here is the video https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=760lwYmpXbc In his Prison Experiment, Professor Philip Zimbardo wanted to test the behavior of good people when they are put into evil places. In the short amount of time that his experiment ran, hid findings were shocking. The students who played the role of the guards became sadistic, and the students that who played the role of the prisoners became extremely stressed. McLaren explained to us that since the beginning of time, all humans have had an appetite for violence. McLaren also explains that in a world where violence is also a means of entertainment, it only adds to our appetite for violence. Think about how the information that McLaren shares and how it relates to the Stanford Prison Experiment. McLaren shares with us that name calling is the beginning stage of dehumanizing, and when one succeeds in name calling, we decide to extend our powers and become violent and uncaring. McLaren also uses many examples of the world’s history, specifically regarding religion and war. McLaren explains that the mentality of everyone that goes into war believes that their enemy deserves everything that they get. Compare McLaren’s findings with The Stanford Prison Experiment. Zimbardo concluded that his students (the good people) were defeated by the prison (the evil place). Can you think of a story or a situation where the good person overcame the evil place? Can one’s attitude and/or morality be so strong that it can allow you to overcome anything? The manner in which, the guard “John Wayne”, treated the prisoners was very controversial. Years later he admitted himself that he does regret his behavior, but could it be possible that he wasn’t acting? Is it true what prisoner 416 said? Can someone contribute to a role so much that it starts to show who you really are as a person? If we were put in the shoes of “John Wayne” would we have behaved the same? Are ethics totally thrown out the window when given that position of power?

here is the video https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=760lwYmpXbc In his Prison Experiment, Professor Philip Zimbardo wanted to test the behavior of good people when they are put into evil places. In the short amount of time that his experiment ran, hid findings were shocking. The students who played the role of the guards became sadistic, and the students that who played the role of the prisoners became extremely stressed. McLaren explained to us that since the beginning of time, all humans have had an appetite for violence. McLaren also explains that in a world where violence is also a means of entertainment, it only adds to our appetite for violence. Think about how the information that McLaren shares and how it relates to the Stanford Prison Experiment. McLaren shares with us that name calling is the beginning stage of dehumanizing, and when one succeeds in name calling, we decide to extend our powers and become violent and uncaring. McLaren also uses many examples of the world’s history, specifically regarding religion and war. McLaren explains that the mentality of everyone that goes into war believes that their enemy deserves everything that they get. Compare McLaren’s findings with The Stanford Prison Experiment. Zimbardo concluded that his students (the good people) were defeated by the prison (the evil place). Can you think of a story or a situation where the good person overcame the evil place? Can one’s attitude and/or morality be so strong that it can allow you to overcome anything? The manner in which, the guard “John Wayne”, treated the prisoners was very controversial. Years later he admitted himself that he does regret his behavior, but could it be possible that he wasn’t acting? Is it true what prisoner 416 said? Can someone contribute to a role so much that it starts to show who you really are as a person? If we were put in the shoes of “John Wayne” would we have behaved the same? Are ethics totally thrown out the window when given that position of power?

