Chapter 05 Homework Due: 11:59pm on Friday, May 23, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Activity: Human Population Growth Click here to complete this activity. Then answer the questions. Part A Which of these was the first of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population? ANSWER: Correct The advent of agriculture is the first of the events listed here that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population. Part B Which of these was the second of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population? ANSWER: Correct The Industrial Revolution was the second of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population. Part C Which of these was the third of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population? ANSWER: Correct The advent of modern medicine is the third and most recent of the events listed here that have stimulated an increase in the population size of humans. the Industrial Revolution the advent of agriculture the discovery of antibiotics the bubonic plague the discovery of vaccines the discovery of vaccines the discovery of antibiotics the advent of agriculture the Industrial Revolution the bubonic plague the discovery of vaccines the advent of agriculture the discovery of antibiotics the discovery of vaccines and the discovery of antibiotics the Industrial Revolution Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 1 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Part D Currently, how large is the worldwide population of humans relative to Earth’s carrying capacity for humans? ANSWER: Correct Not knowing how technological innovations will affect the human population means there is insufficient information to answer this question. Activity: Analyzing Age-Structure Pyramids Click here to complete this activity. Then answer the questions. Part A Ignoring migration, the age structure of a human population likely to increase in size will have what shape? ANSWER: Correct This would mean that most individuals are in the prereproductive years. Such a population is expected to increase. Part B Ignoring migration, the age structure of a human population likely to decrease in size will have what shape? ANSWER: Correct In such a population the majority of individuals are in their postreproductive years. Such a population is expected to decrease. Part C Ignoring migration, the age structure diagram of a human population likely to maintain a relatively stable size will have what shape? There is insufficient information to answer this question. either at or above the carrying capacity below the carrying capacity above the carrying capacity at the carrying capacity Both an inverted pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that increases in size. pyramid Both a pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that increases in size. a rectangle tapering toward the top inverted pyramid pyramid Both an inverted pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that decreases in size. Both a pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that decreases in size. a rectangle tapering toward the top inverted pyramid Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 2 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM ANSWER: Correct Such a population is expected to have a relatively stable size. GraphIt!: Age Pyramids and Population Growth Click here to complete the graphing activity. Then answer the questions. Part A – Question 1 The population of Greece is expected to _______. Hint 1. Review Step 2 of this activity. What shape does this population have? ANSWER: Correct Part B – Question 2 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more children than reproductive-age individuals. Hint 1. What age group will today’s newborns occupy in 2030? ANSWER: Correct Part C – Question 3 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more children than elderly members of the population. Hint 1. Both an inverted pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that remains stable in size. pyramid Both a pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that remains stable in size. inverted pyramid a rectangle tapering toward the top expand remain stable decline True False Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 3 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM What age groups will today’s reproductive-age individuals occupy in 2030? ANSWER: Correct Part D – Question 4 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more reproductive-age individuals than children. ANSWER: Correct Part E – Question 5 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more elderly than reproductive-age individuals. ANSWER: Correct Part F – Question 6 Greece had more females than males in 2000. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? Hint 1. Which sex tends to live longer in the United States, males or females? ANSWER: Correct Part G – Question 7 The population of Colombia is currently _______. Hint 1. Review Step 2 of this activity. What shape does this population have? ANSWER: True False True False True False Females generally have a shorter life span than males. More females are born than males, and this difference remains throughout all age groups. There should be an equal number of males and females in every age group, so this is likely an error in the 2000 census for Greece. Males generally have a shorter life span than females. expanding stable declining Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 4 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Correct Part H – Question 8 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more children than reproductive-age individuals. Hint 1. What age group will today’s newborns occupy in 2030? ANSWER: Correct Part I – Question 9 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more children than elderly members of the population. Hint 1. What age groups will today’s reproductive-age individuals occupy in 2030? ANSWER: Correct Part J – Question 10 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more reproductive-age individuals than children. ANSWER: Correct Part K – Question 11 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more elderly than reproductive-age individuals. ANSWER: Correct Concept Review: Demographic Transition Model Can you identify what happens in each stage of the demographic transition model? Part A Drag the labels to the appropriate targets. ANSWER: True False True False True False True False Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 5 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Answer Requested Concept Review: Demographic Characteristics of Developed and Developing Nations For each demographic characteristic described in the table below, decide whether it applies to developed nations, developing nations, or neither group. Part A Drag the correct labels onto the table. Labels may be used once, more than once, or not at all. ANSWER: Concept Review: Age Structure Diagrams Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 6 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Can you label age structure diagrams? Part A Drag the labels to the appropriate targets. Pink labels indicate what each age class represents. Blue labels indicate how the population is expected to change over time. ANSWER: Correct Current Events: Nigeria Tested by Rapid Rise in Population (New York Times, 4/14/2012) Read this New York Times article and then answer the questions. Nigeria Tested by Rapid Rise in Population (4/14/2012) Registration with The New York Times provides instant access to breaking news on NYTimes.com. To register, go to http://www.nytimes.com/register. Visit http://www.nytimes.com /content/help/rights/terms/terms-of-service.html to review the current NYT Terms of Service. Part A The current human population is just over _______ billion people. ANSWER: Correct Part B How are the governments of sub-Saharan Africa reacting to a rapidly increasing population? ANSWER: Part C Which of the following tends to be true? ANSWER: 6 7 8 9 They are beginning to encourage people to have fewer children. They are doing nothing. They are waiting to hear the recommendations from the United Nations. They are still encouraging people to have many children. Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 7 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Part D You are in the Nigerian government and are working on trying to solve the problem of a rapidly increasing population. You decide to incorporate the Latin American model as part of your plan. Which of the following do you recommend? ANSWER: Part E If nearly every adult in a society is married and polygamy is common, which of the following is true? ANSWER: Part F Even if global total fertility rate drops to 2.1, estimates indicate that the human population will reach ________ by 2100. ANSWER: Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 57.9%. You received 15.06 out of a possible total of 26 points. The relationship between changing population and unemployment rates is too variable to quantify. An increase in population leads to an increase in unemployment. Population growth and unemployment are not correlated. An increase in population leads to a decrease in unemployment. There will be tax breaks for families with fewer children. Girls will be required to finish high school. The government will impose a limit of only one child. The government will provide free family planning. There are more adult women than adult men. There are equal numbers of adult men and adult women. There are more adult men than adult women. The ratio of adult men to adult women would depend on the total fertility rate. 10 billion 12 billion 14 billion 16 billion Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 8 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM

Chapter 05 Homework Due: 11:59pm on Friday, May 23, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Activity: Human Population Growth Click here to complete this activity. Then answer the questions. Part A Which of these was the first of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population? ANSWER: Correct The advent of agriculture is the first of the events listed here that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population. Part B Which of these was the second of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population? ANSWER: Correct The Industrial Revolution was the second of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population. Part C Which of these was the third of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population? ANSWER: Correct The advent of modern medicine is the third and most recent of the events listed here that have stimulated an increase in the population size of humans. the Industrial Revolution the advent of agriculture the discovery of antibiotics the bubonic plague the discovery of vaccines the discovery of vaccines the discovery of antibiotics the advent of agriculture the Industrial Revolution the bubonic plague the discovery of vaccines the advent of agriculture the discovery of antibiotics the discovery of vaccines and the discovery of antibiotics the Industrial Revolution Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 1 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Part D Currently, how large is the worldwide population of humans relative to Earth’s carrying capacity for humans? ANSWER: Correct Not knowing how technological innovations will affect the human population means there is insufficient information to answer this question. Activity: Analyzing Age-Structure Pyramids Click here to complete this activity. Then answer the questions. Part A Ignoring migration, the age structure of a human population likely to increase in size will have what shape? ANSWER: Correct This would mean that most individuals are in the prereproductive years. Such a population is expected to increase. Part B Ignoring migration, the age structure of a human population likely to decrease in size will have what shape? ANSWER: Correct In such a population the majority of individuals are in their postreproductive years. Such a population is expected to decrease. Part C Ignoring migration, the age structure diagram of a human population likely to maintain a relatively stable size will have what shape? There is insufficient information to answer this question. either at or above the carrying capacity below the carrying capacity above the carrying capacity at the carrying capacity Both an inverted pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that increases in size. pyramid Both a pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that increases in size. a rectangle tapering toward the top inverted pyramid pyramid Both an inverted pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that decreases in size. Both a pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that decreases in size. a rectangle tapering toward the top inverted pyramid Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 2 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM ANSWER: Correct Such a population is expected to have a relatively stable size. GraphIt!: Age Pyramids and Population Growth Click here to complete the graphing activity. Then answer the questions. Part A – Question 1 The population of Greece is expected to _______. Hint 1. Review Step 2 of this activity. What shape does this population have? ANSWER: Correct Part B – Question 2 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more children than reproductive-age individuals. Hint 1. What age group will today’s newborns occupy in 2030? ANSWER: Correct Part C – Question 3 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more children than elderly members of the population. Hint 1. Both an inverted pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that remains stable in size. pyramid Both a pyramid and a rectangle tapering toward the top result in a population that remains stable in size. inverted pyramid a rectangle tapering toward the top expand remain stable decline True False Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 3 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM What age groups will today’s reproductive-age individuals occupy in 2030? ANSWER: Correct Part D – Question 4 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more reproductive-age individuals than children. ANSWER: Correct Part E – Question 5 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Greece will have more elderly than reproductive-age individuals. ANSWER: Correct Part F – Question 6 Greece had more females than males in 2000. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? Hint 1. Which sex tends to live longer in the United States, males or females? ANSWER: Correct Part G – Question 7 The population of Colombia is currently _______. Hint 1. Review Step 2 of this activity. What shape does this population have? ANSWER: True False True False True False Females generally have a shorter life span than males. More females are born than males, and this difference remains throughout all age groups. There should be an equal number of males and females in every age group, so this is likely an error in the 2000 census for Greece. Males generally have a shorter life span than females. expanding stable declining Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 4 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Correct Part H – Question 8 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more children than reproductive-age individuals. Hint 1. What age group will today’s newborns occupy in 2030? ANSWER: Correct Part I – Question 9 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more children than elderly members of the population. Hint 1. What age groups will today’s reproductive-age individuals occupy in 2030? ANSWER: Correct Part J – Question 10 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more reproductive-age individuals than children. ANSWER: Correct Part K – Question 11 Assuming the current trend continues, in 30 years Colombia will have more elderly than reproductive-age individuals. ANSWER: Correct Concept Review: Demographic Transition Model Can you identify what happens in each stage of the demographic transition model? Part A Drag the labels to the appropriate targets. ANSWER: True False True False True False True False Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 5 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Answer Requested Concept Review: Demographic Characteristics of Developed and Developing Nations For each demographic characteristic described in the table below, decide whether it applies to developed nations, developing nations, or neither group. Part A Drag the correct labels onto the table. Labels may be used once, more than once, or not at all. ANSWER: Concept Review: Age Structure Diagrams Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 6 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Can you label age structure diagrams? Part A Drag the labels to the appropriate targets. Pink labels indicate what each age class represents. Blue labels indicate how the population is expected to change over time. ANSWER: Correct Current Events: Nigeria Tested by Rapid Rise in Population (New York Times, 4/14/2012) Read this New York Times article and then answer the questions. Nigeria Tested by Rapid Rise in Population (4/14/2012) Registration with The New York Times provides instant access to breaking news on NYTimes.com. To register, go to http://www.nytimes.com/register. Visit http://www.nytimes.com /content/help/rights/terms/terms-of-service.html to review the current NYT Terms of Service. Part A The current human population is just over _______ billion people. ANSWER: Correct Part B How are the governments of sub-Saharan Africa reacting to a rapidly increasing population? ANSWER: Part C Which of the following tends to be true? ANSWER: 6 7 8 9 They are beginning to encourage people to have fewer children. They are doing nothing. They are waiting to hear the recommendations from the United Nations. They are still encouraging people to have many children. Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 7 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM Part D You are in the Nigerian government and are working on trying to solve the problem of a rapidly increasing population. You decide to incorporate the Latin American model as part of your plan. Which of the following do you recommend? ANSWER: Part E If nearly every adult in a society is married and polygamy is common, which of the following is true? ANSWER: Part F Even if global total fertility rate drops to 2.1, estimates indicate that the human population will reach ________ by 2100. ANSWER: Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 57.9%. You received 15.06 out of a possible total of 26 points. The relationship between changing population and unemployment rates is too variable to quantify. An increase in population leads to an increase in unemployment. Population growth and unemployment are not correlated. An increase in population leads to a decrease in unemployment. There will be tax breaks for families with fewer children. Girls will be required to finish high school. The government will impose a limit of only one child. The government will provide free family planning. There are more adult women than adult men. There are equal numbers of adult men and adult women. There are more adult men than adult women. The ratio of adult men to adult women would depend on the total fertility rate. 10 billion 12 billion 14 billion 16 billion Chapter 05 Homework http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 8 of 8 5/21/2014 8:00 PM

