Prepare a five page (minimum) paper along with a cover page, a summary (as noted below) and reference page, on a Landmark Supreme Court Case that dealt with Aboriginal rights in Canada within the past 25 years (e.g. choose from those covered in Oct. 22rd class or another one if you find one that was not addressed but fits the criteria of a Supreme Court case that dealt with Aboriginal rights in Canada within the past 25 years). You can complete the assignment as a written paper (1.5 space/12 point font Times New Roman x 4 pages) or you can use points. In either method, provide a detailed response to each of the questions listed below. In addition to the paper that you will submit for grading, prepare a one page summary/cover page that you will present in class on November 12th and share with the other ANIS3006 students (handout, there are 18 students registered in the course). Frame your paper within the context of the following quotes: “Even when we win we lose.” (Chief Dean Sayers, Batchewana First Nation, commenting on Anishinabe experience in Canadian courts). “For the master’s tools will never dismantle the master’s house. They may allow us to temporarily beat him at his own game, but they will never enable us to bring about genuine change. Racism and homophobia are real conditions of all our lives in this place and time. I urge each one of us here to reach down into that deep place of knowledge inside herself [himself] and touch that terror and loathing of any difference that lives here. See whose face it wears. Then the personal as the political can begin to illuminate all our choices.” (Audre Lorde, feminist) In your paper, answer this broader question: How has the case you’ve selected served to advance Anishinabe rights in Canada? Describe what was gained and consider at what cost (“Even when we win, we lose.”) Address the following, and add anything that you find significant about the case, its process, its outcome and subsequent impact: • What was the basis of the court case? • What happened (e.g. Anishinabe people charged, by who, what charge)? • Who took the issue to court (who was the claimant, against who)? • What was the basis of the claim (be specific)? How was the issue framed/presented? • Who supported the court case (locally, regionally, nationally)? How did they support it? What was the impact of their support (e.g. political, financial, public awareness, protests, etc.)? • How long did it take from initiating the claim to decision (specific dates, chronology)? • What happened? What was the lower court’s decision? How did the case move through to the Supreme Court? What was the final Supreme Court decisions? • What did the Supreme Court’s decision mean in terms of Aboriginal rights in Canada? (What was gained, what was lost)? • Anything else of note relating to the case, its process or outcome. • Answer if and how the Supreme Court decision formed the basis for changes in Canadian government policies or practice concerning Aboriginal Peoples in Canada. In other words, what has the outcome of the Supreme Court decision been to date?
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According to Matthews, Western humanistic and democratic values might have been lost if ______ .
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ECON 101 FALL 2015 EXAM 1 NAME:______________________________ 1. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 1.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is: A) price elastic. B) price inelastic. C) price unit-elastic. D) perfectly price inelastic. 2. The price elasticity of demand for skiing lessons in New Hampshire is less than 1.00. This means that the demand is ______ in New Hampshire. A) price elastic B) price inelastic C) price unit-elastic D) perfectly price elastic 3. If the demand for textbooks is price inelastic, which of the following would explain this? A) Many alternative textbooks can be used as substitutes. B) Students have a lot of time to adjust to price changes. C) Textbook purchases consume a large portion of most students’ income. D) The good is a necessity. 4. A major state university in the South recently raised tuition by 12%. An economics professor at this university asked his students, “Due to the increase in tuition, how many of you will transfer to another university?” One student out of about 300 said that he or she would transfer. Based on this information, the price elasticity of demand for education at this university is: (Hint: one out of 300 is how much of a percentage change? Which percentage change is greater – tuition or transfer? Apply the basic formula for elasticity that I put on the board a few times.) A) one. B) highly elastic. C) highly inelastic. D) zero. 5. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for fishing lures equals 1 in South Carolina and 0.63 in Alabama. To increase revenue, fishing lure manufacturers should: (Hint: If the demand for a product is inelastic, the price can go up and you’ll still buy it, since there are no or few substitutes. If the demand for a product is elastic, the price can go up and you’ll probably walk away from it, since substitutes are available. How might this info impact the pricing strategies of firms?) A) lower prices in each state. B) raise prices in each state. C) lower prices in South Carolina and raise prices in Alabama. D) leave prices unchanged in South Carolina and raise prices in Alabama. Read your syllabus and answer questions 6 through 10: 6. T or F: Disruptive classroom behavior includes the following: chatting with fellow students, use of electronic devices such as laptops, tablets, notebooks, and cell phones, reading or studying during class, sleeping, arriving late, departing early, studying for another class, or in any other way disturbing the class. 7. T or F: It’s OK to use my computer in class or play with my phone. There is no penalty attached to these activities and Keiser doesn’t really mind. 8. T or F: It’s OK to show up late for class and disrupt one of Keiser’s swashbuckling lectures. 9. T or F: Attendance is highly optional since it doesn’t impact my final course grade. 10. T or F: I should blow off the career plan/business plan assignment in this course because it’s unimportant to my future and not worth many points. 11. Jacquelyn is a student at a major state university. Which of the following is not an example of an explicit, or direct, cost of her attending college? A) Tuition B) Textbooks C) the salary that she could have earned working full time D) computer lab fees 12. The two principles of tax fairness are: A) the minimize distortions principle and the maximize revenue principle. B) the benefits principle and the ability-to-pay principle. C) the proportional tax principle and the ability-to-pay principle. D) the equity principle and the efficiency principle. 13. The benefits principles says: A) the amount of tax paid depends on the measure of value. B) those who benefit from public spending should bear the burden of the tax that pays for that spending. C) those with greater ability to pay should pay more tax. D) those who benefit from the tax should pay the same percentage of the tax base as those who do not benefit. 14. A tax that rises less than in proportion to income is described as: (Hint: This would have more of a negative impact on lower income earners vs. higher income earners.) A) progressive. B) proportional. C) regressive. D) structural. 15. The U.S. income tax is _______, while the payroll tax is _______. (Hint: Think income tax vs. Social Security tax.) A) progressive; progressive C) regressive; progressive B) progressive; regressive D) regressive; regressive 16. Who is currently leading in the polls to receive the Republican nomination as that party’s presidential candidate? A) Qasem Soleimani B) Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi C) Osama bin Laden D) Donald J. Trump 17. The single most important thing I’ve learned in class this term is: A) stay in frickin’ school B) stay in school and make a plan for life and my career C) the use of cheese for skyscraper construction D) both A and B above 18. Market equilibrium occurs when: A) there is no incentive for prices to change in the market. B) quantity demanded equals quantity supplied. C) the market clears. D) all of the above occur. 19. Excess supply occurs when: (Hint: Draw a supply and demand graph! Think about price ceilings and floors and the graphs of these we discussed in class.) A) the price is above the equilibrium price. B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied. C) the price is below the equilibrium price. D) both b and c occur. 20. The single most important thing I’ve learned in class this term is: a. stay in school and look into either a study abroad or internship experience b. stay in school and make a plan for life and my career c. the untimely demise of Cecil the lion in Zimbabwe d. both a. and b. above 21. According to the textbook definition, mainstream microeconomics generally focuses on a. how individual decision-making units, like households and firms, make economic decisions. b. the performance of the national economy and policies to improve this performance. c. the relationship between economic and political institutions. d. the general level of prices in the national economy. 22. Which of the following is the best summary of the three basic economic questions? a. Who? Why? and When? b. What? How? and Who? c. When? Where? and Why? d. What? Where? and Who? 23. Which of the following is not one of the basic economic resources? a. land b. labor c. capital d. cheese e. entrepreneurship 24. The largest country in the Arabian Peninsula and home to the cities of Riyadh, Jeddah, Mecca, and Medina is: a. The Kingdom of Saudi Arabia b. California c. Spain d. Kentucky 25. T or F: The law of demand explains the upward slope of the supply curve. 