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CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 Problem List 5.1 Total mass of a shell 5.2 Tunnel through the moon 5.3 Gravitational eld above the center of a thin hoop 5.4 Gravitational force near a metal-cored planet surrounded by a gaseous cloud 5.5 Sphere with linearly increasing mass density 5.6 Jumping o Vesta 5.7 Gravitational force between two massive rods 5.8 Potential energy { Check your answer! 5.9 Ways of solving gravitational problems 5.10 Rod with linearly increasing mass density 5.11 Sphere with constant internal gravitational eld 5.12 Throwing a rock o the moon These problems are licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution-NonCommercial-ShareAlike 3.0 Un- ported License. Please share and/or modify. Back to Problem List 1 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.1 Total mass of a shell Given: Marino { Fall 2011 Consider a spherical shell that extends from r = R to r = 2R with a non-uniform density (r) = 0r. What is the total mass of the shell? Back to Problem List 2 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.2 Tunnel through the moon Given: Marino { Fall 2011 Imagine that NASA digs a straight tunnel through the center of the moon (see gure) to access the Moon’s 3He deposits. An astronaut places a rock in the tunnel at the surface of the moon, and releases it (from rest). Show that the rock obeys the force law for a mass connected to a spring. What is the spring constant? Find the oscillation period for this motion if you assume that Moon has a mass of 7.351022 kg and a radius of 1.74106 m. Assume the moon’s density is uniform throughout its volume, and ignore the moon’s rotation. Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 Imagine (in a parallel universe of unlimited budgets) that NASA digs a straight tunnel through the center of the moon (see gure). A robot place a rock in the tunnel at position r = r0 from the center of the moon, and releases it (from rest). Use Newton’s second law to write the equation of motion of the rock and solve for r(t). Explain in words the rock’s motion. Does the rock return to its initial position at any later time? If so, how long does it takes to return to it? (Give a formula, and a number.) Assume the moon’s density is uniform throughout its volume, and ignore the moon’s rotation. Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 Now lets consider our (real) planet Earth, with total mass M and radius R which we will approximate as a uniform mass density, (r) = 0. (a) Neglecting rotational and frictional e ects, show that a particle dropped into a hole drilled straight through the center of the earth all the way to the far side will oscillate between the two endpoints. (Hint: you will need to set up, and solve, an ODE for the motion) (b) Find the period of the oscillation of this motion. Get a number (in minutes) as a nal result, using data for the earth’s size and mass. (How does that compare to ying to Perth and back?!) Extra Credit: OK, even with unlimited budgets, digging a tunnel through the center of the earth is preposterous. But, suppose instead that the tunnel is a straight-line \chord” through the earth, say directly from New York to Los Angeles. Show that your nal answer for the time taken does not depend on the location of that chord! This is rather remarkable – look again at the time for a free-fall trip (no energy required, except perhaps to compensate for friction) How long would that trip take? Could this work?! Back to Problem List 3 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.3 Gravitational eld above the center of a thin hoop Given: Pollock { Spring 2011, Spring 2012 Consider a very (in nitesimally!) thin but massive loop, radius R (total mass M), centered around the origin, sitting in the x-y plane. Assume it has a uniform linear mass density  (which has units of kg/m) all around it. (So, it’s like a skinny donut that is mostly hole, centered around the z-axis) (a) What is  in terms of M and R? What is the direction of the gravitational eld generated by this mass distribution at a point in space a distance z above the center of the donut, i.e. at (0; 0; z) Explain your reasoning for the direction carefully, try not to simply \wave your hands.” (The answer is extremely intuitive, but can you justify that it is correct?) (b) Compute the gravitational eld, ~g, at the point (0; 0; z) by directly integrating Newton’s law of gravity, summing over all in nitesimal \chunks” of mass along the loop. (c) Compute the gravitational potential at the point (0; 0; z) by directly integrating ?Gdm=r, sum- ming over all in nitesimal \chunks” dm along the loop. Then, take the z-component of the gradient of this potential to check that you agree with your result from the previous part. (d) In the two separate limits z << R and z >> R, Taylor expand your g- eld (in the z-direction)out only to the rst non-zero term, and convince us that both limits make good physical sense. (e) Can you use Gauss’ law to gure out the gravitational potential at the point (0; 0; z)? (If so, do it and check your previous answers. If not, why not?) Extra credit: If you place a small mass a small distance z away from the center, use your Taylor limit for z << R above to write a simple ODE for the equation of motion. Solve it, and discuss the motion Back to Problem List 4 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.4 Gravitational force near a metal-cored planet surrounded by a gaseous cloud Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 Jupiter is composed of a dense spherical core (of liquid metallic hydrogen!) of radius Rc. It is sur- rounded by a spherical cloud of gaseous hydrogen of radius Rg, where Rg > Rc. Let’s assume that the core is of uniform density c and the gaseous cloud is also of uniform density g. What is the gravitational force on an object of mass m that is located at a radius r from the center of Jupiter? Note that you must consider the cases where the object is inside the core, within the gas layer, and outside of the planet. Back to Problem List 5 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.5 Sphere with linearly increasing mass density Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 A planet of mass M and radius R has a nonuniform density that varies with r, the distance from the center according to  = Ar for 0  r  R. (a) What is the constant A in terms of M and R? Does this density pro le strike you as physically plausible, or is just designed as a mathematical exercise? (Brie y, explain) (b) Determine the gravitational force on a satellite of mass m orbiting this planet. In words, please outline the method you plan to use for your solution. (Use the easiest method you can come up with!) In your calculation, you will need to argue that the magnitude of ~g(r; ; ) depends only on r. Be very explicit about this – how do you know that it doesn’t, in fact, depend on  or ? (c) Determine the gravitational force felt by a rock of mass m inside the planet, located at radius r < R. (If the method you use is di erent than in part b, explain why you switched. If not, just proceed!) Explicitly check your result for this part by considering the limits r ! 