info@checkyourstudy.com
PHY-102: Energy and Circular Motion Exercises Complete the following exercises. 1. A rifle with a longer barrel can fire bullets with a larger velocity than a rifle with a shorter barrel. a. Explain this using the impulse-momentum theorem. b. Explain this using the work-energy theorem 2. Use physics terms to explain the benefits of crumple zones in modern cars. 3. When a gun is fired at the shooting range, the gun recoils (moves backward). Explain this using the law of conservation of momentum. 4. Rank the following in terms of increasing inertia: A. A 10,000 kg train car at rest B. A 100 kg person running at 5 m/s C. A 1200 kg car going 15 m/s D. A 15 kg meteor going at a speed of 1000 m/s 5. Rank the following in terms of increasing momentum: A. A 10,000 kg train car at rest B. A 100 kg person running at 5 m/s C. A 1200 kg car going 15 m/s D. A 15 kg meteor going at a speed of 1000 m/s 6. Rank the following in terms of increasing kinetic energy: A. A 1200 kg car going 15 m/s B. A 10,000 kg train car at rest C. A 15 kg meteor going at a speed of 1000 m/s D. A 100 kg person running at 5 m/s 7. Ben (55 kg) is standing on very slippery ice when Junior (25 kg) bumps into him. Junior was moving at a speed of 8 m/s before the collision and Ben and Junior embrace after the collision. Find the speed of Ben and Junior as they move across the ice after the collision. Give the answer in m/s. Describe the work you did to get the answer. 8. Identical marbles are released from the same height on each of the following four frictionless ramps. Compare the speed of the marbles at the end of each ramp. Explain your reasoning. 9. A force of only 150 N can lift a 600 N sack of flour to a height of 0.50 m when using a lever as shown in the diagram below. a. Find the work done on the sack of flour (in J). b. Find the distance you must push with the 150 N force on the left side (in m). c. Briefly explain the benefit of using a lever to lift a heavy object. 10. Rank the following in terms of increasing power. A. Doing 100 J of work in 10 seconds. B. Doing 100 J of work in 5 seconds. C. Doing 200 J of work in 5 seconds. D. Doing 400 J of work in 30 seconds. 11. A student lifts a 25 kg mass a vertical distance of 1.6 m in a time of 2.0 seconds. a. Find the force needed to lift the mass (in N). b. Find the work done by the student (in J). c. Find the power exerted by the student (in W). 12. A satellite is put into an orbit at a distance from the center of the Earth equal to twice the distance from the center of the Earth to the surface. If the satellite had a weight at the surface of 4000 N, what is the force of gravity (weight) of the satellite when it is in its orbit? Give your answer in newtons, N. 13. Consider a satellite in a circular orbit around the Earth. a. Why is it important to give a satellite a horizontal speed when placing it in orbit? b. What will happen if the horizontal speed is too small? c. What will happen if the horizontal speed is too large? 14. If you drop an object from a distance of 1 meter above the ground, where would it fall to the ground in the shortest time: Atop Mt. Everest or in New York? 15. Why do the astronauts aboard the space station appear to be weightless? 16. Why do the passengers on a high-flying airplane not appear weightless, similar to the astronauts on the space station? 17. A ranger needs to capture a monkey hanging on a tree branch. The ranger aims his dart gun directly at the monkey and fires the tranquilizer dart. However, the monkey lets go of the branch at exactly the same time as the ranger fires the dart. Will the monkey get hit or will it avoid the dart? The remaining questions are multiple-choice questions: 18. Compared to its weight on Earth, a 5 kg object on the moon will weigh A. the same amount. B. less. C. more. 19. Compared to its mass on Earth, a 5 kg object on the moon will have A. the same mass. B. less mass. C. more mass. 20. The reason padded dashboards are used in cars is that they A. look nice and feel good. B. decrease the impulse in a collision. C. increase the force of impact in a collision. D. decrease the momentum of a collision. E. increase the time of impact in a collision. 21. Suppose you are standing on a frozen lake where there is no friction between your feet and the ice. What can you do to get off the lake? A. Bend over touching the ice in front of you and then bring you feet to your hands. B. Walk very slowly on tiptoe. C. Get on your hands and knees and crawl off the ice. D. Throw something in the direction opposite to the way you want to go. 22. A car travels in a circle with constant speed. Which of the following is true? A. The net force on the car is zero because the car is not accelerating. B. The net force on the car is directed forward, in the direction of travel. C. The net force on the car is directed inward, toward the center of the curve. D. The net force on the car is directed outward, away from the center of the curve. 23. A job is done slowly, and an identical job is done quickly. Which of the following is true? a. They require the same amount of force, but different amounts of work. b. They require the same amount of work, but different amounts of power. c. They require the same amounts of power, but different amounts of work. d. They require the same amounts of work, but different amounts of energy. 24. How many joules of work are done on a box when a force of 60 N pushes it 5 m in 3 seconds? a. 300 J b. 12 J c. 100 J d. 36 J e. 4 J 25. A 1 kg cart moving with a speed of 3 m/s collides with a 2 kg cart at rest. If the carts stick together after the collision, with what speed will they move after the collision? a. 3 m/s b. 1.5 m/s c. 1 m/s d. 2 m/s

PHY-102: Energy and Circular Motion Exercises Complete the following exercises. 1. A rifle with a longer barrel can fire bullets with a larger velocity than a rifle with a shorter barrel. a. Explain this using the impulse-momentum theorem. b. Explain this using the work-energy theorem 2. Use physics terms to explain the benefits of crumple zones in modern cars. 3. When a gun is fired at the shooting range, the gun recoils (moves backward). Explain this using the law of conservation of momentum. 4. Rank the following in terms of increasing inertia: A. A 10,000 kg train car at rest B. A 100 kg person running at 5 m/s C. A 1200 kg car going 15 m/s D. A 15 kg meteor going at a speed of 1000 m/s 5. Rank the following in terms of increasing momentum: A. A 10,000 kg train car at rest B. A 100 kg person running at 5 m/s C. A 1200 kg car going 15 m/s D. A 15 kg meteor going at a speed of 1000 m/s 6. Rank the following in terms of increasing kinetic energy: A. A 1200 kg car going 15 m/s B. A 10,000 kg train car at rest C. A 15 kg meteor going at a speed of 1000 m/s D. A 100 kg person running at 5 m/s 7. Ben (55 kg) is standing on very slippery ice when Junior (25 kg) bumps into him. Junior was moving at a speed of 8 m/s before the collision and Ben and Junior embrace after the collision. Find the speed of Ben and Junior as they move across the ice after the collision. Give the answer in m/s. Describe the work you did to get the answer. 8. Identical marbles are released from the same height on each of the following four frictionless ramps. Compare the speed of the marbles at the end of each ramp. Explain your reasoning. 9. A force of only 150 N can lift a 600 N sack of flour to a height of 0.50 m when using a lever as shown in the diagram below. a. Find the work done on the sack of flour (in J). b. Find the distance you must push with the 150 N force on the left side (in m). c. Briefly explain the benefit of using a lever to lift a heavy object. 10. Rank the following in terms of increasing power. A. Doing 100 J of work in 10 seconds. B. Doing 100 J of work in 5 seconds. C. Doing 200 J of work in 5 seconds. D. Doing 400 J of work in 30 seconds. 11. A student lifts a 25 kg mass a vertical distance of 1.6 m in a time of 2.0 seconds. a. Find the force needed to lift the mass (in N). b. Find the work done by the student (in J). c. Find the power exerted by the student (in W). 12. A satellite is put into an orbit at a distance from the center of the Earth equal to twice the distance from the center of the Earth to the surface. If the satellite had a weight at the surface of 4000 N, what is the force of gravity (weight) of the satellite when it is in its orbit? Give your answer in newtons, N. 13. Consider a satellite in a circular orbit around the Earth. a. Why is it important to give a satellite a horizontal speed when placing it in orbit? b. What will happen if the horizontal speed is too small? c. What will happen if the horizontal speed is too large? 14. If you drop an object from a distance of 1 meter above the ground, where would it fall to the ground in the shortest time: Atop Mt. Everest or in New York? 15. Why do the astronauts aboard the space station appear to be weightless? 16. Why do the passengers on a high-flying airplane not appear weightless, similar to the astronauts on the space station? 17. A ranger needs to capture a monkey hanging on a tree branch. The ranger aims his dart gun directly at the monkey and fires the tranquilizer dart. However, the monkey lets go of the branch at exactly the same time as the ranger fires the dart. Will the monkey get hit or will it avoid the dart? The remaining questions are multiple-choice questions: 18. Compared to its weight on Earth, a 5 kg object on the moon will weigh A. the same amount. B. less. C. more. 19. Compared to its mass on Earth, a 5 kg object on the moon will have A. the same mass. B. less mass. C. more mass. 20. The reason padded dashboards are used in cars is that they A. look nice and feel good. B. decrease the impulse in a collision. C. increase the force of impact in a collision. D. decrease the momentum of a collision. E. increase the time of impact in a collision. 21. Suppose you are standing on a frozen lake where there is no friction between your feet and the ice. What can you do to get off the lake? A. Bend over touching the ice in front of you and then bring you feet to your hands. B. Walk very slowly on tiptoe. C. Get on your hands and knees and crawl off the ice. D. Throw something in the direction opposite to the way you want to go. 22. A car travels in a circle with constant speed. Which of the following is true? A. The net force on the car is zero because the car is not accelerating. B. The net force on the car is directed forward, in the direction of travel. C. The net force on the car is directed inward, toward the center of the curve. D. The net force on the car is directed outward, away from the center of the curve. 23. A job is done slowly, and an identical job is done quickly. Which of the following is true? a. They require the same amount of force, but different amounts of work. b. They require the same amount of work, but different amounts of power. c. They require the same amounts of power, but different amounts of work. d. They require the same amounts of work, but different amounts of energy. 24. How many joules of work are done on a box when a force of 60 N pushes it 5 m in 3 seconds? a. 300 J b. 12 J c. 100 J d. 36 J e. 4 J 25. A 1 kg cart moving with a speed of 3 m/s collides with a 2 kg cart at rest. If the carts stick together after the collision, with what speed will they move after the collision? a. 3 m/s b. 1.5 m/s c. 1 m/s d. 2 m/s