26. In economics, a “marginal” value refers to: a. the value associated with an important or marginal activity. b. a value entered as an explanatory item in the margin of a balance sheet or other accounts. c. the value associated with one more unit of an activity. d. a value that is most appropriately identified in a footnote. 27. A government mandated price that is below the market equilibrium price is sometimes called. . . (Hint: Draw a graph again and think about what the government is trying to accomplish.) a. a price ceiling. b. a price floor. c. a market clearing price. d. a reservation price. 28. T or F: Entering the US job market without any education or training is crazy and should be avoided. Stay in frickin’ school, baby! 29. The law of demand states that, other things equal: a. as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase. b. as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right. c. as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease. d. none of the above. 30. The law of supply says: a. other things equal, the quantity supplied of a good is inversely related to the price of the good. b. other things equal, the supply of a good creates its own demand. c. other things equal, the quantity supplied of a good is positively related to the price of the good. d. none of the above. 31. A perfectly inelastic demand curve is: a. horizontal. b. downward sloping. c. upward sloping. d. vertical. 32. A trade-off involves weighing costs and benefits. a. true b. false 33. A perfectly elastic demand curve is: a. horizontal. b. downward sloping. c. upward sloping. d. vertical. 34. The second most important thing I’ve learned in class this term is: a. despair is not an option b. Donald J. Trump’s hair is real c. the use of cheese for skyscraper construction d. none of the above 35. T or F: Virtually any news item has important economic dimensions and consequences. 36. T or F: When studying economics, always think in terms of historical context. 37. This popular Asian country is populated by 1.3 billion people, has the world’s second largest economy, and uses a language that’s been in continuous use for nearly 5,000 years: a. Kentucky b. California c. Spain d. China 38. T or F: The top priority in my life right now should be my education and an internship experience. Without these, the job market is going to kick my butt! 39. Which of the following is a key side effect generated by the use of price ceilings? a. black markets b. products with too high of quality c. an excess supply of a good d. too many resources artificially channeled into the production of a good 40. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic principles for understanding individual choice? a. Resources are scarce. b. The real cost of something is the money that you must pay to get it. c. “How much?” is a decision at the margin. d. People usually take advantage of opportunities to make themselves better off. 41. A hot mixture of pan drippings, flour, and water is commonly known as: a. interest rates and expected future real GDP. b. interest rates and current real GDP. c. inflation and expected future real GDP. d. gravy. 42. The example we used in class when discussing the inefficiency of quantity quotas was: a. Uber b. General Electric c. AT&T d. the KSU marching band 43. The term we learned in class signifying a key method of non-price competition is: a. excess supply chain management b. arbitrage c. swashbuckling d. product differentiation 44. When discussing market failure and the role of regulation in class, which company/product did we use as an example? a. Pabst Blue Ribbon b. JetBlue c. Blue Bell d. Blue Apron 45. Governments may place relatively high sales taxes on goods such as alcohol and tobacco because: a. such taxes are a significant source of revenue b. such goods exhibit inelastic demand c. such taxes may discourage use of these products d. all of the above 46. When discussing the cost of higher education in class, which country did we cite as an example of one that offers free college for qualifying students? a. USSR b. Rhodesia c. Czechoslovakia d. Germany 47. Which of the following is not an example of market failure we discussed in class? a. externalities b. public goods c. fungible goods d. common pool resources e. equity 48. T or F: As we discussed in class, the real reason why the US has lost jobs to China is the “most favored nation” (MFN) trading status granted to China by the US back in the 1980s. 49. The dude we talked about in class who coined the expression “invisible hand” and promoted self-interest and competition in his famous book “The Wealth of Nations” is: a. Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi b. Ali Khamenei c. Donald J. Trump d. Adam Smith 50. When studying for your final exams and attempting to allocate your limited time among several subjects in order to maximize your course grades (recall, we talked about this example during the first week of class), you’re almost unconsciously engaging in a form of: a. fraud b. miscellaneous serendipity b. mitosis d. marginal analysis