0 and r ! R. Back to Problem List 6 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.6 Jumping o Vesta Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 You are stranded on the surface of the asteroid Vesta. If the mass of the asteroid is M and its radius is R, how fast would you have to jump o its surface to be able to escape from its gravitational eld? (Your estimate should be based on parameters that characterize the asteroid, not parameters that describe your jumping ability.) Given your formula, look up the approximate mass and radius of the asteroid Vesta 3 and determine a numerical value of the escape velocity. Could you escape in this way? (Brie y, explain) If so, roughly how big in radius is the maximum the asteroid could be, for you to still escape this way? If not, estimate how much smaller an asteroid you would need, to escape from it in this way? Figure 1: Back to Problem List 7 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.7 Gravitational force between two massive rods Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 Consider two identical uniform rods of length L and mass m lying along the same line and having their closest points separated by a distance d as shown in the gure (a) Calculate the mutual force between these rods, both its direction and magnitude. (b) Now do several checks. First, make sure the units worked out (!) The, nd the magnitude of the force in the limit L ! 0. What do you expect? Brie y, discuss. Lastly, nd the magnitude of the force in the limit d ! 1 ? Again, is it what you expect? Brie y, discuss. Figure 2: Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 Determining the gravitational force between two rods: (a) Consider a thin, uniform rod of mass m and length L (and negligible other dimensions) lying on the x axis (from x=-L to 0), as shown in g 1a. Derive a formula for the gravitational eld \g" at any arbitrary point x to the right of the origin (but still on the x-axis!) due to this rod. (b) Now suppose a second rod of length L and mass m sits on the x axis as shown in g 1b, with the left edge a distance \d" away. Calculate the mutual gravitational force between these rods. (c) Let's do some checks! Show that the units work out in parts a and b. Find the magnitude of the force in part a, in the limit x >> L: What do you expect? Brie y, discuss! Finally, verify that your answer to part b gives what you expect in the limit d >> L. ( Hint: This is a bit harder! You need to consistently expand everything to second order, not just rst, because of some interesting cancellations) Fig 1a Fig 1b L m +x x=0 L x=0 x=d m Fig 1a Fig 1b L m +x x=0 L +x x=0 x=d L m m Back to Problem List 8 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.8 Potential energy { Check your answer! Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 On the last exam, we had a problem with a at ring, uniform mass per unit area of , inner radius of R, outer radius of 2R. A satellite (mass m) sat a distance z above the center of the ring. We asked for the gravitational potential energy, and the answer was U(z) = ?2Gm( p 4R2 + z2 ? p R2 + z2) (1) (a) If you are far from the disk (on the z axis), what do you expect for the formula for U(z)? (Don’t say \0″ – as usual, we want the functional form of U(z) as you move far away. Also, explicitly state what we mean by \far away”. (Please don’t compare something with units to something without units!) (b) Show explicitly that the formula above does indeed give precisely the functional dependence you expect. Back to Problem List 9 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.9 Ways of solving gravitational problems Given: Pollock { Spring 2011, Spring 2012 Infinite cylinder ρ=cr x z (a) Half-infinite line mass, uniform linear mass density, λ x (b) R z  P Figure 3: (a) An in nite cylinder of radius R centered on the z-axis, with non-uniform volume mass density  = cr, where r is the radius in cylindrical coordinates. (b) A half-in nite line of mass on the x-axis extending from x = 0 to x = +1, with uniform linear mass density . There are two general methods we use to solve gravitational problems (i.e. nd ~g given some distribution of mass). (a) Describe these two methods. We claim one of these methods is easiest to solve for ~g of mass distribution (a) above, and the other method is easiest to solve for ~g of the mass distribution (b) above. Which method goes with which mass distribution? Please justify your answer. (b) Find ~g of the mass distribution (a) above for any arbitrary point outside the cylinder. (c) Find the x component of the gravitational acceleration, gx, generated by the mass distribution labeled (b) above, at a point P a given distance z up the positive z-axis (as shown). Back to Problem List 10 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.10 Rod with linearly increasing mass density Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 Consider a very (in nitesimally!) thin but massive rod, length L (total mass M), centered around the origin, sitting along the x-axis. (So the left end is at (-L/2, 0,0) and the right end is at (+L/2,0,0) Assume the mass density  (which has units of kg/m)is not uniform, but instead varies linearly with distance from the origin, (x) = cjxj. (a) What is that constant \c” in terms of M and L? What is the direction of the gravitational eld generated by this mass distribution at a point in space a distance z above the center of the rod, i.e. at (0; 0; z) Explain your reasoning for the direction carefully, try not to simply \wave your hands.” (The answer is extremely intuitive, but can you justify that it is correct?) (b) Compute the gravitational eld, ~g, at the point (0; 0; z) by directly integrating Newton’s law of gravity, summing over all in nitesimal \chunks” of mass along the rod. (c) Compute the gravitational potential at the point (0; 0; z) by directly integrating ?Gdm=r, sum- ming over all in nitesimal \chunks” dm along the rod. Then, take the z-component of the gradient of this potential to check that you agree with your result from the previous part. (d) In the limit of large z what do you expect for the functional form for gravitational potential? (Hint: Don’t just say it goes to zero! It’s a rod of mass M, when you’re far away what does it look like? How does it go to zero?) What does \large z” mean here? Use the binomial (or Taylor) expansion to verify that your formula does indeed give exactly what you expect. (Hint: you cannot Taylor expand in something BIG, you have to Taylor expand in something small.) (e) Can you use Gauss’ law to gure out the gravitational potential at the point (0; 0; z)? (If so, do it and check your previous answers. If not, why not?) Back to Problem List 11 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.11 Sphere with constant internal gravitational eld Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 (a) Imagine a planet of total mass M and radius R which has a nonuniform mass density that varies just with r, the distance from the center. For this (admittedly very unusual!) planet, suppose the gravitational eld strength inside the planet turns out to be independent of the radial distance within the sphere. Find the function describing the mass density  = (r) of this planet. (Your nal answer should be written in terms of the given constants.) (b) Now, determine the gravitational force on a satellite of mass m orbiting this planet at distance r > R. (Use the easiest method you can come up with!) Explain your work in words as well as formulas. For instance, in your calculation, you will need to argue that the magnitude of ~g(r; ; ) depends only on r. Be explicit about this – how do you know that it doesn’t, in fact, depend on  or ? (c) As a nal check, explicitly show that your solutions inside and outside the planet (parts a and b) are consistent when r = R. Please also comment on whether this density pro le strikes you as physically plausible, or is it just designed as a mathematical exercise? Defend your reasoning. Back to Problem List 12 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.12 Throwing a rock o the moon Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 Assuming that asteroids have roughly the same mass density as the moon, make an estimate of the largest asteroid that an astronaut could be standing on, and still have a chance of throwing a small object (with their arms, no machinery!) so that it completely escapes the asteroid’s gravitational eld. (This minimum speed is called \escape velocity”) Is the size you computed typical for asteroids in our solar system? Back to Problem List 13