info@checkyourstudy.com
Chapter 06 Reading Questions Due: 11:59pm on Friday, May 23, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 17 Part A Which of the following represents an example of intraspecific exploitation competition? ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 3 Part A A species’s realized niche _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 2 Part A Two species of ant compete for limited resources in a front yard, until only one species is able to remain. This is an example of _____. ANSWER: Hungry and fighting for a meal, a jackal quickly consumes the carcass of a young antelope while fighting off the feeding efforts of a vulture. Two species of worker ants converge on pieces of a donut left behind from the people in the park. The leaves of the huge hickory tree overshadow the young hickory tree saplings struggling for light just below. Spotting a fresh source of grasses, the large male bison moves over to graze, pushing the smaller bison out of the way. is smaller than the fundamental niche because of the constraints of competition is broader than a species’s fundamental niche does not overlap with similar species includes environmental conditions that are not included in the fundamental niche Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 1 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 20 Part A In which of the following situations would we expect a parasite to spread the fastest? ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 6 Part A Many plants have evolved adaptations to discourage herbivore feeding. Which one of the following is an example of such coevolution between bison and prairie plants? ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 5 Part A When predators selectively prey on the old and sick members of a prey population, they _____. ANSWER: mutualism intraspecific competition the competitive exclusion principle niche differentiation concentrated hosts with slowly moving vectors widely dispersed hosts with rapidly moving vectors concentrated hosts with rapidly moving vectors widely dispersed hosts with slow-moving vectors the ability to regrow after a wildfire thorns the production of nutritious fruits longer and thicker roots Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 2 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 21 Part A Cattle egrets are large white birds that follow grazing cattle. The cattle disturb the grass and stir up insects upon which the egrets feed. The cattle do not seem to mind the birds and gain nothing from this relationship. This relationship between cattle and cattle egrets is a type of _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 8 Part A Which of the following is a mutualistic relationship that has a significant effect on an entire ecological community? ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 7 Part A Which one of the following relationships would be considered a win/win? ANSWER: cause the overall health of the prey population to increase illustrate the process of prey switching increase the likelihood of parasitic infections of the prey cause the overall health of the prey population to decrease parasitism commensalism mimicry mutualism Polar bears are the top predator influencing the abundance of seals and sea lions in a region. Hermit crabs inhabit the abandoned shells of marine snails that died long ago. Fungus-plant root associations benefit most of the plants living in a prairie. Mosquitoes function as a vector in the widespread transmission of malaria to people living in Ecuador. Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 3 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 23 Part A In examining a terrestrial food web, we expect that the _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 22 Part A Energy is lost as it moves from one trophic level to the next because _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 11 Part A The research on the reintroduction of wolves into Yellowstone National Park reveals that in this ecosystem, wolves represent _____. ANSWER: mutualism predation parasitism commensalism biomass of primary consumers exceeds the biomass of producers number of secondary consumers exceeds the number of producers biomass of primary consumers exceeds the biomass of secondary consumers number of tertiary consumers exceeds the number of secondary consumers one trophic level does not consume the entire trophic level below it some of the calories consumed drive cellular activities and do not add mass some ingested materials are undigested and eliminated All of the listed responses are correct. Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 4 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 10 Part A Overhunting of deer followed by a very difficult winter caused the deer population on an island to drop by 80%. In the next two years, visitors to the island were surprised to see many young trees sprouting up at the edges of the forest. This change in the number of saplings as a result of the decline of the deer population represents _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 24 Part A The May 18, 1980, eruption of Mount Saint Helens blasted away soil and produced massive mudflows that scoured the adjacent region down to bare rock. Pumice rock that covered the area is eroding down to smaller gravel. This situation represents _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 15 Part A In some ecosystems, succession increases the chance of disturbance. In these ecosystems, _____. a keystone producer a keystone herbivore a vital primary consumer a keystone predator a trophic cascade a decline in trophic level efficiency the emergence of a new ecological community a loss of a trophic level from a food web primary succession with the removal of all ecological legacies secondary succession with the removal of all ecological legacies secondary succession with several ecological legacies primary succession with several ecological legacies Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 5 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 12 Part A A forest is logged, leaving behind the seeds and saplings of many shrubs and trees. These seeds and saplings represent _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 13 Part A During primary succession, populations of different species replace one another over time because of _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 14 Part A Which one of the following represents a climax community in southern Alaska? ANSWER: ecosystems begin again with primary succession climax communities are expected climax communities may not occur disturbances usually result in virtually no ecological legacy ecological legacies a climax community primary succession pioneer species migration facilitation competition All of the listed responses are correct. Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 6 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 9 Part A In general, _____. ANSWER: Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 0.0%. You received 0 out of a possible total of 19 points. the group of species associated with a white spruce forest lichens and mosses that colonize exposed rock birch and alder trees herbs and a few low shrubs that replace lichens and mosses food webs usually have 8-10 trophic levels food webs are interconnected food chains food chains consist of many interrelated food webs food webs consist of either consumers or producers Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 7 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM

Chapter 06 Reading Questions Due: 11:59pm on Friday, May 23, 2014 You will receive no credit for items you complete after the assignment is due. Grading Policy Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 17 Part A Which of the following represents an example of intraspecific exploitation competition? ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 3 Part A A species’s realized niche _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 2 Part A Two species of ant compete for limited resources in a front yard, until only one species is able to remain. This is an example of _____. ANSWER: Hungry and fighting for a meal, a jackal quickly consumes the carcass of a young antelope while fighting off the feeding efforts of a vulture. Two species of worker ants converge on pieces of a donut left behind from the people in the park. The leaves of the huge hickory tree overshadow the young hickory tree saplings struggling for light just below. Spotting a fresh source of grasses, the large male bison moves over to graze, pushing the smaller bison out of the way. is smaller than the fundamental niche because of the constraints of competition is broader than a species’s fundamental niche does not overlap with similar species includes environmental conditions that are not included in the fundamental niche Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 1 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 20 Part A In which of the following situations would we expect a parasite to spread the fastest? ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 6 Part A Many plants have evolved adaptations to discourage herbivore feeding. Which one of the following is an example of such coevolution between bison and prairie plants? ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 5 Part A When predators selectively prey on the old and sick members of a prey population, they _____. ANSWER: mutualism intraspecific competition the competitive exclusion principle niche differentiation concentrated hosts with slowly moving vectors widely dispersed hosts with rapidly moving vectors concentrated hosts with rapidly moving vectors widely dispersed hosts with slow-moving vectors the ability to regrow after a wildfire thorns the production of nutritious fruits longer and thicker roots Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 2 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 21 Part A Cattle egrets are large white birds that follow grazing cattle. The cattle disturb the grass and stir up insects upon which the egrets feed. The cattle do not seem to mind the birds and gain nothing from this relationship. This relationship between cattle and cattle egrets is a type of _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 8 Part A Which of the following is a mutualistic relationship that has a significant effect on an entire ecological community? ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 7 Part A Which one of the following relationships would be considered a win/win? ANSWER: cause the overall health of the prey population to increase illustrate the process of prey switching increase the likelihood of parasitic infections of the prey cause the overall health of the prey population to decrease parasitism commensalism mimicry mutualism Polar bears are the top predator influencing the abundance of seals and sea lions in a region. Hermit crabs inhabit the abandoned shells of marine snails that died long ago. Fungus-plant root associations benefit most of the plants living in a prairie. Mosquitoes function as a vector in the widespread transmission of malaria to people living in Ecuador. Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 3 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 23 Part A In examining a terrestrial food web, we expect that the _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 22 Part A Energy is lost as it moves from one trophic level to the next because _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 11 Part A The research on the reintroduction of wolves into Yellowstone National Park reveals that in this ecosystem, wolves represent _____. ANSWER: mutualism predation parasitism commensalism biomass of primary consumers exceeds the biomass of producers number of secondary consumers exceeds the number of producers biomass of primary consumers exceeds the biomass of secondary consumers number of tertiary consumers exceeds the number of secondary consumers one trophic level does not consume the entire trophic level below it some of the calories consumed drive cellular activities and do not add mass some ingested materials are undigested and eliminated All of the listed responses are correct. Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 4 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 10 Part A Overhunting of deer followed by a very difficult winter caused the deer population on an island to drop by 80%. In the next two years, visitors to the island were surprised to see many young trees sprouting up at the edges of the forest. This change in the number of saplings as a result of the decline of the deer population represents _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 24 Part A The May 18, 1980, eruption of Mount Saint Helens blasted away soil and produced massive mudflows that scoured the adjacent region down to bare rock. Pumice rock that covered the area is eroding down to smaller gravel. This situation represents _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 15 Part A In some ecosystems, succession increases the chance of disturbance. In these ecosystems, _____. a keystone producer a keystone herbivore a vital primary consumer a keystone predator a trophic cascade a decline in trophic level efficiency the emergence of a new ecological community a loss of a trophic level from a food web primary succession with the removal of all ecological legacies secondary succession with the removal of all ecological legacies secondary succession with several ecological legacies primary succession with several ecological legacies Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 5 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 12 Part A A forest is logged, leaving behind the seeds and saplings of many shrubs and trees. These seeds and saplings represent _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 13 Part A During primary succession, populations of different species replace one another over time because of _____. ANSWER: Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 14 Part A Which one of the following represents a climax community in southern Alaska? ANSWER: ecosystems begin again with primary succession climax communities are expected climax communities may not occur disturbances usually result in virtually no ecological legacy ecological legacies a climax community primary succession pioneer species migration facilitation competition All of the listed responses are correct. Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 6 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM Chapter 6 Reading Quiz Question 9 Part A In general, _____. ANSWER: Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 0.0%. You received 0 out of a possible total of 19 points. the group of species associated with a white spruce forest lichens and mosses that colonize exposed rock birch and alder trees herbs and a few low shrubs that replace lichens and mosses food webs usually have 8-10 trophic levels food webs are interconnected food chains food chains consist of many interrelated food webs food webs consist of either consumers or producers Chapter 06 Reading Questions http://session.masteringenvironmentalscience.com/myct/assignmentPrintV… 7 of 7 5/21/2014 8:01 PM

info@checkyourstudy.com
MECET 423: Mechanics of Materials Chap. 7 HW Chap. 7 Homework Set 1. Consider the beam shown in the image below. Let F1 = 2 kN and F2 = 3 kN. Assume that points A, B and C represent pin connections and a wire rope connects points B and C. Consider the dimensions L1, L2, L3 and L4 to be 2 m, 4 m, 6 m, and 10 m, respectively. The beam is made from HSS 152 X 51 X 6.4 (Appendix A-9) and the longer side of the rectangle is vertical. What is the maximum normal stress (units: MPa) experienced by the beam? 2. Consider the beam and loading shown below. The beam has a total length of 12 ft. and a uniformly distributed load, w, of 125 lb./ft. The cross section of the beam is comprised of a standard steel channel (C6 X 13) which has a ½ in. plate of steel attached to its bottom. Determine the maximum normal stress in tension and compression that is experienced by this beam due to the described loading. MECET 423: Mechanics of Materials Chap. 7 HW 3. Consider the cantilever beam shown in the image below. The beam is experiencing a linearly varying distributed load with w1 = 50 lb./ft. and w2 = 10 lb./ft. The beam is to be made from ASTM A36 structural steel and is to be 8 ft. in length. Select the smallest standard schedule 40 steel pipe size (Appendix A-12) which will ensure a factor of safety of at least 3. 4. The beam shown below has been fabricated by combining two wooden boards into a T-section. The dimensions for these sizes can be found in Appendix A-4. The beam is 9 ft. in length overall and dimension L1 = 3 ft. Assume the beam is made from a wood which has an allowable bending stress of 1500 psi (in both tension and compression). What is the largest value of the force which can be applied? MECET 423: Mechanics of Materials Chap. 7 HW 5. The image below shows a hydraulic cylinder which is being utilized in a simple press-fit operation. As can be seen the cylinder is being suspended over the work piece using a cantilever beam. Note from the right view that there is a beam on either side of the cylinder. You may assume that each will be equally loaded by the cylinder. The beams are to be cut from AISI 1040 HR steel plate which has a thickness of 0.750 in. The proposed design includes the following dimensions (units: inch): H = 2.00, h = 1.00, r = 0.08, L1 = 8, and L2 = 18. Evaluate the design by calculating the resulting factor of safety with respect to the yield strength of the material at the location of the step if the total force generated by the cylinder is 1,000 lb. Also state whether or not yielding is predicted to occur. You may assume that bending in the thickness direction of the beams is negligible. 6. Consider the cantilever beam shown below. The beam has a length of 4 ft. and is made from a material whose design stress, σd, is equal to 10,000 psi. It is to carry a load of 200 lb. applied at its free end. The beam is to be designed as a beam of constant strength where the maximum normal stress experienced at each cross section is equal to the design normal stress. To achieve this the height will be held constant at 1.5 in. while the base will vary as a function of the position along the length of the beam. Determine the equation which describes the required length of the base as a function of the position along the length of the beam. For consistency, let the origin be located at point A and the positive x axis be directed toward the right. MECET 423: Mechanics of Materials Chap. 7 HW 7. Consider the overhanging beam shown in the image below. Assume that L = 5 ft. and L1 = 3 ft. The beam’s cross section is shown below. The centerline marks the horizontal centroidal axis. The moment of inertia about this axis is approx. 0.208 in4. Due to the geometry of the cross section and the material, the beam has different maximum allowable normal stresses in tension and compression. The design normal stress in tension is 24,000 psi while the design normal stress in compression is 18,000 psi. Using this data determine the maximum force, F, which can be applied to the beam.

