 5) Of the atoms below, __________ is the most electronegative. A) Br B) O C) Cl D) N E) F 6) Of the following, __________ cannot accommodate more than an octet of electrons. A) P B) O C) S D) Cl E) I -3- CHM 114: Exam #2 7) Which electron configuration represents a violation of Hund’s Rule? A) B) C) D) E) 8) A tin atom has 50 electrons. Electrons in the _____ subshell experience the highest effective nuclear charge. A) 1s B) 3p C) 3d D) 5s E) 5p 9) In ionic compounds, the lattice energy_____ as the magnitude of the ion charges _____ and the radii _____. A) increases, decrease, increase B) increases, increase, increase C) decreases, increase, increase D) increases, increase, decrease E) increases, decrease, decrease 10) Which of the following ionic compounds has the highest lattice energy? A) LiF B) MgO C) CsF D) CsI E) LiI -4- CHM 114: Exam #2 11) For which one of the following reactions is the value of H°rxn equal to Hf° for the product? A) 2 C (s, graphite) + 2 H2 (g)  C2H4 (g) B) N2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 NO (g) C) 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 H2O (l) D) 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 H2O (g) E) all of the above 12) Given the data in the table below, H rxn D ° for the reaction 3 2 3 PCl (g) + 3HCl(g)®3Cl (g) + PH (g) is __________ kJ. A) -570.37 B) -385.77 C) 570.37 D) 385.77 E) The f DH° of 2 Cl (g) is needed for the calculation. 13) Given the following reactions (1) 2 2 2NO® N +O H = -180 kJ (2) 2 2 2NO+O ®2NO H = -112 kJ the enthalpy of the reaction of nitrogen with oxygen to produce nitrogen dioxide 2 2 2 N + 2O ®2NO is __________ kJ. A) 68 B) -68 C) -292 D) 292 E) -146 14) Of the following transitions in the Bohr hydrogen atom, the __________ transition results in the absorption of the lowest-energy photon. A) n = 1  n = 6 B) n = 6  n = 1 C) n = 6  n = 5 D) n = 3  n = 6 E) n = 1  n = 4 -5- CHM 114: Exam #2 15) Which equation correctly represents the electron affinity of calcium? A) Ca (g)  Ca+ (g) + e- B) Ca (g)  Ca- (g) + e- C) Ca (g) + e-  Ca- (g) D) Ca- (g)  Ca (g) + e- E) Ca+ (g) + e-  Ca (g) 16) Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons? A) Ca+ B) Rb+ C) Xe D) Br− E) All of the above have eight valence electrons. 17) The specific heat of liquid bromine is 0.226 J/g · K. The molar heat capacity (in J/mol-K) of liquid bromine is __________. A) 707 B) 36.1 C) 18.1 D) 9.05 E) 0.226 18) Given the electronegativities below, which covalent single bond is least polar? Element: H C N O F Electronegativity: 2.1 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 A) C-H B) C-F C) O-H D) O-C E) F-H 19) The bond length in an HCl molecule is 1.27 Å and the measured dipole moment is 1.08 D. What is the magnitude (in units of e) of the negative charge on Cl in HCl? (1 debye = 3.34 10 30 coulomb-meters − × ; e=1.6 10 19 coulombs − × ) A) 1.6 10 19 − × B) 0.057 C) 0.18 D) 1 E) 0.22 -6- CHM 114: Exam #2 20) The F-B-F bond angle in the BF3 molecule is approximately __________. A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) 60° 21) Which isoelectronic series is correctly arranged in order of increasing radius? A) K+ < Ca2+ < Ar < Cl- B) Cl- < Ar < K+ < Ca2+ C) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl- D) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl- E) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl- < Ar 22) What is the electron configuration for the Fe2+ ion? A) [Ar]4s03d6 B) [Ar]4s23d4 C) [Ar]4s03d8 D) [Ar]4s23d8 E) [Ar]4s63d2 23) The formal charge on carbon in the Lewis structure of the NCS - ion is __________: A) -1 B) +1 C) +2 D) 0 E) +3 -7- CHM 114: Exam #2 24) Using the table of bond dissociation energies, the H for the following gas-phase reaction is __________ kJ. A) 291 B) 2017 C) -57 D) -356 E) -291 25) According to VSEPR theory, if there are six electron domains in the valence shell of an atom, they will be arranged in a(n) __________ geometry. A) octahedral B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal planar E) trigonal bipyramidal -8- CHM 114: Exam #2