5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 Problem List 5.1 Total mass of a shell 5.2 Tunnel through the moon 5.3 Gravitational eld above the center of a thin hoop 5.4 Gravitational force near a metal-cored planet surrounded by a gaseous cloud 5.5 Sphere with linearly increasing mass density 5.6 Jumping o Vesta 5.7 Gravitational force between two massive rods 5.8 Potential energy { Check your answer! 5.9 Ways of solving gravitational problems 5.10 Rod with linearly increasing mass density 5.11 Sphere with constant internal gravitational eld 5.12 Throwing a rock o the moon These problems are licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution-NonCommercial-ShareAlike 3.0 Un- ported License. Please share and/or modify. Back to Problem List 1 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.1 Total mass of a shell Given: Marino { Fall 2011 Consider a spherical shell that extends from r = R to r = 2R with a non-uniform density (r) = 0r. What is the total mass of the shell? Back to Problem List 2 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.2 Tunnel through the moon Given: Marino { Fall 2011 Imagine that NASA digs a straight tunnel through the center of the moon (see gure) to access the Moon’s 3He deposits. An astronaut places a rock in the tunnel at the surface of the moon, and releases it (from rest). Show that the rock obeys the force law for a mass connected to a spring. What is the spring constant? Find the oscillation period for this motion if you assume that Moon has a mass of 7.351022 kg and a radius of 1.74106 m. Assume the moon’s density is uniform throughout its volume, and ignore the moon’s rotation. Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 Imagine (in a parallel universe of unlimited budgets) that NASA digs a straight tunnel through the center of the moon (see gure). A robot place a rock in the tunnel at position r = r0 from the center of the moon, and releases it (from rest). Use Newton’s second law to write the equation of motion of the rock and solve for r(t). Explain in words the rock’s motion. Does the rock return to its initial position at any later time? If so, how long does it takes to return to it? (Give a formula, and a number.) Assume the moon’s density is uniform throughout its volume, and ignore the moon’s rotation. Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 Now lets consider our (real) planet Earth, with total mass M and radius R which we will approximate as a uniform mass density, (r) = 0. (a) Neglecting rotational and frictional e ects, show that a particle dropped into a hole drilled straight through the center of the earth all the way to the far side will oscillate between the two endpoints. (Hint: you will need to set up, and solve, an ODE for the motion) (b) Find the period of the oscillation of this motion. Get a number (in minutes) as a nal result, using data for the earth’s size and mass. (How does that compare to ying to Perth and back?!) Extra Credit: OK, even with unlimited budgets, digging a tunnel through the center of the earth is preposterous. But, suppose instead that the tunnel is a straight-line \chord” through the earth, say directly from New York to Los Angeles. Show that your nal answer for the time taken does not depend on the location of that chord! This is rather remarkable – look again at the time for a free-fall trip (no energy required, except perhaps to compensate for friction) How long would that trip take? Could this work?! Back to Problem List 3 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.3 Gravitational eld above the center of a thin hoop Given: Pollock { Spring 2011, Spring 2012 Consider a very (in nitesimally!) thin but massive loop, radius R (total mass M), centered around the origin, sitting in the x-y plane. Assume it has a uniform linear mass density  (which has units of kg/m) all around it. (So, it’s like a skinny donut that is mostly hole, centered around the z-axis) (a) What is  in terms of M and R? What is the direction of the gravitational eld generated by this mass distribution at a point in space a distance z above the center of the donut, i.e. at (0; 0; z) Explain your reasoning for the direction carefully, try not to simply \wave your hands.” (The answer is extremely intuitive, but can you justify that it is correct?) (b) Compute the gravitational eld, ~g, at the point (0; 0; z) by directly integrating Newton’s law of gravity, summing over all in nitesimal \chunks” of mass along the loop. (c) Compute the gravitational potential at the point (0; 0; z) by directly integrating ?Gdm=r, sum- ming over all in nitesimal \chunks” dm along the loop. Then, take the z-component of the gradient of this potential to check that you agree with your result from the previous part. (d) In the two separate limits z << R and z >> R, Taylor expand your g- eld (in the z-direction)out only to the rst non-zero term, and convince us that both limits make good physical sense. (e) Can you use Gauss’ law to gure out the gravitational potential at the point (0; 0; z)? (If so, do it and check your previous answers. If not, why not?) Extra credit: If you place a small mass a small distance z away from the center, use your Taylor limit for z << R above to write a simple ODE for the equation of motion. Solve it, and discuss the motion Back to Problem List 4 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.4 Gravitational force near a metal-cored planet surrounded by a gaseous cloud Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 Jupiter is composed of a dense spherical core (of liquid metallic hydrogen!) of radius Rc. It is sur- rounded by a spherical cloud of gaseous hydrogen of radius Rg, where Rg > Rc. Let’s assume that the core is of uniform density c and the gaseous cloud is also of uniform density g. What is the gravitational force on an object of mass m that is located at a radius r from the center of Jupiter? Note that you must consider the cases where the object is inside the core, within the gas layer, and outside of the planet. Back to Problem List 5 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.5 Sphere with linearly increasing mass density Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 A planet of mass M and radius R has a nonuniform density that varies with r, the distance from the center according to  = Ar for 0  r  R. (a) What is the constant A in terms of M and R? Does this density pro le strike you as physically plausible, or is just designed as a mathematical exercise? (Brie y, explain) (b) Determine the gravitational force on a satellite of mass m orbiting this planet. In words, please outline the method you plan to use for your solution. (Use the easiest method you can come up with!) In your calculation, you will need to argue that the magnitude of ~g(r; ; ) depends only on r. Be very explicit about this – how do you know that it doesn’t, in fact, depend on  or ? (c) Determine the gravitational force felt by a rock of mass m inside the planet, located at radius r < R. (If the method you use is di erent than in part b, explain why you switched. If not, just proceed!) Explicitly check your result for this part by considering the limits r ! 