MECET 423: Mechanics of Materials Chap. 7 HW Chap. 7 Homework Set 1. Consider the beam shown in the image below. Let F1 = 2 kN and F2 = 3 kN. Assume that points A, B and C represent pin connections and a wire rope connects points B and C. Consider the dimensions L1, L2, L3 and L4 to be 2 m, 4 m, 6 m, and 10 m, respectively. The beam is made from HSS 152 X 51 X 6.4 (Appendix A-9) and the longer side of the rectangle is vertical. What is the maximum normal stress (units: MPa) experienced by the beam? 2. Consider the beam and loading shown below. The beam has a total length of 12 ft. and a uniformly distributed load, w, of 125 lb./ft. The cross section of the beam is comprised of a standard steel channel (C6 X 13) which has a ½ in. plate of steel attached to its bottom. Determine the maximum normal stress in tension and compression that is experienced by this beam due to the described loading. MECET 423: Mechanics of Materials Chap. 7 HW 3. Consider the cantilever beam shown in the image below. The beam is experiencing a linearly varying distributed load with w1 = 50 lb./ft. and w2 = 10 lb./ft. The beam is to be made from ASTM A36 structural steel and is to be 8 ft. in length. Select the smallest standard schedule 40 steel pipe size (Appendix A-12) which will ensure a factor of safety of at least 3. 4. The beam shown below has been fabricated by combining two wooden boards into a T-section. The dimensions for these sizes can be found in Appendix A-4. The beam is 9 ft. in length overall and dimension L1 = 3 ft. Assume the beam is made from a wood which has an allowable bending stress of 1500 psi (in both tension and compression). What is the largest value of the force which can be applied? MECET 423: Mechanics of Materials Chap. 7 HW 5. The image below shows a hydraulic cylinder which is being utilized in a simple press-fit operation. As can be seen the cylinder is being suspended over the work piece using a cantilever beam. Note from the right view that there is a beam on either side of the cylinder. You may assume that each will be equally loaded by the cylinder. The beams are to be cut from AISI 1040 HR steel plate which has a thickness of 0.750 in. The proposed design includes the following dimensions (units: inch): H = 2.00, h = 1.00, r = 0.08, L1 = 8, and L2 = 18. Evaluate the design by calculating the resulting factor of safety with respect to the yield strength of the material at the location of the step if the total force generated by the cylinder is 1,000 lb. Also state whether or not yielding is predicted to occur. You may assume that bending in the thickness direction of the beams is negligible. 6. Consider the cantilever beam shown below. The beam has a length of 4 ft. and is made from a material whose design stress, σd, is equal to 10,000 psi. It is to carry a load of 200 lb. applied at its free end. The beam is to be designed as a beam of constant strength where the maximum normal stress experienced at each cross section is equal to the design normal stress. To achieve this the height will be held constant at 1.5 in. while the base will vary as a function of the position along the length of the beam. Determine the equation which describes the required length of the base as a function of the position along the length of the beam. For consistency, let the origin be located at point A and the positive x axis be directed toward the right. MECET 423: Mechanics of Materials Chap. 7 HW 7. Consider the overhanging beam shown in the image below. Assume that L = 5 ft. and L1 = 3 ft. The beam’s cross section is shown below. The centerline marks the horizontal centroidal axis. The moment of inertia about this axis is approx. 0.208 in4. Due to the geometry of the cross section and the material, the beam has different maximum allowable normal stresses in tension and compression. The design normal stress in tension is 24,000 psi while the design normal stress in compression is 18,000 psi. Using this data determine the maximum force, F, which can be applied to the beam.

info@checkyourstudy.com Whatsapp +919911743277
Doppler Shift 73 Because of the Doppler Effect, light emitted by an object can appear to change wavelength due to its motion toward or away from an observer. When the observer and the source of light are moving toward each other, the light is shifted to shorter wavelengths (blueshifted). When the observer and the source of light are moving away from each other, the light is shifted to longer wavelengths (redshifted). Part I: Motion of Source Star is not . rnovrng r ABCD 1) Consider the situations shown (A—D). a) In which situation will the observer receive light that is shifted to shorter wavelengths? b) Will this light be blueshifted or redshifted for this case? c) What direction is the star moving relative to the observer for this case? 2) Consider the situations shown (A—D). a) In which situation will the observer receive light that is shifted to longer wavelengths? b) Will this light be blueshifted or redshifted for this case? c) What direction is the star moving relative to the observer for this case? . 74 Doppler Shift 3) In which of the srtuations shown (A—D) will theobserver receive light that Is not Doppler Shifted at all? Explain your reasoning. – 4) Imagine our solar system Is moving In the Milky Way toward a group of three stars. Star A is a blue star that is slightly closer to us than the other two. Star B is a red star that is farthest away from us. Star C is a yellow star that is halfway between Stars A end B. a) Which of these three stars, if any, will give off light that appears to be blueshifted? Explain your reasoning. . / b) Which of these three stars, if any, will give off light that appears to be redshifted? Explain your reasoning. c) Which of these three stars, if any, will give off light that appears to have no shift? Explain your reasoning. — 5) You overhear two students discussing the topic of Doppler Shift. Student 1: Since Betelgeuse is a red star, it must be going away from us, and since Rigel is a blue star it must be coming toward us. Student 2: 1 disagree, the color of the star does not tell you if it is moving. You have to look at the shift in wavelength of the lines in the star’s absorption spectrum to determine whether it’s moving toward or away from you. Do you agree or disagree with either or both of the students? Explain your reasoning. 5 Part II: Shift in Absorption Spectra When we study an astronomical object like a star or galaxy, we examine the spectrum of light it gives off. Since the lines of a spectrum occur at specific wavelengths we can determine that an object is moving when we see that the lines have been shifted to either longer or shorter wavelengths. For the absorption line spectra shown on the next page, short-wavelength light (the blue end of the spectrum) is shown on the left-hand side and long-wavelength light (the red end of the spectrum) is shown on the right-hand side. Doppler Shift 75 For the three absorption line spectra shown below (A, B, and C), one of the spectra corresponds to a star that is not moving relative to you, one of the spectra is from a star that is moving toward you, and one of the spectra is from a star that is moving away from you. A B Blue J___ ..‘ C 6) Which of the three spectra above corresponds with the star moving toward you? Explain your reasoning. If two sources of llght are moving relative to an observer, the light from the star that is moving faster will appear to undergo a greater Doppler Consider the four spectra at the right. The spectrum labeled F is an absorption line spectrum from a star that is at rest. Again, note that short-wavelength (blue) light is shown on the left-hand side of each spectrum and long-wavelength (red) light is shown on the right-hand side of each spectrum. 7) Which of the three spectra corresponds with the star moving away from you? Explain your reasoning. Part 111: Size of Shift and Speed Blue Red . – 76 Doppler Shift 8) Which of the four spectra would be from the star that is moving the fastest? Would this star be moving toward or away from the observer? 9) Of the stars that are moving, which spectra would be from the star that is moving the slowest? Describe the motion of this star, – (fJ 1O)An Important line In the absorption spectrum of stars occurs at a wavelength of 656 nm for stars at rest. Irna me that you observe five stars (H—L) from Earth and discover that this Important absorption line Is measured at the wavelength shown in the table below for each of the five stars, Star Wavelength of Absorption Line H 649nm I 660 nm J 656nrn K 658nrn L 647nm a) Which of the stars are gMng off light that appears blueshifted? Explain your reasoning. b) Which of the stars are gMng off light that appears redshifted? Explain your reasoning. d) Which star is moving the fastest? Is it moving toward or away from the observer? Explain your reasoning. , . . c) Which star is giving off light that appears shifted by the greatest amount? Is this light shifted to longer or shorter wavelengths? Explain your reasoning. a) Which planets will receive a radio signal that Is redshifted? Explain your reasoning. b) Which planets wfll receive a radio signal that is shifted to shorter wavelengths? Explain your reasoning. a a . ii) The figure at right shows a spaceprobe and five planets. The motion of the spaceprobe is indicated by the arrow. The spaceprobe is continuously broadcasting a radio signal in all directions. 4 C E not to scale c) Will all the planets receive radio signals from the spaceprobe that are Doppler shifted? Explain your reasoning. d) How will the size of the Doppler Shift in the radio signals detected at Planets A and B compare? Explain your reasoning. Cats r , ‘, e) How Will the slz of 1h Dupler Shift in the radio signals deteed °lane E and B compare? Explain your reasoning. ‘

Doppler Shift 73 Because of the Doppler Effect, light emitted by an object can appear to change wavelength due to its motion toward or away from an observer. When the observer and the source of light are moving toward each other, the light is shifted to shorter wavelengths (blueshifted). When the observer and the source of light are moving away from each other, the light is shifted to longer wavelengths (redshifted). Part I: Motion of Source Star is not . rnovrng r ABCD 1) Consider the situations shown (A—D). a) In which situation will the observer receive light that is shifted to shorter wavelengths? b) Will this light be blueshifted or redshifted for this case? c) What direction is the star moving relative to the observer for this case? 2) Consider the situations shown (A—D). a) In which situation will the observer receive light that is shifted to longer wavelengths? b) Will this light be blueshifted or redshifted for this case? c) What direction is the star moving relative to the observer for this case? . 74 Doppler Shift 3) In which of the srtuations shown (A—D) will theobserver receive light that Is not Doppler Shifted at all? Explain your reasoning. – 4) Imagine our solar system Is moving In the Milky Way toward a group of three stars. Star A is a blue star that is slightly closer to us than the other two. Star B is a red star that is farthest away from us. Star C is a yellow star that is halfway between Stars A end B. a) Which of these three stars, if any, will give off light that appears to be blueshifted? Explain your reasoning. . / b) Which of these three stars, if any, will give off light that appears to be redshifted? Explain your reasoning. c) Which of these three stars, if any, will give off light that appears to have no shift? Explain your reasoning. — 5) You overhear two students discussing the topic of Doppler Shift. Student 1: Since Betelgeuse is a red star, it must be going away from us, and since Rigel is a blue star it must be coming toward us. Student 2: 1 disagree, the color of the star does not tell you if it is moving. You have to look at the shift in wavelength of the lines in the star’s absorption spectrum to determine whether it’s moving toward or away from you. Do you agree or disagree with either or both of the students? Explain your reasoning. 5 Part II: Shift in Absorption Spectra When we study an astronomical object like a star or galaxy, we examine the spectrum of light it gives off. Since the lines of a spectrum occur at specific wavelengths we can determine that an object is moving when we see that the lines have been shifted to either longer or shorter wavelengths. For the absorption line spectra shown on the next page, short-wavelength light (the blue end of the spectrum) is shown on the left-hand side and long-wavelength light (the red end of the spectrum) is shown on the right-hand side. Doppler Shift 75 For the three absorption line spectra shown below (A, B, and C), one of the spectra corresponds to a star that is not moving relative to you, one of the spectra is from a star that is moving toward you, and one of the spectra is from a star that is moving away from you. A B Blue J___ ..‘ C 6) Which of the three spectra above corresponds with the star moving toward you? Explain your reasoning. If two sources of llght are moving relative to an observer, the light from the star that is moving faster will appear to undergo a greater Doppler Consider the four spectra at the right. The spectrum labeled F is an absorption line spectrum from a star that is at rest. Again, note that short-wavelength (blue) light is shown on the left-hand side of each spectrum and long-wavelength (red) light is shown on the right-hand side of each spectrum. 7) Which of the three spectra corresponds with the star moving away from you? Explain your reasoning. Part 111: Size of Shift and Speed Blue Red . – 76 Doppler Shift 8) Which of the four spectra would be from the star that is moving the fastest? Would this star be moving toward or away from the observer? 9) Of the stars that are moving, which spectra would be from the star that is moving the slowest? Describe the motion of this star, – (fJ 1O)An Important line In the absorption spectrum of stars occurs at a wavelength of 656 nm for stars at rest. Irna me that you observe five stars (H—L) from Earth and discover that this Important absorption line Is measured at the wavelength shown in the table below for each of the five stars, Star Wavelength of Absorption Line H 649nm I 660 nm J 656nrn K 658nrn L 647nm a) Which of the stars are gMng off light that appears blueshifted? Explain your reasoning. b) Which of the stars are gMng off light that appears redshifted? Explain your reasoning. d) Which star is moving the fastest? Is it moving toward or away from the observer? Explain your reasoning. , . . c) Which star is giving off light that appears shifted by the greatest amount? Is this light shifted to longer or shorter wavelengths? Explain your reasoning. a) Which planets will receive a radio signal that Is redshifted? Explain your reasoning. b) Which planets wfll receive a radio signal that is shifted to shorter wavelengths? Explain your reasoning. a a . ii) The figure at right shows a spaceprobe and five planets. The motion of the spaceprobe is indicated by the arrow. The spaceprobe is continuously broadcasting a radio signal in all directions. 4 C E not to scale c) Will all the planets receive radio signals from the spaceprobe that are Doppler shifted? Explain your reasoning. d) How will the size of the Doppler Shift in the radio signals detected at Planets A and B compare? Explain your reasoning. Cats r , ‘, e) How Will the slz of 1h Dupler Shift in the radio signals deteed °lane E and B compare? Explain your reasoning. ‘