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1 MECE2320U-THERMODYNAMICS HOMEWORK # 5 Instructor: Dr. Ibrahim Dincer Assignment Date: Thursday, 22 October 2015 Assignment Type: Individual Due Date: Thursday, 29 October 2015 (3.00 pm latest, leave in dropbox 8) 1) As shown in figure, the inlet and outlet conditions of a steam turbine are given. The heat loss from turbine is 35 kJ per kg of steam. a) Show all the state points on T-v diagram b) Write mass and energy balance equations c) Calculate the turbine work 2) As shown in figure, refrigerant R134a enters to a compressor. Write both mass and energy balance equations. Calculate the compressor work and the mass flow rate of refrigerant. 3) As shown in figure, the heat exchanger uses the heat of hot exhaust gases to produce steam. Where, 15% of heat is lost to the surroundings. Exhaust gases enters the heat exchanger at 500°C. Water enters at 15°C as saturated liquid and exit at saturated vapor at 2 MPa. Mass flow rate of water is 0.025 kg/s, and for exhaust gases, it is 0.42 kg/s. The specific heat for exhaust gases is 1.045 kJ/kg K, which can be treated as ideal gas. 1 Turbine 2 ? 1 = 1 ??/? ?1 = 1 ??? ?1 = 300 ℃ ?1 = 40 ?/? ? ??? =? ????? = 35 ??/?? ?2 = 150 ??? ?2 = 0.9 ?2 = 180 ?/? 1 Compressor 2 ???? ???? = 1.3 ?3/??? ?1 = 100 ??? ?1 = −20 ℃ ? ?? =? ? ???? = 3 ?? ?2 = 800 ??? ?2 = 60 ℃ 2 a) Write mass and energy balance equations. b) Calculate the rate of heat transfer to the water. c) Calculate the exhaust gases exit temperature. 4) As shown in figure, two refrigerant R134a streams mix in a mixing chamber. If the mass flow rate of cold stream is twice that of the hot stream. a) Write mass and energy balance equations. b) Calculate the temperature of the mixture at the exit of the mixing chamber c) Calculate the quality at the exit of the mixing chamber 5) As shown in figure, an air conditioning system requires airflow at the main supply duct at a rate of 140 m3/min. The velocity inside circular duct is not to exceed 9 m/s. Assume that the fan converts 85% of electrical energy it consumes into kinetic energy of air. a) Write mass and energy balance equations. b) Calculate the size of electric motor require to drive the fan c) Calculate the diameter of the main duct ?2 = 1 ??? ?2 = 90 ℃ ?1 = 1 ??? ?1 = 30 ℃ ?3 =? ?3 =? 140 ?3/??? 9 ?/? Air Fan
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Physics 2010 Sid Rudolph Fall 2009 MIDTERM 4 REVIEW Problems marked with an asterisk (*) are for the final. Solutions are on the course web page. 1. A. The drawing to the right shows glass tubing, a rubber bulb and two bottles. Is the situation you see possible? If so, carefully describe what has taken place in order to produce the situation depicted. B. The picture depicts three glass vessels, each filled with a liquid. The liquids each have different densities, and DA > DB > DC. In vessel B sits an unknown block halfway to the bottom and completely submerged. 1. _______ In which vessel would the block sit on the bottom? 2. _______ In which vessel would the block float on the top? 3. _______ In which vessel would the block feel the smallest buoyant force? 4. _______ In which vessels are buoyant forces on the block are the same? 5. _______ Assume the coefficient of volume expansion for the liquid in B and the block are $B > $block. If the temperature of vessel B with the block is raised, would block B rise to the surface, sink to the bottom, or remain where it is? 2. A circular tank with a 1.50 m radius is filled with two fluids, a 4.00 m layer of water and a 3.00 m layer of oil. Use Doil = 8.24 × 10 kg/m and Dwater = 1.00 × 10 kg/m , and Datm = 1.01 × 10 N/m . 2 3 3 3 5 2 A. What are the gauge and absolute pressures 1.00 m above the bottom of the tank? B. A block of material in the shape of a cube (m = 100 kg and side length = 42.0 cm) is released at the top of the oil layer. Where does the block come to rest? Justify your answer. If it comes to rest between two layers, specify which layers and what portion of the block sits in each layer. [Note: Vcube = a ]3 C. A small 1.00 cm radius opening is made in the side of the tank 0.500 m up from its base (block was removed). What volume of water drains from the tank in 10.0 s? (b) (a) 3. A tube is inserted into a vein in the wrist of a patient in a reclined position on a hospital bed. The heart is vertically 25.0 cm above the position of the wrist where the tube is inserted. Take DBLOOD = 1.06 × 103 kg/m3. The gauge venous blood pressure at the level of the heart is 6.16 × 103 N/m2. Assume blood behaves as an ideal nonviscous fluid. A. What is the gauge venous blood pressure at the position of the wrist? B. The tube coming from the wrist is connected to a bottle of whole blood the patient needs in a transfusion. See above figure (b). What is the minimum height above the level of the heart at which the bottle must be held to deliver the blood to the patient? C. Suppose the bottle of blood is held 1.00 m above the level of the heart. Assume the tube inserted in the wrist has a diameter of 2.80 mm. What is the velocity, v, and flow rate of blood as it enters the wrist. You may also assume the rate at which the blood level in the bottle drops is very small. The answer you get here is a substantial overstatement. Blood is not really a non-viscous fluid. 