0 and r ! R. Back to Problem List 6 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.6 Jumping o Vesta Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 You are stranded on the surface of the asteroid Vesta. If the mass of the asteroid is M and its radius is R, how fast would you have to jump o its surface to be able to escape from its gravitational eld? (Your estimate should be based on parameters that characterize the asteroid, not parameters that describe your jumping ability.) Given your formula, look up the approximate mass and radius of the asteroid Vesta 3 and determine a numerical value of the escape velocity. Could you escape in this way? (Brie y, explain) If so, roughly how big in radius is the maximum the asteroid could be, for you to still escape this way? If not, estimate how much smaller an asteroid you would need, to escape from it in this way? Figure 1: Back to Problem List 7 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.7 Gravitational force between two massive rods Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 Consider two identical uniform rods of length L and mass m lying along the same line and having their closest points separated by a distance d as shown in the gure (a) Calculate the mutual force between these rods, both its direction and magnitude. (b) Now do several checks. First, make sure the units worked out (!) The, nd the magnitude of the force in the limit L ! 0. What do you expect? Brie y, discuss. Lastly, nd the magnitude of the force in the limit d ! 1 ? Again, is it what you expect? Brie y, discuss. Figure 2: Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 Determining the gravitational force between two rods: (a) Consider a thin, uniform rod of mass m and length L (and negligible other dimensions) lying on the x axis (from x=-L to 0), as shown in g 1a. Derive a formula for the gravitational eld \g" at any arbitrary point x to the right of the origin (but still on the x-axis!) due to this rod. (b) Now suppose a second rod of length L and mass m sits on the x axis as shown in g 1b, with the left edge a distance \d" away. Calculate the mutual gravitational force between these rods. (c) Let's do some checks! Show that the units work out in parts a and b. Find the magnitude of the force in part a, in the limit x >> L: What do you expect? Brie y, discuss! Finally, verify that your answer to part b gives what you expect in the limit d >> L. ( Hint: This is a bit harder! You need to consistently expand everything to second order, not just rst, because of some interesting cancellations) Fig 1a Fig 1b L m +x x=0 L x=0 x=d m Fig 1a Fig 1b L m +x x=0 L +x x=0 x=d L m m Back to Problem List 8 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.8 Potential energy { Check your answer! Given: Pollock { Spring 2011 On the last exam, we had a problem with a at ring, uniform mass per unit area of , inner radius of R, outer radius of 2R. A satellite (mass m) sat a distance z above the center of the ring. We asked for the gravitational potential energy, and the answer was U(z) = ?2Gm( p 4R2 + z2 ? p R2 + z2) (1) (a) If you are far from the disk (on the z axis), what do you expect for the formula for U(z)? (Don’t say \0″ – as usual, we want the functional form of U(z) as you move far away. Also, explicitly state what we mean by \far away”. (Please don’t compare something with units to something without units!) (b) Show explicitly that the formula above does indeed give precisely the functional dependence you expect. Back to Problem List 9 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.9 Ways of solving gravitational problems Given: Pollock { Spring 2011, Spring 2012 Infinite cylinder ρ=cr x z (a) Half-infinite line mass, uniform linear mass density, λ x (b) R z  P Figure 3: (a) An in nite cylinder of radius R centered on the z-axis, with non-uniform volume mass density  = cr, where r is the radius in cylindrical coordinates. (b) A half-in nite line of mass on the x-axis extending from x = 0 to x = +1, with uniform linear mass density . There are two general methods we use to solve gravitational problems (i.e. nd ~g given some distribution of mass). (a) Describe these two methods. We claim one of these methods is easiest to solve for ~g of mass distribution (a) above, and the other method is easiest to solve for ~g of the mass distribution (b) above. Which method goes with which mass distribution? Please justify your answer. (b) Find ~g of the mass distribution (a) above for any arbitrary point outside the cylinder. (c) Find the x component of the gravitational acceleration, gx, generated by the mass distribution labeled (b) above, at a point P a given distance z up the positive z-axis (as shown). Back to Problem List 10 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.10 Rod with linearly increasing mass density Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 Consider a very (in nitesimally!) thin but massive rod, length L (total mass M), centered around the origin, sitting along the x-axis. (So the left end is at (-L/2, 0,0) and the right end is at (+L/2,0,0) Assume the mass density  (which has units of kg/m)is not uniform, but instead varies linearly with distance from the origin, (x) = cjxj. (a) What is that constant \c” in terms of M and L? What is the direction of the gravitational eld generated by this mass distribution at a point in space a distance z above the center of the rod, i.e. at (0; 0; z) Explain your reasoning for the direction carefully, try not to simply \wave your hands.” (The answer is extremely intuitive, but can you justify that it is correct?) (b) Compute the gravitational eld, ~g, at the point (0; 0; z) by directly integrating Newton’s law of gravity, summing over all in nitesimal \chunks” of mass along the rod. (c) Compute the gravitational potential at the point (0; 0; z) by directly integrating ?Gdm=r, sum- ming over all in nitesimal \chunks” dm along the rod. Then, take the z-component of the gradient of this potential to check that you agree with your result from the previous part. (d) In the limit of large z what do you expect for the functional form for gravitational potential? (Hint: Don’t just say it goes to zero! It’s a rod of mass M, when you’re far away what does it look like? How does it go to zero?) What does \large z” mean here? Use the binomial (or Taylor) expansion to verify that your formula does indeed give exactly what you expect. (Hint: you cannot Taylor expand in something BIG, you have to Taylor expand in something small.) (e) Can you use Gauss’ law to gure out the gravitational potential at the point (0; 0; z)? (If so, do it and check your previous answers. If not, why not?) Back to Problem List 11 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.11 Sphere with constant internal gravitational eld Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 (a) Imagine a planet of total mass M and radius R which has a nonuniform mass density that varies just with r, the distance from the center. For this (admittedly very unusual!) planet, suppose the gravitational eld strength inside the planet turns out to be independent of the radial distance within the sphere. Find the function describing the mass density  = (r) of this planet. (Your nal answer should be written in terms of the given constants.) (b) Now, determine the gravitational force on a satellite of mass m orbiting this planet at distance r > R. (Use the easiest method you can come up with!) Explain your work in words as well as formulas. For instance, in your calculation, you will need to argue that the magnitude of ~g(r; ; ) depends only on r. Be explicit about this – how do you know that it doesn’t, in fact, depend on  or ? (c) As a nal check, explicitly show that your solutions inside and outside the planet (parts a and b) are consistent when r = R. Please also comment on whether this density pro le strikes you as physically plausible, or is it just designed as a mathematical exercise? Defend your reasoning. Back to Problem List 12 5 { GRAVITATION Last Updated: July 16, 2012 5.12 Throwing a rock o the moon Given: Pollock { Spring 2012 Assuming that asteroids have roughly the same mass density as the moon, make an estimate of the largest asteroid that an astronaut could be standing on, and still have a chance of throwing a small object (with their arms, no machinery!) so that it completely escapes the asteroid’s gravitational eld. (This minimum speed is called \escape velocity”) Is the size you computed typical for asteroids in our solar system? Back to Problem List 13