  ANSWERS Part 1 1 C is the answer because … Read More...
COMM 1311: Written Communication Assignment 5 Argumentation Essay (Chapter 10, pp. 218-232, Arlov) Purpose of Assignment • The purpose of this assignment is to enable the student to write an essay with a compelling argumentation that shows critical thinking. A persuasive essay is a writer’s attempt to convince readers of the validity of a particular opinion on a controversial issue. Objectives • The student will be able to correctly structure an essay and bring forward a compelling thesis and argument. • The student will understand the creativity of the writing process and use his own ideas. • The student will be able to craft a compelling essay and show critical thinking. • The student will show that he is able to argue both sides of a topic and is willing to acknowledge a different opinion. Instructions 1. Establish a subject Choose a topic that interests you. An argument does not have to be a burning issue, but it must be a debatable topic. It can be anything you feel strongly about but it has to be approved by the instructor. 2. Present a clear thesis and identify the controversy Your thesis should inform readers of your purpose and how you will proceed in your argumentation. 3. Follow an organizational pattern and provide support The body paragraphs of the essay should provide specific support. These supports may include personal experience, statistics, facts, or experts’ opinions. They may be garnered from scientific journals, magazines, books, newspapers, textbooks, studies, or interviews. Select only the facts that are relevant. 4. Consider differing opinions A persuasive essay may be strengthened by acknowledging conflict viewpoints and discussing them. 4. Draw a conclusion Restate your position in different words from the introduction. Do not introduce new material in the conclusion. You may want to conclude by encouraging some specific call to action. Requirements The essay topic must meet the approval of the instructor: • Have a complete cover page • have at least 500 words • use full sentences (and no bullet points) • must have page numbers • must have a reference page Example writing (not a complete essay): Boxing: Countdown to Injury A left hook smashes into the fighter’s jaw. A following right slams his head the opposite direction. An uppercut to the jaw snaps his head back, momentarily stopping the blood flow to his brain. The boxer drops, hitting the mat with a thud. His brain bounces off his skull for the second time in a matter of seconds. Is this what we should call a sport? Because of injuries, neurological damage, and ring deaths, the rules of professional boxing should be changed. Boxing has always been a brutal sport. The ancient Greeks used gloves studded with metal spikes, which slashed the face and body and split skulls. Although gloves are no longer spiked, boxers today sustain injuries ranging from cuts and bruises to broken bones. It is not uncommon to see a boxer leave the ring with a cut on his face, an eye swollen shut, and a nose enlarged and bloody. Often, healing in is incomplete because these areas receive the same blows again and again in other matches. In fact, repeated blows almost cost Sugar Ray Leonard his sight when his retina detached in his left eye. Besides superficial injuries, boxers suffer short-term neurological damage as a result of staggering blows to the head. A knockout punch, for example, is often delivered with such force that the brain smashes against the skull, tearing nerve fibers and blood vessels, resulting in a concussion. Even a blow to the neck can close the carotid artery, the main artery to the brain, whereby oxygen and blood to the brain are disrupted, resulting in dizziness and confusion. Later, the boxers often have no memory of the moments before or after a knockout blow. Submission Criteria Due Date: Sunday, December 6, 2015. Late assignments will receive an automatic ZERO grade. Where to deliver hard copies: In class Assessment Criteria CRITERIA Assessment Rubric Argumentation Essay SCORES Introduction Introduces the issue and its importance, says what your essay will cover 2 Organization The sound structure of the essay 1 Expression Sentences, phrases, metaphors, verbs etc. The strength of the language used 4 Conclusion Restate the issue, summarizes the strength of the arguments in the essays, gives your opinion about which essay is the strongest with supporting reasons 1 Mechanics Followed guidelines, professional format, punctuation, spelling, and capitalization are correct, use of headings, no bullet points 2 TOTAL 10% Plagiarism, copying from the internet or any other sources without citation will result in an automatic ZERO grade and a procedure of Academic Misconduct will filed against you. The complete essay has to be created and written by you alone. Prior assignments CAN NOT be used.

COMM 1311: Written Communication Assignment 5 Argumentation Essay (Chapter 10, pp. 218-232, Arlov) Purpose of Assignment • The purpose of this assignment is to enable the student to write an essay with a compelling argumentation that shows critical thinking. A persuasive essay is a writer’s attempt to convince readers of the validity of a particular opinion on a controversial issue. Objectives • The student will be able to correctly structure an essay and bring forward a compelling thesis and argument. • The student will understand the creativity of the writing process and use his own ideas. • The student will be able to craft a compelling essay and show critical thinking. • The student will show that he is able to argue both sides of a topic and is willing to acknowledge a different opinion. Instructions 1. Establish a subject Choose a topic that interests you. An argument does not have to be a burning issue, but it must be a debatable topic. It can be anything you feel strongly about but it has to be approved by the instructor. 2. Present a clear thesis and identify the controversy Your thesis should inform readers of your purpose and how you will proceed in your argumentation. 3. Follow an organizational pattern and provide support The body paragraphs of the essay should provide specific support. These supports may include personal experience, statistics, facts, or experts’ opinions. They may be garnered from scientific journals, magazines, books, newspapers, textbooks, studies, or interviews. Select only the facts that are relevant. 4. Consider differing opinions A persuasive essay may be strengthened by acknowledging conflict viewpoints and discussing them. 4. Draw a conclusion Restate your position in different words from the introduction. Do not introduce new material in the conclusion. You may want to conclude by encouraging some specific call to action. Requirements The essay topic must meet the approval of the instructor: • Have a complete cover page • have at least 500 words • use full sentences (and no bullet points) • must have page numbers • must have a reference page Example writing (not a complete essay): Boxing: Countdown to Injury A left hook smashes into the fighter’s jaw. A following right slams his head the opposite direction. An uppercut to the jaw snaps his head back, momentarily stopping the blood flow to his brain. The boxer drops, hitting the mat with a thud. His brain bounces off his skull for the second time in a matter of seconds. Is this what we should call a sport? Because of injuries, neurological damage, and ring deaths, the rules of professional boxing should be changed. Boxing has always been a brutal sport. The ancient Greeks used gloves studded with metal spikes, which slashed the face and body and split skulls. Although gloves are no longer spiked, boxers today sustain injuries ranging from cuts and bruises to broken bones. It is not uncommon to see a boxer leave the ring with a cut on his face, an eye swollen shut, and a nose enlarged and bloody. Often, healing in is incomplete because these areas receive the same blows again and again in other matches. In fact, repeated blows almost cost Sugar Ray Leonard his sight when his retina detached in his left eye. Besides superficial injuries, boxers suffer short-term neurological damage as a result of staggering blows to the head. A knockout punch, for example, is often delivered with such force that the brain smashes against the skull, tearing nerve fibers and blood vessels, resulting in a concussion. Even a blow to the neck can close the carotid artery, the main artery to the brain, whereby oxygen and blood to the brain are disrupted, resulting in dizziness and confusion. Later, the boxers often have no memory of the moments before or after a knockout blow. Submission Criteria Due Date: Sunday, December 6, 2015. Late assignments will receive an automatic ZERO grade. Where to deliver hard copies: In class Assessment Criteria CRITERIA Assessment Rubric Argumentation Essay SCORES Introduction Introduces the issue and its importance, says what your essay will cover 2 Organization The sound structure of the essay 1 Expression Sentences, phrases, metaphors, verbs etc. The strength of the language used 4 Conclusion Restate the issue, summarizes the strength of the arguments in the essays, gives your opinion about which essay is the strongest with supporting reasons 1 Mechanics Followed guidelines, professional format, punctuation, spelling, and capitalization are correct, use of headings, no bullet points 2 TOTAL 10% Plagiarism, copying from the internet or any other sources without citation will result in an automatic ZERO grade and a procedure of Academic Misconduct will filed against you. The complete essay has to be created and written by you alone. Prior assignments CAN NOT be used.

No expert has answered this question yet. You can browse … Read More...
Fact Debate Brief Introduction Crime doesn’t pay; it should be punished. Even since childhood, a slap on the hand has prevented possible criminals from ever committing the same offense; whether it was successful or not depended on how much that child wanted that cookie. While a slap on the wrist might or might not be an effective deterrent, the same can be said about the death penalty. Every day, somewhere in the world, a criminal is stopped permanently from committing any future costs, but this is by the means of the death. While effective in stopping one person permanently, it does nothing about the crime world as a whole. While it is necessary to end the career of a criminal, no matter what his or her crime is, we must not end it by taking a life. Through this paper, the death penalty will be proven ineffective at deterring crime by use of other environmental factors. Definition: The death penalty is defined as the universal punishment of death as legally applied by a fair court system. It is important for it to be a fair legal system, as not to confuse it with genocide, mob mentality, or any other ruling without trial. Claim 1: Use of the death penalty is in decline Ground 1: According to the book The Death Penalty: A Worldwide Perspective by Roger Hood and Carolyn Hoyle, published Dec. 8th, 2014, the Oxford professors in criminology say “As in most of the rest of the world, the death penalty in the US is in decline and distributed unevenly in frequency of use” even addressing that, as of April 2014, 18 states no longer have a death penalty, and even Oregon and Washington are considering removing their death penalty laws. Furthermore, in 2013, only 9 of these states still retaining the death penalty actually executed someone. Warrant 1: The death penalty can be reinstated at any time, but so far, it hasn’t been. At the same time, more states consider getting rid of it altogether. Therefore, it becomes clear that even states don’t want to be involved with this process showing that this is a disliked process. Claim 2: Even states with death penalty in effect still have high crime rates. Ground 2: With the reports gathered from fbi.gov, lawstreetmedia.com, a website based around political expertise and research determined the ranking of each state based on violent crime, published September 12th, 2014. Of the top ten most violent states, only three of which had the death penalty instituted (Maryland #9, New Mexico #4, Alaska #3). The other seven still had the system in place, and, despite it, still have a high amount of violent crime. On the opposite end of the spectrum, at the bottom ten most violent states, four of which, including the bottom-most states, do not have the death penalty in place. Warrant 2: With this ranking, it literally proves that the death penalty does not deter crime, or that there is a correlation between having the death penalty and having a decrease in the crime rate. Therefore, the idea of death penalty deterring crime is a null term in the sense that there is no, or a flawed connection. Claim 3: Violent crime is decreasing (but not because if the death penalty) Ground 3 A: According to an article published by The Economist, dated July 23rd, 2013, the rate of violent crime is in fact decreasing, but not because of the death penalty, but rather, because we have more police. From 1995 to 2010, policing has increased one-fifth, and with it, a decline in crime rate. In fact, in cities such as Detroit where policing has been cut, an opposite effect, an increase in crime, has been reported. Ground 3 B: An article from the Wall Street Journal, dated May 28th, 2011, also cites a decline in violent, only this time, citing the reason as a correlation with poverty levels. In 2009, at the start of the housing crisis, crime rates also dropped noticeably. Oddly enough, this article points out the belief that unemployment is often associated with crime; instead, the evidence presented is environmental in nature. Warrant 3: Crime rate isn’t deterred by death penalty, but rather, our surroundings. Seeing as how conditions have improved, so has the state of peace. Therefore, it becomes clear that the death penalty is ineffective at deterring crime because other key factors present more possibility for improvement of society. Claim 4: The death penalty is a historically flawed system. Ground 4A: According to the book The Death Penalty: Constitutional Issues, Commentaries, and Case Briefs by Scott Vollum, published in 2005, addresses how the case of the death penalty emerged to where it is today. While the book is now a decade old, it is used for historical context, particularly, in describing the first execution that took place in 1608. While it is true that most of these executions weren’t as well-grounded as the modern ones that take place now, they still had no effect in deterring crime. Why? Because even after America was established and more sane, the death penalty still had to be used because criminals still had violent behaviors. Ground 4B: According to data from Mother Jones, published May 17th, 2013, the reason why the crime rate was so high in the past could possibly be due to yet another environmental factor (affected by change over time), exposure to lead. Since the removal of lead from paint started over a hundred years ago, there has been a decline in homicide. Why is this important? Lead poisoning in child’s brain, if not lethal, can affect development and lead to mental disability, lower IQ, and lack of reasoning. Warrant 4: By examining history as a whole, there is a greater correlation between other factors that have resulted in a decline in violent crime. The decline in the crime rate has been an ongoing process, but has shown a faster decline due to other environmental factors, rather than the instatement of the death penalty. Claim 5: The world’s violent crime rate is changing, but not due to the death penalty. Ground 5A: According to article published by Amnesty USA in March of 2014, the number of executions under the death penalty reported in 2013 had increased by 15%. However, the rate of violent crime in the world has decreased significantly in the last decade. But, Latvia, for example, has permanently banned the death penalty since 2012. In 2014, the country was viewed overall as safe and low in violent crime rate. Ground 5B: However, while it is true that there is a decline in violent crime rate worldwide, The World Bank, April 17, 2013, reports that the rate of global poverty is decreasing. In a similar vein to the US, because wealth is being distributed better and conditions are improving overall, there is a steady decline in crime rate. Warrant 5: By examining the world as a whole, it becomes clear that it doesn’t matter if the death penalty is in place, violent crime will still exist. However, mirroring the US, as simple conditions improve, so does lifestyle. The death penalty does not deter crime in the world, rather a better quality of life is responsible for that. Works Cited “Death Sentences and Executions 2013.” Amnesty International USA. Amnesty USA, 26 Mar. 2014. Web. 15 Mar. 2015. <http://www.amnestyusa.org/research/reports/death-sentences-and-executions-2013>. D. K. “Why Is Crime Falling?” The Economist. The Economist Newspaper, 23 July 2013. Web. 12 Mar. 2015. <http://www.economist.com/blogs/economist-explains/2013/07/economist-explains-16>. Drum, Kevin. “The US Murder Rate Is on Track to Be Lowest in a Century.”Mother Jones. Mother Jones, 17 May 2013. Web. 13 Mar. 2015. <http://www.motherjones.com/kevin-drum/2013/05/us-murder-rate-track-be-lowest-century>. Hood, Roger, and Carolyn Hoyle. The Death Penalty: A Worldwide Perspective. Oxford: Oxford UP, 2002. 45. Print. Rizzo, Kevin. “Slideshow: America’s Safest and Most Dangerous States 2014.”Law Street Media. Law Street TM, 12 Sept. 2014. Web. 12 Mar. 2015. <http://lawstreetmedia.com/blogs/crime/safest-and-most-dangerous-states-2014/#slideshow>. Vollum, Scott. The Death Penalty: Constitutional Issues, Commentaries, and Case Briefs. Newark, NJ: LexisNexis, 2005. 2. Print. Theis, David. “Remarkable Declines in Global Poverty, But Major Challenges Remain.” The World Bank. The World Bank, 17 Apr. 2013. Web. 15 Mar. 2015. <http://www.worldbank.org/en/news/press-release/2013/04/17/remarkable-declines-in-global-poverty-but-major-challenges-remain>. Wilson, James Q. “Hard Times, Fewer Crimes.” WSJ. The Wall Street Journal, 28 May 2011. Web. 13 Mar. 2015. <http://www.wsj.com/articles/SB10001424052702304066504576345553135009870>.