CHM114: Exam #2 CHM 114, S2015 Exam #2, Version C 16 March 2015 Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 3. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 RH=2.18·10-18 J R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 1Å=10-10 m c=3·108 m/s Ephoton=h·n=h·c/l h=6.626·10-34 Js Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole DH°rxn =  n DHf° (products) –  n DHf° (reactants) ) 1 1 ( 2 2 f i H n n DE = R − \ -2- CHM114: Exam #2 1) Which one of the following is an incorrect orbital notation? A) 2s B) 2p C) 3f D) 3d E) 4s 2) The energy of a photon that has a frequency of 8.21 1015s 1 − × is __________ J. A) 8.08 10 50 − × B) 1.99 10 25 − × C) 5.44 10 18 − × D) 1.24×1049 E) 1.26 10 19 − × 3) The ground state electron configuration of Ga is __________. A) 1s22s23s23p64s23d104p1 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104d1 E) [Ar]4s23d11 4) Of the bonds N–N, N=N, and NN, the N-N bond is __________. A) strongest/shortest B) weakest/longest C) strongest/longest D) weakest/shortest E) intermediate in both strength and length 5) Of the atoms below, __________ is the most electronegative. A) Br B) O C) Cl D) N E) F 6) Of the following, __________ cannot accommodate more than an octet of electrons. A) P B) O C) S D) Cl E) I -3- CHM 114: Exam #2 7) Which electron configuration represents a violation of Hund’s Rule? A) B) C) D) E) 8) A tin atom has 50 electrons. Electrons in the _____ subshell experience the highest effective nuclear charge. A) 1s B) 3p C) 3d D) 5s E) 5p 9) In ionic compounds, the lattice energy_____ as the magnitude of the ion charges _____ and the radii _____. A) increases, decrease, increase B) increases, increase, increase C) decreases, increase, increase D) increases, increase, decrease E) increases, decrease, decrease 10) Which of the following ionic compounds has the highest lattice energy? A) LiF B) MgO C) CsF D) CsI E) LiI -4- CHM 114: Exam #2 11) For which one of the following reactions is the value of H°rxn equal to Hf° for the product? A) 2 C (s, graphite) + 2 H2 (g)  C2H4 (g) B) N2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 NO (g) C) 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 H2O (l) D) 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 H2O (g) E) all of the above 12) Given the data in the table below, H rxn D ° for the reaction 3 2 3 PCl (g) + 3HCl(g)®3Cl (g) + PH (g) is __________ kJ. A) -570.37 B) -385.77 C) 570.37 D) 385.77 E) The f DH° of 2 Cl (g) is needed for the calculation. 13) Given the following reactions (1) 2 2 2NO® N +O H = -180 kJ (2) 2 2 2NO+O ®2NO H = -112 kJ the enthalpy of the reaction of nitrogen with oxygen to produce nitrogen dioxide 2 2 2 N + 2O ®2NO is __________ kJ. A) 68 B) -68 C) -292 D) 292 E) -146 14) Of the following transitions in the Bohr hydrogen atom, the __________ transition results in the absorption of the lowest-energy photon. A) n = 1  n = 6 B) n = 6  n = 1 C) n = 6  n = 5 D) n = 3  n = 6 E) n = 1  n = 4 -5- CHM 114: Exam #2 15) Which equation correctly represents the electron affinity of calcium? A) Ca (g)  Ca+ (g) + e- B) Ca (g)  Ca- (g) + e- C) Ca (g) + e-  Ca- (g) D) Ca- (g)  Ca (g) + e- E) Ca+ (g) + e-  Ca (g) 16) Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons? A) Ca+ B) Rb+ C) Xe D) Br− E) All of the above have eight valence electrons. 17) The specific heat of liquid bromine is 0.226 J/g · K. The molar heat capacity (in J/mol-K) of liquid bromine is __________. A) 707 B) 36.1 C) 18.1 D) 9.05 E) 0.226 18) Given the electronegativities below, which covalent single bond is least polar? Element: H C N O F Electronegativity: 2.1 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 A) C-H B) C-F C) O-H D) O-C E) F-H 19) The bond length in an HCl molecule is 1.27 Å and the measured dipole moment is 1.08 D. What is the magnitude (in units of e) of the negative charge on Cl in HCl? (1 debye = 3.34 10 30 coulomb-meters − × ; e=1.6 10 19 coulombs − × ) A) 1.6 10 19 − × B) 0.057 C) 0.18 D) 1 E) 0.22 -6- CHM 114: Exam #2 20) The F-B-F bond angle in the BF3 molecule is approximately __________. A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) 60° 21) Which isoelectronic series is correctly arranged in order of increasing radius? A) K+ < Ca2+ < Ar < Cl- B) Cl- < Ar < K+ < Ca2+ C) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl- D) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl- E) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl- < Ar 22) What is the electron configuration for the Fe2+ ion? A) [Ar]4s03d6 B) [Ar]4s23d4 C) [Ar]4s03d8 D) [Ar]4s23d8 E) [Ar]4s63d2 23) The formal charge on carbon in the Lewis structure of the NCS - ion is __________: A) -1 B) +1 C) +2 D) 0 E) +3 -7- CHM 114: Exam #2 24) Using the table of bond dissociation energies, the H for the following gas-phase reaction is __________ kJ. A) 291 B) 2017 C) -57 D) -356 E) -291 25) According to VSEPR theory, if there are six electron domains in the valence shell of an atom, they will be arranged in a(n) __________ geometry. A) octahedral B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal planar E) trigonal bipyramidal -8- CHM 114: Exam #2