From a biological standpoint, a legal abortion performed in an accredited facility, by a skilled practitioner, and done before the16th week of pregnancy is Question 3 options: extremely risky safer than continuing the pregnancy and delivering the child used by many women as a primary method of contraception none of these choices is correct

From a biological standpoint, a legal abortion performed in an accredited facility, by a skilled practitioner, and done before the16th week of pregnancy is Question 3 options: extremely risky safer than continuing the pregnancy and delivering the child used by many women as a primary method of contraception none of these choices is correct

From a biological standpoint, a legal abortion performed in an … Read More...
What is the prime purpose of selecting a composite material over material from the other family groups? MODULE 3 – STRUCTURE OF SOLID MATERIALS The ability of a material to exist in different space lattices is called a. Allotropic b. Crystalline c. Solvent d. Amorphous Amorphous metals develop their microstructure as a result of ___________. a. Dendrites b. Directional solidification c. Slip d. Extremely rapid cooling In an alloy, the material that dissolves the alloying element is the ___________. a. Solute b. Solvent c. Matrix d. Allotrope What is the coordination number (CN) for the fcc structure formed by ions of sodium and chlorine that is in the chemical compound NaCl (salt) ? a. 6 b. 8 c. 14 d. 16 What pressure is normally used in constructing a phase diagram? a. 100 psi b. Depends on material c. Ambient d. Normal atmospheric pressure What line on a binary diagram indicates the upper limit of the solid solution phase? a. Liquidus b. Eutectic c. Eutectoid d. Solidus What holds the atoms (ions) together in a compound such as NaCl are electrostatic forces between ___________. a. Atom and ion b. Covalent bonds c. Electrons and nuclei d. Neutrons Diffusion of atoms through a solid takes place by two main mechanisms. One is diffusion through vacancies in the atomic structure. Another method of diffusion is ___________. a. Cold b. APF c. Substitutional d. Interstitial Give a brief explanation of the Lever rule (P117) Grain boundaries ___________ movement of dislocations through a solid. a. Improve b. Inhibit c. Do not affect Iron can be alloyed with carbon because it is ___________. a. Crystalline b. Amorphous c. A mixture d. Allotropic Metals can be cooled only to crystalline solids. a. T (true) b. F (false) Sketch an fcc unit cell. Metals are classified as crystalline materials. Name one metal that is an amorphous solid and name at least one recent application in which its use is saving energy or providing greater strength and/or corrosion resistance. MODULE 4 – MECHANICAL PROPERTIES Give two examples of a mechanical property. a. Thermal resistance b. Wear resistance c. Hardness d. Strength Scissors used in the home cut material by concentrating forces that ultimately produce a certain type of stress within the material. Identify this stress. a. Bearing stress b. Shearing stress c. Compressive stress An aluminum rod 1 in. in diameter (E =10.4 x 106psi) experiences an elastic tensile strain of 0.0048 in./in. Calculate the stress in the rod. a. 49,920 ksi b. 49,920 psi c. 49,920 msi A 1-in.-diameter steel circular rod is subject to a tensile load that reduces its cross-sectional area to 0.64 in2. Express the rod’s ductility using a standard unit of measure. a. 18.5% b. 1.85% c. 18.5 d. (a) and (c) What term is used to describe the low-temperature creep of polymerics? a. Springback b. Creep rupture c. Cold flow d. Creep forming MODULE 7 – TESTING, FAILURE ANALYSIS, STANDARDS, & INSPECTION Factors of safety are defined either in terms of the ultimate strength of a material or its yield strength. In other words, by the use of a suitable factor, the ultimate or yield strength is reduced in size to what is known as the design stress or safe working stress. Which factor of safety would be more appropriate for a material that will be subjected to repetitious, suddenly applied loads? Product liability court cases have risen sharply in recent years because of poor procedures in selecting materials for particular applications. Assuming that a knowledge of a material’s properties is a valid step in the selection process, cite two examples where such lack of knowledge could or did lead to failure or unsatisfactory performance. Make a sketch and fully dimension an Izod impact test specimen. Which agency publishes the Annual Book of standard test methods used worldwide for evaluation of materials? a. NASA b. NIST c. ASTM d. SPE