Fact Debate Brief Introduction Crime doesn’t pay; it should be punished. Even since childhood, a slap on the hand has prevented possible criminals from ever committing the same offense; whether it was successful or not depended on how much that child wanted that cookie. While a slap on the wrist might or might not be an effective deterrent, the same can be said about the death penalty. Every day, somewhere in the world, a criminal is stopped permanently from committing any future costs, but this is by the means of the death. While effective in stopping one person permanently, it does nothing about the crime world as a whole. While it is necessary to end the career of a criminal, no matter what his or her crime is, we must not end it by taking a life. Through this paper, the death penalty will be proven ineffective at deterring crime by use of other environmental factors. Definition: The death penalty is defined as the universal punishment of death as legally applied by a fair court system. It is important for it to be a fair legal system, as not to confuse it with genocide, mob mentality, or any other ruling without trial. Claim 1: Use of the death penalty is in decline Ground 1: According to the book The Death Penalty: A Worldwide Perspective by Roger Hood and Carolyn Hoyle, published Dec. 8th, 2014, the Oxford professors in criminology say “As in most of the rest of the world, the death penalty in the US is in decline and distributed unevenly in frequency of use” even addressing that, as of April 2014, 18 states no longer have a death penalty, and even Oregon and Washington are considering removing their death penalty laws. Furthermore, in 2013, only 9 of these states still retaining the death penalty actually executed someone. Warrant 1: The death penalty can be reinstated at any time, but so far, it hasn’t been. At the same time, more states consider getting rid of it altogether. Therefore, it becomes clear that even states don’t want to be involved with this process showing that this is a disliked process. Claim 2: Even states with death penalty in effect still have high crime rates. Ground 2: With the reports gathered from fbi.gov, lawstreetmedia.com, a website based around political expertise and research determined the ranking of each state based on violent crime, published September 12th, 2014. Of the top ten most violent states, only three of which had the death penalty instituted (Maryland #9, New Mexico #4, Alaska #3). The other seven still had the system in place, and, despite it, still have a high amount of violent crime. On the opposite end of the spectrum, at the bottom ten most violent states, four of which, including the bottom-most states, do not have the death penalty in place. Warrant 2: With this ranking, it literally proves that the death penalty does not deter crime, or that there is a correlation between having the death penalty and having a decrease in the crime rate. Therefore, the idea of death penalty deterring crime is a null term in the sense that there is no, or a flawed connection. Claim 3: Violent crime is decreasing (but not because if the death penalty) Ground 3 A: According to an article published by The Economist, dated July 23rd, 2013, the rate of violent crime is in fact decreasing, but not because of the death penalty, but rather, because we have more police. From 1995 to 2010, policing has increased one-fifth, and with it, a decline in crime rate. In fact, in cities such as Detroit where policing has been cut, an opposite effect, an increase in crime, has been reported. Ground 3 B: An article from the Wall Street Journal, dated May 28th, 2011, also cites a decline in violent, only this time, citing the reason as a correlation with poverty levels. In 2009, at the start of the housing crisis, crime rates also dropped noticeably. Oddly enough, this article points out the belief that unemployment is often associated with crime; instead, the evidence presented is environmental in nature. Warrant 3: Crime rate isn’t deterred by death penalty, but rather, our surroundings. Seeing as how conditions have improved, so has the state of peace. Therefore, it becomes clear that the death penalty is ineffective at deterring crime because other key factors present more possibility for improvement of society. Claim 4: The death penalty is a historically flawed system. Ground 4A: According to the book The Death Penalty: Constitutional Issues, Commentaries, and Case Briefs by Scott Vollum, published in 2005, addresses how the case of the death penalty emerged to where it is today. While the book is now a decade old, it is used for historical context, particularly, in describing the first execution that took place in 1608. While it is true that most of these executions weren’t as well-grounded as the modern ones that take place now, they still had no effect in deterring crime. Why? Because even after America was established and more sane, the death penalty still had to be used because criminals still had violent behaviors. Ground 4B: According to data from Mother Jones, published May 17th, 2013, the reason why the crime rate was so high in the past could possibly be due to yet another environmental factor (affected by change over time), exposure to lead. Since the removal of lead from paint started over a hundred years ago, there has been a decline in homicide. Why is this important? Lead poisoning in child’s brain, if not lethal, can affect development and lead to mental disability, lower IQ, and lack of reasoning. Warrant 4: By examining history as a whole, there is a greater correlation between other factors that have resulted in a decline in violent crime. The decline in the crime rate has been an ongoing process, but has shown a faster decline due to other environmental factors, rather than the instatement of the death penalty. Claim 5: The world’s violent crime rate is changing, but not due to the death penalty. Ground 5A: According to article published by Amnesty USA in March of 2014, the number of executions under the death penalty reported in 2013 had increased by 15%. However, the rate of violent crime in the world has decreased significantly in the last decade. But, Latvia, for example, has permanently banned the death penalty since 2012. In 2014, the country was viewed overall as safe and low in violent crime rate. Ground 5B: However, while it is true that there is a decline in violent crime rate worldwide, The World Bank, April 17, 2013, reports that the rate of global poverty is decreasing. In a similar vein to the US, because wealth is being distributed better and conditions are improving overall, there is a steady decline in crime rate. Warrant 5: By examining the world as a whole, it becomes clear that it doesn’t matter if the death penalty is in place, violent crime will still exist. However, mirroring the US, as simple conditions improve, so does lifestyle. The death penalty does not deter crime in the world, rather a better quality of life is responsible for that. Works Cited “Death Sentences and Executions 2013.” Amnesty International USA. Amnesty USA, 26 Mar. 2014. Web. 15 Mar. 2015. . D. K. “Why Is Crime Falling?” The Economist. The Economist Newspaper, 23 July 2013. Web. 12 Mar. 2015. . Drum, Kevin. “The US Murder Rate Is on Track to Be Lowest in a Century.”Mother Jones. Mother Jones, 17 May 2013. Web. 13 Mar. 2015. . Hood, Roger, and Carolyn Hoyle. The Death Penalty: A Worldwide Perspective. Oxford: Oxford UP, 2002. 45. Print. Rizzo, Kevin. “Slideshow: America’s Safest and Most Dangerous States 2014.”Law Street Media. Law Street TM, 12 Sept. 2014. Web. 12 Mar. 2015. . Vollum, Scott. The Death Penalty: Constitutional Issues, Commentaries, and Case Briefs. Newark, NJ: LexisNexis, 2005. 2. Print. Theis, David. “Remarkable Declines in Global Poverty, But Major Challenges Remain.” The World Bank. The World Bank, 17 Apr. 2013. Web. 15 Mar. 2015. . Wilson, James Q. “Hard Times, Fewer Crimes.” WSJ. The Wall Street Journal, 28 May 2011. Web. 13 Mar. 2015. .