What is the prime purpose of selecting a composite material over material from the other family groups? MODULE 3 – STRUCTURE OF SOLID MATERIALS The ability of a material to exist in different space lattices is called a. Allotropic b. Crystalline c. Solvent d. Amorphous Amorphous metals develop their microstructure as a result of ___________. a. Dendrites b. Directional solidification c. Slip d. Extremely rapid cooling In an alloy, the material that dissolves the alloying element is the ___________. a. Solute b. Solvent c. Matrix d. Allotrope What is the coordination number (CN) for the fcc structure formed by ions of sodium and chlorine that is in the chemical compound NaCl (salt) ? a. 6 b. 8 c. 14 d. 16 What pressure is normally used in constructing a phase diagram? a. 100 psi b. Depends on material c. Ambient d. Normal atmospheric pressure What line on a binary diagram indicates the upper limit of the solid solution phase? a. Liquidus b. Eutectic c. Eutectoid d. Solidus What holds the atoms (ions) together in a compound such as NaCl are electrostatic forces between ___________. a. Atom and ion b. Covalent bonds c. Electrons and nuclei d. Neutrons Diffusion of atoms through a solid takes place by two main mechanisms. One is diffusion through vacancies in the atomic structure. Another method of diffusion is ___________. a. Cold b. APF c. Substitutional d. Interstitial Give a brief explanation of the Lever rule (P117) Grain boundaries ___________ movement of dislocations through a solid. a. Improve b. Inhibit c. Do not affect Iron can be alloyed with carbon because it is ___________. a. Crystalline b. Amorphous c. A mixture d. Allotropic Metals can be cooled only to crystalline solids. a. T (true) b. F (false) Sketch an fcc unit cell. Metals are classified as crystalline materials. Name one metal that is an amorphous solid and name at least one recent application in which its use is saving energy or providing greater strength and/or corrosion resistance. MODULE 4 – MECHANICAL PROPERTIES Give two examples of a mechanical property. a. Thermal resistance b. Wear resistance c. Hardness d. Strength Scissors used in the home cut material by concentrating forces that ultimately produce a certain type of stress within the material. Identify this stress. a. Bearing stress b. Shearing stress c. Compressive stress An aluminum rod 1 in. in diameter (E =10.4 x 106psi) experiences an elastic tensile strain of 0.0048 in./in. Calculate the stress in the rod. a. 49,920 ksi b. 49,920 psi c. 49,920 msi A 1-in.-diameter steel circular rod is subject to a tensile load that reduces its cross-sectional area to 0.64 in2. Express the rod’s ductility using a standard unit of measure. a. 18.5% b. 1.85% c. 18.5 d. (a) and (c) What term is used to describe the low-temperature creep of polymerics? a. Springback b. Creep rupture c. Cold flow d. Creep forming MODULE 7 – TESTING, FAILURE ANALYSIS, STANDARDS, & INSPECTION Factors of safety are defined either in terms of the ultimate strength of a material or its yield strength. In other words, by the use of a suitable factor, the ultimate or yield strength is reduced in size to what is known as the design stress or safe working stress. Which factor of safety would be more appropriate for a material that will be subjected to repetitious, suddenly applied loads? Product liability court cases have risen sharply in recent years because of poor procedures in selecting materials for particular applications. Assuming that a knowledge of a material’s properties is a valid step in the selection process, cite two examples where such lack of knowledge could or did lead to failure or unsatisfactory performance. Make a sketch and fully dimension an Izod impact test specimen. Which agency publishes the Annual Book of standard test methods used worldwide for evaluation of materials? a. NASA b. NIST c. ASTM d. SPE

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Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

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1. Develop a thought experiment that attempts to uncover hidden assumptions about human freedom. 2. Find a paragraph from a book, magazine, ect. First, tell whether there are claims in the paragraph. If there are, identify the types of claims (descriptive, normative, a priori, a posteriori) in the paragraph

1. Develop a thought experiment that attempts to uncover hidden assumptions about human freedom. 2. Find a paragraph from a book, magazine, ect. First, tell whether there are claims in the paragraph. If there are, identify the types of claims (descriptive, normative, a priori, a posteriori) in the paragraph

Let us think of a thought experiment that wants to … Read More...
Critical Thinking: How much stress is too much? The level of stress a person can experience before it does harm to the human body remains an important question. In a study of medical students, many working between 70-80 hours per week, nearly half suffered from extremely high levels of stress. In general, the more hours worked, the greater the level of stress experienced by the student. Higher levels of stress often corresponded with unhealthy coping strategies, including drug and alcohol abuse (Kasi et al., 2007) In addition, the study found that the students’ stress level also put their patients at risk. Stressed residents were more likely to make errors and to compromise patient care (Pitt et al., 2004).

Critical Thinking: How much stress is too much? The level of stress a person can experience before it does harm to the human body remains an important question. In a study of medical students, many working between 70-80 hours per week, nearly half suffered from extremely high levels of stress. In general, the more hours worked, the greater the level of stress experienced by the student. Higher levels of stress often corresponded with unhealthy coping strategies, including drug and alcohol abuse (Kasi et al., 2007) In addition, the study found that the students’ stress level also put their patients at risk. Stressed residents were more likely to make errors and to compromise patient care (Pitt et al., 2004).

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Question 1 In order to properly manage expenses, the company investigates the amount of money spent by its sales office. The below numbers are related to six randomly selected receipts provided by the staff. $147 $124 $93 $158 $164 $171 a) Calculate ̅ , s2 and s for the expense data. b) Assume that the distribution of expenses is approximately normally distributed. Calculate estimates of tolerance intervals containing 68.26 percent, 95.44 percent, and 99.73 percent of all expenses by the sales office. c) If a member of the sales office submits a receipt with the amount of $190, should this expense be considered unusually high? Explain your answer. d) Compute and interpret the z-score for each of the six expenses. Question 2 A survey presents the results of a concept study for the taste of new food. Three hundred consumers between 18 and 49 years old were randomly selected. After sampling the new cuisine, each was asked to rate the quality of food. The rating was made on a scale from 1 to 5, with 5 representing “extremely agree with the quality” and with 1 representing “not at all agree with the new food.” The results obtained are given in Table 1. Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 18- to 49-year-old consumer a) Would give the phrase a rating of 4. b) Would give the phrase a rating of 3 or higher. c) Is in the 18–26 age group; the 27–35 age group; the 36–49 age group. d) Is a male who gives the phrase a rating of 5. e) Is a 36- to 49-year-old who gives the phrase a rating of 2. f) Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 18- to 49-year-old consumer is a 27- to 49-year-old who gives the phrase a rating of 3. g) Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 18- to 49-year-old consumer would 1) give the phrase a rating of 2 or 4 given that the consumer is male; 2) give the phrase a rating of 4 or 5 given that the consumer is female. Based on the results of parts 1 and 2, is the appeal of the phrase among males much different from the appeal of the phrase among females? Explain. h) Give the phrase a rating of 4 or 5, 1) given that the consumer is in the 18–26 age group; 2) given that the consumer is in the 27–35 age group; 3) given that the consumer is in the 36–49 age group. Table 1. Gender Age Group Rating Total Male Female 18-26 27-35 36-49 Extremely Appealing (5) 151 68 83 48 66 37 (4) 91 51 40 36 36 19 (3) 36 21 15 9 12 15 (2) 13 7 6 4 6 3 Not at all appealing(1) 9 3 6 4 3 2 Question 3 Based on the reports provided by the brokers, it is concluded that the annual returns on common stocks are approximately normally distributed with a mean of 17.8 percent and a standard deviation of 29.3 percent. On the other hand, the company reports that the annual returns on tax-free municipal bonds are approximately normally distributed with a mean return of 4.7 percent and a standard deviation of 10.2 percent. Find the probability that a randomly selected a) Common stock will give a positive yearly return. b) Tax-free municipal bond will give a positive yearly return. c) Common stock will give more than a 13 percent return. d) Tax-free municipal bond will give more than a 11.5 percent return. e) Common stock will give a loss of at least 7 percent. f) Tax-free municipal bond will give a loss of at least 10 percent. Question 4 Based on a sample of 176 workers, it is estimated that the mean amount of paid time lost during a three-month period was 1.4 days per employee with a standard deviation of 1.3 days. It is also estimated that the mean amount of unpaid time lost during a three-month period was 1.0 day per employee with a standard deviation of 1.8 days. We randomly select a sample of 100 workers. a) What is the probability that the average amount of paid time lost during a three-month period for the 100 blue-collar workers will exceed 1.5 days? Assume σ equals 1.3 days. b) What is the probability that the average amount of unpaid time lost during a three-month period for the 100 workers will exceed 1.5 days? Assume σ equals 1.8 days. c) A sample of 100 workers is randomly selected. Suppose the sample mean amount of unpaid time lost during a three-month period actually exceeds 1.5 days. Would it be reasonable to conclude that the mean amount of unpaid time lost has increased above the previously estimated 1.0 day? Explain. Assume σ still equals 1.8 days.

Question 1 In order to properly manage expenses, the company investigates the amount of money spent by its sales office. The below numbers are related to six randomly selected receipts provided by the staff. $147 $124 $93 $158 $164 $171 a) Calculate ̅ , s2 and s for the expense data. b) Assume that the distribution of expenses is approximately normally distributed. Calculate estimates of tolerance intervals containing 68.26 percent, 95.44 percent, and 99.73 percent of all expenses by the sales office. c) If a member of the sales office submits a receipt with the amount of $190, should this expense be considered unusually high? Explain your answer. d) Compute and interpret the z-score for each of the six expenses. Question 2 A survey presents the results of a concept study for the taste of new food. Three hundred consumers between 18 and 49 years old were randomly selected. After sampling the new cuisine, each was asked to rate the quality of food. The rating was made on a scale from 1 to 5, with 5 representing “extremely agree with the quality” and with 1 representing “not at all agree with the new food.” The results obtained are given in Table 1. Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 18- to 49-year-old consumer a) Would give the phrase a rating of 4. b) Would give the phrase a rating of 3 or higher. c) Is in the 18–26 age group; the 27–35 age group; the 36–49 age group. d) Is a male who gives the phrase a rating of 5. e) Is a 36- to 49-year-old who gives the phrase a rating of 2. f) Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 18- to 49-year-old consumer is a 27- to 49-year-old who gives the phrase a rating of 3. g) Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 18- to 49-year-old consumer would 1) give the phrase a rating of 2 or 4 given that the consumer is male; 2) give the phrase a rating of 4 or 5 given that the consumer is female. Based on the results of parts 1 and 2, is the appeal of the phrase among males much different from the appeal of the phrase among females? Explain. h) Give the phrase a rating of 4 or 5, 1) given that the consumer is in the 18–26 age group; 2) given that the consumer is in the 27–35 age group; 3) given that the consumer is in the 36–49 age group. Table 1. Gender Age Group Rating Total Male Female 18-26 27-35 36-49 Extremely Appealing (5) 151 68 83 48 66 37 (4) 91 51 40 36 36 19 (3) 36 21 15 9 12 15 (2) 13 7 6 4 6 3 Not at all appealing(1) 9 3 6 4 3 2 Question 3 Based on the reports provided by the brokers, it is concluded that the annual returns on common stocks are approximately normally distributed with a mean of 17.8 percent and a standard deviation of 29.3 percent. On the other hand, the company reports that the annual returns on tax-free municipal bonds are approximately normally distributed with a mean return of 4.7 percent and a standard deviation of 10.2 percent. Find the probability that a randomly selected a) Common stock will give a positive yearly return. b) Tax-free municipal bond will give a positive yearly return. c) Common stock will give more than a 13 percent return. d) Tax-free municipal bond will give more than a 11.5 percent return. e) Common stock will give a loss of at least 7 percent. f) Tax-free municipal bond will give a loss of at least 10 percent. Question 4 Based on a sample of 176 workers, it is estimated that the mean amount of paid time lost during a three-month period was 1.4 days per employee with a standard deviation of 1.3 days. It is also estimated that the mean amount of unpaid time lost during a three-month period was 1.0 day per employee with a standard deviation of 1.8 days. We randomly select a sample of 100 workers. a) What is the probability that the average amount of paid time lost during a three-month period for the 100 blue-collar workers will exceed 1.5 days? Assume σ equals 1.3 days. b) What is the probability that the average amount of unpaid time lost during a three-month period for the 100 workers will exceed 1.5 days? Assume σ equals 1.8 days. c) A sample of 100 workers is randomly selected. Suppose the sample mean amount of unpaid time lost during a three-month period actually exceeds 1.5 days. Would it be reasonable to conclude that the mean amount of unpaid time lost has increased above the previously estimated 1.0 day? Explain. Assume σ still equals 1.8 days.

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