Fact Debate Brief Introduction Crime doesn’t pay; it should be … Read More...
http://www.econlib.org/library/Smith/smWN1.html#B.I,%20Ch.1,%20Of%20the%20Division%20of%20Labor What does Smith mean by division of labor, and how does it affect production? A. He means that each person does their own work to benefit themselves by creating goods. This creates well-crafted goods. B. He argues that in order to become more efficient, we need to put everyone in the same workhouses and eliminate division. C. He says that the division of labor provides farmers with the opportunity to become involved in manufacturing. D. He means that each person makes one small part of a good very quickly, but this is bad for the quality of production overall. E. He means that by having each individual specialize in one thing, they can work together to create products more efficiently and effectively. Which of the following is NOT an example of the circumstances by which the division of labor improves efficiency? A. A doll-making company stops allowing each employee to make one whole doll each and instead appoints each employee to create one part of the doll. B. A family of rug makers buys a loom to speed up their production. C. A mechanic opens a new shop to be nearer to the market. D. A factory changes the responsibilities of its employees so that one group handles heavy boxes and the other group does precision sewing. E. A baker who used to make a dozen cookies at a time buys a giant mixer and oven that enable him to make 20 dozen cookies at a time. Considering the global system of states, what do you think the allegory of the pins has to offer? A. It suggests that there could be a natural harmony of interests among states because they can divide labor among themselves to the benefit of everyone. B. It suggests that states can never be secure enough to cooperate because every state is equally capable of producing the same things. C. It suggests that a central authority is necessary to help states cooperate, in the same way that a manager oversees operations at a factory. D. The allegory of the pins is a great way to think about how wars come about, because states won’t cooperate with each other like pin-makers do. E. The allegory of the pins shows us that there is no natural harmony of interests between states. Smith sees the development of industry, technology, and the division of labor as A. generally positive but not progressive. The lives of many people may improve, but the world will generally stay the same. B. generally positive and progressive. The world is improving because of these changes, and it will continue to improve. C. generally negative. The creation of new technologies and the division of labor are harmful to all humans, both the wealthy and the poor. D. generally negative. The creation of the division of labor only benefits the wealthy at the expense of the poor. E. both positive and negative. Smith thinks that technology hurts us, while the division of labor helps society progress and develop. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RUwS1uAdUcI What point is Hans Rosling trying to make when he describes the global health pre-test? A. He is trying to show how the average person has no idea of the true state of global health. B. He is trying to illustrate how we tend to carry around outdated notions about the state of global health. C. He is trying to make us see that the less-developed countries are far worse off than we ever thought. D. He is trying to drive home the idea that global health has not improved over time despite foreign aid and improvements in medicine. E. He is trying to warn us about the rapid growth in world population. Rosling shows us that we tend to think about global health in terms of “we and them.” Who are the “we” and who are the “them”? A. “We” refers to academics, students, and scholars; “them” refers to the uneducated. B. “We” refers to the average person; “them” refers to politicians and global leaders. C. “We” refers to the wealthy; “them” refers to the poor. D. “We” refers to the Western world; “them” refers to the Third World. E. “We” refers to students; “them” refers to professors. In the life expectancy and fertility rate demonstration, what do the statistics reveal? A. Over time, developed countries produced small families and long lives, whereas developing countries produced large families and short lives. B. The world today looks much like it did in 1962 despite our attempts to help poorer countries develop. C. All countries in the world, even the poorer ones, are trending toward longer lives and smaller families. D. Developed countries are trending toward smaller families but shorter lives. E. All countries tend to make gains and losses in fertility and lifespan, but in the long run there is no significant change. What point does Rosling make about life expectancy in Vietnam as compared to the United States? To what does he attribute the change? A. He indicates that economic change preceded social change. B. He suggests that markets and free trade resulted in the increase in life expectancy. C. He says that the data indicates that the Vietnam War contributed to the decrease in life expectancy during that time, but that it recovered shortly thereafter. D. He says that social change in Asia preceded economic change, and life expectancy in Vietnam increased despite the war. E. He indicates that Vietnam was equal to the United States in life expectancy before the war. According to Rosling, how are regional statistics about child survival rates and GDP potentially misleading? A. Countries have an incentive to lie about the actual survival rates because they want foreign assistance. B. Statistics for the individual countries in a region are often vastly different. C. Regional statistics give us a strong sense of how we can understand development within one region, but it does not allow us to compare across regions. D. The data available over time and from countries within regions is often poorly collected and incomplete. E. Child survival rates cannot be compared regionally, since each culture has a different sense of how important children are. What is Rosling’s main point about statistical databases? A. The data is available but not readily accessible, so we need to create networks to solve that problem. B. The data that comes from these databases is often flawed and unreliable. C. It doesn’t matter whether we have access to these databases because the data can’t be used in an interesting way. D. Statistics can’t tell us very much, but we should do our best to make use of the information we do have. E. The information that could be true is too hard to sort out from what isn’t true because we don’t know how strong the data really is. http://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1916/imp-hsc/ch10.htm#v22zz99h-298-GUESS Click the link at left to read Chapter 10 of Imperialism, The Highest Stage of Capitalism, then answer the questions below. According to Lenin, what is the fundamental source of a monopoly? A. It is a natural effect of human behavior. B. It is the result of governments and police systems. C. Its source is rooted in democracy. D. It comes from the concentration of production at a high stage. E. It is what follows a socialist system. What are the principal types or manifestations of monopoly capitalism? A. Monopolistic capitalist associations like cartels, syndicates and trusts; and monopolies as a result of colonial policy. B. Monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital. C. Monopolization of governing structures and monopolies of oligarchies. D. Monopolist capitalist associations like cartels, syndicates and trusts; and monopolies as a result of colonial policy AND monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital. E. Monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital AND monopolization of governing structures and monopolies of oligarchies. What is the definition of a rentier state according to Lenin? A. A state that colonizes other states. B. A state whose bourgeoisie live off the export of capital. C. A poor state. D. A wealthy state. E. A colonized state. Overall Lenin’s analysis of the state of capitalism is concerned with: A. The interactions between states. B. The interactions within states. C. The ownership of industry and organizations. D. The interactions within states AND the ownership of industry and organizations. E. All of these options. http://view.vzaar.com/1194665/flashplayer Watch the video at left, and then answer the questions below. The Marshall Plan was developed by the United States after World War II. What was its purpose? A. to feed the hungry of Europe B. to stem the spread of communism C. to maintain an American military presence in Europe D. to feed the hungry of Europe AND to stem the spread of communism E. to stem the spread of communism AND to maintain an American military presence in Europe What kind of aid was sent at first? A. foods, fertilizers, and machines for agriculture B. books, paper, and radios for education C. clothing, medical supplies, and construction equipment D. mostly cash in the form of loans and grants E. people with business expertise to help develop the economy What kind of aid did the United States send to Greece to help its farmers? A. tractors B. mules C. seeds D. fertilizer E. all of these options What was one way that the United States influenced public opinion in Italy during the elections described in the video? A. The United States provided significant food aid to Italy so that the Italians would be inclined to vote against the Communists. B. The Italians had been impressed by the strength and loyalty of the American soldiers, and were inclined to listen to them during the elections. C. There was a large number of young Italians who followed American fashion and culture. D. Italian immigrants in the United States wrote letters to their families in Italy urging them not to vote for Communists. E. The Greeks showed the Italians how much the Americans had helped them, warning that supporting a Communist candidate would mean sacrificing American aid. How did Pope Pius XII undermine the strength of the Communist Party in Italy? A. He encouraged Italians to go out and vote. B. He warned that the Communist Party would legalize abortion. C. He excommunicated many members of the Communist Party. D. He made a speech in support of capitalism. E. He declared that Communists should not be baptized. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KVhWqwnZ1eM Use the video at left to answer the questions below. Hans Rosling shares how his students discuss “we” versus “them.” To whom are his students referring? A. the United States and Mexico B. Christians and Muslims C. Democrats and Republicans D. Europe and Asia E. none of these options According to Rosling, what factors contribute to a better quality of life for people in developing countries? A. family planning B. soap and water C. investment D. vaccinations E. all of these options Using his data, Rosling demonstrates a great shift in Mexico. What change does his data demonstrate? A. a decrease in drug usage B. a decrease in the number of jobs available C. an increase in average life expenctancy D. an increase in the rate of violent crime E. all of these options Instead of “developing” and “developed,” Rosling divides countries into four categories. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. high-income countries B. middle-income countries C. low-income countries D. no-income countries E. collapsing countries Rosling discusses the increased life expectancy in both China and the United States. How are the situations different? A. The U.S. and China are on different continents. B. The life expectancy in China rose much higher than it did in the U.S. C. China first expanded its life expectancy and then grew economically, whereas the U.S. did the reverse. D. Average income and life expectancy steadily increased in the U.S., but they steadily decreased in China. E. all of these options Rosling shows a chart that demonstrates the regional income distribution of the world from 1970 to 2015. During that time, what has happened in South and East Asia? A. Money has flowed out of Asia to developing countries in Africa. B. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has increased over the last 30 years. C. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has decreased over the last 30 years. D. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has surpassed that of Europe and North America. E. There has been no change. Click here to access GapMinder, the data visualizer that Hans Rosling uses. In 2010, which of the following countries had both a higher per-capita GDP and a higher life expectancy than the United States? A. France B. Japan C. Denmark D. Singapore E. Kuwait http://www.garretthardinsociety.org/articles/art_tragedy_of_the_commons.html http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8a4S23uXIcM The Tragedy of the Commons What is the rough definition of the “commons” given in the article? A. any private property on which others trespass B. behavior that everyone considers to be normal C. a cow that lives in a herd D. government-administered benefits, like unemployment or Social Security E. a shared resource What does Hardin mean by describing pollution as a reverse tragedy of the commons? A. Rather than causing a problem, it resolves a problem. B. Pollution costs us money rather than making us money. C. We are putting something into the commons rather than removing something from it. D. It starts at the other end of the biological pyramid. E. Humans see less of it as time goes on. Hardin says “the air and waters surrounding us cannot readily be fenced, and so the tragedy of the commons as a cesspool must be prevented by different means.” What are those means? A. establishing more international treaties to protect the environment B. using laws or taxes to make the polluter pay for pollution C. punishing consumers for generating waste D. raising awareness about environmental issues E. developing greener products Pacific Garbage Dump According to the news report, what percent of the Gyre is made of plastic? A. 50 percent B. 60 percent C. 70 percent D. 80 percent E. 90 percent Where does the majority of the plastic in the Gyre come from? A. barges that dump trash in the ocean B. storm drains from land C. people throwing litter off boats into the ocean D. remnants from movie sets filmed at sea E. fishing boats processing their catch What does Charles Moore mean by the “throwaway concept”? A. the habitual use of disposable plastic packaging B. the mistaken view that marine ecosystems are infinitely renewable C. a general lack of interest in recycling D. the willingness to discard effective but small-scale environmental policies in deference to broader E. people throwing away their lives in pursuit of money In what way does the Great Pacific Gyre represent issues like global warming a tragedy of the commons? A. because all the plastic trash in it comes from the United States B. because it kills the albatross and makes it impossible for them to reproduce C. surbecause the countries rounding the Pacific Ocean are polluting the water in a way that affects the quality of the resource for all, but no one is specifically accountable for it D. because it causes marine life to compete for increasingly scarce nutrients in the ocean E. because nations in the region all collectively agreed to dump their trash in the Pacific http://www.npr.org/news/specials/climate/video/ http://ngm.nationalgeographic.com/climateconnections/climate-map http://www.npr.org/news/specials/climate/video/wildchronicles.html Use the links provided at left to answer the questions below. Global Warming: It’s All About Carbon How does carbon give us fuel? A. When you burn things that contain carbon the bonds break, giving off energy. B. Burning things creates carbon out of other elements as a result of combustion. C. Carbon is created after oxygen and hydrogen get released. D. Carbon bonds are created thereby giving off energy. E. Carbon is made into fuel by refining oil. National Geographic Climate Map What geographic areas have seen the most significant changes in temperature? A. The African continent. B. The Pacific Ocean. C. The Atlantic Ocean. D. The Arctic Ocean. E. The Indian Ocean. Why does it matter that rain fall steadily rather than in downpours? A. For those countries accustomed to steady rain fall, downpours are actually more efficient ways to catch water. B. Downpours in regions accustomed to steady fall makes them more prone to flooding and damage. C. In general, as long as regions get either steady fall or downpours most things will stay the same. D. Downpours are always more beneficial to crop growth than steady rain. E. Steady rain is always more beneficial to crop growth than downpours. Climate Change Threatens Kona Coffee What is unique about the climate in Hawaii, making it a good place to grow coffee? A. The elevation is high, the nights are cool and the days are humid. B. The elevation is low, the nights are warm and the days are dry. C. The elevation is high, the nights are warm and the days are dry. D. The elevation is low, the nights are cool and the days are dry. E. The elevation is high, the nights are warm and the days are humid. What specific temperature pattern have experts noted about the region where Kona coffee is grown in Hawaii? A. There has been no significant change but the bean production has dropped. B. The nights have warmed up, even though the days have cooled. C. There has been an increase in bean production with the change in climate. D. The nights have cooled even more so than before. E. There has been universally hot days all the way around.

http://www.econlib.org/library/Smith/smWN1.html#B.I,%20Ch.1,%20Of%20the%20Division%20of%20Labor What does Smith mean by division of labor, and how does it affect production? A. He means that each person does their own work to benefit themselves by creating goods. This creates well-crafted goods. B. He argues that in order to become more efficient, we need to put everyone in the same workhouses and eliminate division. C. He says that the division of labor provides farmers with the opportunity to become involved in manufacturing. D. He means that each person makes one small part of a good very quickly, but this is bad for the quality of production overall. E. He means that by having each individual specialize in one thing, they can work together to create products more efficiently and effectively. Which of the following is NOT an example of the circumstances by which the division of labor improves efficiency? A. A doll-making company stops allowing each employee to make one whole doll each and instead appoints each employee to create one part of the doll. B. A family of rug makers buys a loom to speed up their production. C. A mechanic opens a new shop to be nearer to the market. D. A factory changes the responsibilities of its employees so that one group handles heavy boxes and the other group does precision sewing. E. A baker who used to make a dozen cookies at a time buys a giant mixer and oven that enable him to make 20 dozen cookies at a time. Considering the global system of states, what do you think the allegory of the pins has to offer? A. It suggests that there could be a natural harmony of interests among states because they can divide labor among themselves to the benefit of everyone. B. It suggests that states can never be secure enough to cooperate because every state is equally capable of producing the same things. C. It suggests that a central authority is necessary to help states cooperate, in the same way that a manager oversees operations at a factory. D. The allegory of the pins is a great way to think about how wars come about, because states won’t cooperate with each other like pin-makers do. E. The allegory of the pins shows us that there is no natural harmony of interests between states. Smith sees the development of industry, technology, and the division of labor as A. generally positive but not progressive. The lives of many people may improve, but the world will generally stay the same. B. generally positive and progressive. The world is improving because of these changes, and it will continue to improve. C. generally negative. The creation of new technologies and the division of labor are harmful to all humans, both the wealthy and the poor. D. generally negative. The creation of the division of labor only benefits the wealthy at the expense of the poor. E. both positive and negative. Smith thinks that technology hurts us, while the division of labor helps society progress and develop. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RUwS1uAdUcI What point is Hans Rosling trying to make when he describes the global health pre-test? A. He is trying to show how the average person has no idea of the true state of global health. B. He is trying to illustrate how we tend to carry around outdated notions about the state of global health. C. He is trying to make us see that the less-developed countries are far worse off than we ever thought. D. He is trying to drive home the idea that global health has not improved over time despite foreign aid and improvements in medicine. E. He is trying to warn us about the rapid growth in world population. Rosling shows us that we tend to think about global health in terms of “we and them.” Who are the “we” and who are the “them”? A. “We” refers to academics, students, and scholars; “them” refers to the uneducated. B. “We” refers to the average person; “them” refers to politicians and global leaders. C. “We” refers to the wealthy; “them” refers to the poor. D. “We” refers to the Western world; “them” refers to the Third World. E. “We” refers to students; “them” refers to professors. In the life expectancy and fertility rate demonstration, what do the statistics reveal? A. Over time, developed countries produced small families and long lives, whereas developing countries produced large families and short lives. B. The world today looks much like it did in 1962 despite our attempts to help poorer countries develop. C. All countries in the world, even the poorer ones, are trending toward longer lives and smaller families. D. Developed countries are trending toward smaller families but shorter lives. E. All countries tend to make gains and losses in fertility and lifespan, but in the long run there is no significant change. What point does Rosling make about life expectancy in Vietnam as compared to the United States? To what does he attribute the change? A. He indicates that economic change preceded social change. B. He suggests that markets and free trade resulted in the increase in life expectancy. C. He says that the data indicates that the Vietnam War contributed to the decrease in life expectancy during that time, but that it recovered shortly thereafter. D. He says that social change in Asia preceded economic change, and life expectancy in Vietnam increased despite the war. E. He indicates that Vietnam was equal to the United States in life expectancy before the war. According to Rosling, how are regional statistics about child survival rates and GDP potentially misleading? A. Countries have an incentive to lie about the actual survival rates because they want foreign assistance. B. Statistics for the individual countries in a region are often vastly different. C. Regional statistics give us a strong sense of how we can understand development within one region, but it does not allow us to compare across regions. D. The data available over time and from countries within regions is often poorly collected and incomplete. E. Child survival rates cannot be compared regionally, since each culture has a different sense of how important children are. What is Rosling’s main point about statistical databases? A. The data is available but not readily accessible, so we need to create networks to solve that problem. B. The data that comes from these databases is often flawed and unreliable. C. It doesn’t matter whether we have access to these databases because the data can’t be used in an interesting way. D. Statistics can’t tell us very much, but we should do our best to make use of the information we do have. E. The information that could be true is too hard to sort out from what isn’t true because we don’t know how strong the data really is. http://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1916/imp-hsc/ch10.htm#v22zz99h-298-GUESS Click the link at left to read Chapter 10 of Imperialism, The Highest Stage of Capitalism, then answer the questions below. According to Lenin, what is the fundamental source of a monopoly? A. It is a natural effect of human behavior. B. It is the result of governments and police systems. C. Its source is rooted in democracy. D. It comes from the concentration of production at a high stage. E. It is what follows a socialist system. What are the principal types or manifestations of monopoly capitalism? A. Monopolistic capitalist associations like cartels, syndicates and trusts; and monopolies as a result of colonial policy. B. Monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital. C. Monopolization of governing structures and monopolies of oligarchies. D. Monopolist capitalist associations like cartels, syndicates and trusts; and monopolies as a result of colonial policy AND monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital. E. Monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital AND monopolization of governing structures and monopolies of oligarchies. What is the definition of a rentier state according to Lenin? A. A state that colonizes other states. B. A state whose bourgeoisie live off the export of capital. C. A poor state. D. A wealthy state. E. A colonized state. Overall Lenin’s analysis of the state of capitalism is concerned with: A. The interactions between states. B. The interactions within states. C. The ownership of industry and organizations. D. The interactions within states AND the ownership of industry and organizations. E. All of these options. http://view.vzaar.com/1194665/flashplayer Watch the video at left, and then answer the questions below. The Marshall Plan was developed by the United States after World War II. What was its purpose? A. to feed the hungry of Europe B. to stem the spread of communism C. to maintain an American military presence in Europe D. to feed the hungry of Europe AND to stem the spread of communism E. to stem the spread of communism AND to maintain an American military presence in Europe What kind of aid was sent at first? A. foods, fertilizers, and machines for agriculture B. books, paper, and radios for education C. clothing, medical supplies, and construction equipment D. mostly cash in the form of loans and grants E. people with business expertise to help develop the economy What kind of aid did the United States send to Greece to help its farmers? A. tractors B. mules C. seeds D. fertilizer E. all of these options What was one way that the United States influenced public opinion in Italy during the elections described in the video? A. The United States provided significant food aid to Italy so that the Italians would be inclined to vote against the Communists. B. The Italians had been impressed by the strength and loyalty of the American soldiers, and were inclined to listen to them during the elections. C. There was a large number of young Italians who followed American fashion and culture. D. Italian immigrants in the United States wrote letters to their families in Italy urging them not to vote for Communists. E. The Greeks showed the Italians how much the Americans had helped them, warning that supporting a Communist candidate would mean sacrificing American aid. How did Pope Pius XII undermine the strength of the Communist Party in Italy? A. He encouraged Italians to go out and vote. B. He warned that the Communist Party would legalize abortion. C. He excommunicated many members of the Communist Party. D. He made a speech in support of capitalism. E. He declared that Communists should not be baptized. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KVhWqwnZ1eM Use the video at left to answer the questions below. Hans Rosling shares how his students discuss “we” versus “them.” To whom are his students referring? A. the United States and Mexico B. Christians and Muslims C. Democrats and Republicans D. Europe and Asia E. none of these options According to Rosling, what factors contribute to a better quality of life for people in developing countries? A. family planning B. soap and water C. investment D. vaccinations E. all of these options Using his data, Rosling demonstrates a great shift in Mexico. What change does his data demonstrate? A. a decrease in drug usage B. a decrease in the number of jobs available C. an increase in average life expenctancy D. an increase in the rate of violent crime E. all of these options Instead of “developing” and “developed,” Rosling divides countries into four categories. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. high-income countries B. middle-income countries C. low-income countries D. no-income countries E. collapsing countries Rosling discusses the increased life expectancy in both China and the United States. How are the situations different? A. The U.S. and China are on different continents. B. The life expectancy in China rose much higher than it did in the U.S. C. China first expanded its life expectancy and then grew economically, whereas the U.S. did the reverse. D. Average income and life expectancy steadily increased in the U.S., but they steadily decreased in China. E. all of these options Rosling shows a chart that demonstrates the regional income distribution of the world from 1970 to 2015. During that time, what has happened in South and East Asia? A. Money has flowed out of Asia to developing countries in Africa. B. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has increased over the last 30 years. C. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has decreased over the last 30 years. D. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has surpassed that of Europe and North America. E. There has been no change. Click here to access GapMinder, the data visualizer that Hans Rosling uses. In 2010, which of the following countries had both a higher per-capita GDP and a higher life expectancy than the United States? A. France B. Japan C. Denmark D. Singapore E. Kuwait http://www.garretthardinsociety.org/articles/art_tragedy_of_the_commons.html http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8a4S23uXIcM The Tragedy of the Commons What is the rough definition of the “commons” given in the article? A. any private property on which others trespass B. behavior that everyone considers to be normal C. a cow that lives in a herd D. government-administered benefits, like unemployment or Social Security E. a shared resource What does Hardin mean by describing pollution as a reverse tragedy of the commons? A. Rather than causing a problem, it resolves a problem. B. Pollution costs us money rather than making us money. C. We are putting something into the commons rather than removing something from it. D. It starts at the other end of the biological pyramid. E. Humans see less of it as time goes on. Hardin says “the air and waters surrounding us cannot readily be fenced, and so the tragedy of the commons as a cesspool must be prevented by different means.” What are those means? A. establishing more international treaties to protect the environment B. using laws or taxes to make the polluter pay for pollution C. punishing consumers for generating waste D. raising awareness about environmental issues E. developing greener products Pacific Garbage Dump According to the news report, what percent of the Gyre is made of plastic? A. 50 percent B. 60 percent C. 70 percent D. 80 percent E. 90 percent Where does the majority of the plastic in the Gyre come from? A. barges that dump trash in the ocean B. storm drains from land C. people throwing litter off boats into the ocean D. remnants from movie sets filmed at sea E. fishing boats processing their catch What does Charles Moore mean by the “throwaway concept”? A. the habitual use of disposable plastic packaging B. the mistaken view that marine ecosystems are infinitely renewable C. a general lack of interest in recycling D. the willingness to discard effective but small-scale environmental policies in deference to broader E. people throwing away their lives in pursuit of money In what way does the Great Pacific Gyre represent issues like global warming a tragedy of the commons? A. because all the plastic trash in it comes from the United States B. because it kills the albatross and makes it impossible for them to reproduce C. surbecause the countries rounding the Pacific Ocean are polluting the water in a way that affects the quality of the resource for all, but no one is specifically accountable for it D. because it causes marine life to compete for increasingly scarce nutrients in the ocean E. because nations in the region all collectively agreed to dump their trash in the Pacific http://www.npr.org/news/specials/climate/video/ http://ngm.nationalgeographic.com/climateconnections/climate-map http://www.npr.org/news/specials/climate/video/wildchronicles.html Use the links provided at left to answer the questions below. Global Warming: It’s All About Carbon How does carbon give us fuel? A. When you burn things that contain carbon the bonds break, giving off energy. B. Burning things creates carbon out of other elements as a result of combustion. C. Carbon is created after oxygen and hydrogen get released. D. Carbon bonds are created thereby giving off energy. E. Carbon is made into fuel by refining oil. National Geographic Climate Map What geographic areas have seen the most significant changes in temperature? A. The African continent. B. The Pacific Ocean. C. The Atlantic Ocean. D. The Arctic Ocean. E. The Indian Ocean. Why does it matter that rain fall steadily rather than in downpours? A. For those countries accustomed to steady rain fall, downpours are actually more efficient ways to catch water. B. Downpours in regions accustomed to steady fall makes them more prone to flooding and damage. C. In general, as long as regions get either steady fall or downpours most things will stay the same. D. Downpours are always more beneficial to crop growth than steady rain. E. Steady rain is always more beneficial to crop growth than downpours. Climate Change Threatens Kona Coffee What is unique about the climate in Hawaii, making it a good place to grow coffee? A. The elevation is high, the nights are cool and the days are humid. B. The elevation is low, the nights are warm and the days are dry. C. The elevation is high, the nights are warm and the days are dry. D. The elevation is low, the nights are cool and the days are dry. E. The elevation is high, the nights are warm and the days are humid. What specific temperature pattern have experts noted about the region where Kona coffee is grown in Hawaii? A. There has been no significant change but the bean production has dropped. B. The nights have warmed up, even though the days have cooled. C. There has been an increase in bean production with the change in climate. D. The nights have cooled even more so than before. E. There has been universally hot days all the way around.

http://www.econlib.org/library/Smith/smWN1.html#B.I,%20Ch.1,%20Of%20the%20Division%20of%20Labor What does Smith mean by division of labor, and … Read More...