4. A 0.500 kg block is attached to a horizontal spring and oscillates back and forth on a frictionless surface with a frequency of f = 3.00 hz. The amplitude of this motion is 6.00 × 10 m. Assume to = 0 and is the instant the block is -2 at the equilibrium position moving to the left. A. Write expressions x(t) = !A sin (Tt) and v(t) = !AT cos (Tt) filling in the values of A and T. B. What is the total mechanical energy (METOT) of the block-spring system? C. Suppose the block, at the moment it reaches its maximum velocity to the left splits in half with only one of the halves remaining attached to the spring. What are the amplitude and frequency of the resulting oscillations? D. Suppose, instead of splitting at the position of maximum velocity to the left, the block now splits when it is at the extreme position in the left. What are the amplitude and frequency of the resulting motion? E. Describe in words what would happen to the period of oscillation if a second block identical to the first block were dropped on the first block at either of its extreme positions. 5. A. A spring has one end attached to a wall and the other end attached to two identical masses, mA and mB. The system is set into oscillation on a frictionless surface with amplitude A. See figure. When the system is momentarily at rest at x = -A whatever it is that holds mA to mB fails; and later in the motion mB moves away from mA to the right. 1. Location where the acceleration of mA is maximum and negative. 2. Location where the KE of mA is maximum. The next few questions ask you to compare the behavior of the mass-spring system after and before mB detached. Energy considerations are most useful here. 3. The amplitude of the mass-spring oscillation has (increased, decreased, not changed) after mB detaches. 4. The frequency of the mass-spring oscillation has (increased, decreased, stayed the same) after mB detaches. 5. The maximum speed of mA has (increased, decreased, stayed the same) after mB detaches. 6. The period of oscillation of the mass-spring system has (increased, decreased, stayed the same) after mB detaches. 7. The fraction of the total mechanical energy of the entire spring-2 mass system carried away with mB after mB detaches is B. A spherical object is completely immersed in a liquid and is neutrally buoyant some distance above the bottom of the vessel. See figure. The upper surface of the liquid is open to the earth’s atmosphere. 1. How is the density of the fluid related to the density of the spherical object? 2. Assume the fluid and object are incompressible. In addition, the $sphere (coefficient of volume expansion) > $liquid. For the following items below, indicate whether the object sinks to the bottom, rises to the surface, or does nothing based on the changes described. a. Atmospheric pressure drops by 20%. b. Salt is dissolved in the liquid in the same way fresh water is turned into salt water. c. The entire apparatus is warmed 10oC (liquid and object are both warmed). d. The entire apparatus is transported to the surface of the moon. (gmoon = 1.6 m/s , PATM = 0 on moon) 2 e. 100 cm3 of the liquid is removed from the top. The object is still initially submerged. 6. A. A mass m is attached to a spring and oscillating on a frictionless, horizontal surface. See figure. At the instant the mass passes the equilibrium position moving to the right, half the mass detaches from the other half. The oscillating system is now the spring and half the original mass with the detached mass moving off to the right with constant velocity. Relative to the original spring-mass system, the new spring-mass system with half the mass oscillates with … In the spaces provided below, enter the words larger, smaller or the same that best completes the above sentence.. 1. amplitude 2. period 3. frequency 4. maximum velocity 5. mechanical energy B. A solid cylinder is floating at the interface between water and oil with 3/4 of the cylinder in the water region and 1/4 of the cylinder in the oil region. See figure. Select the item in the parenthesis that best fits the statement. 1. The item (oil, water, and/or cylinder) with the largest density. 2. The item (oil, water, and/or cylinder) with the smallest density. 3. The weight of the cylinder (is equal to, greater than or less than) the total buoyant force it feels. 4. The density of the cylinder (is equal to, less than, or greater than) the density of water. rC. Three thermometers in different settings record temperatures T1 = 1000°F, T2 = 1000°C, and T3 = 1000 K. In the space below select T1, T2 or T3, that best fits the statement. 1. The thermometer in the hottest environment. 2. The thermometer in the coolest environment. 3. The thermometer reading a temperature 900° above the boiling point of water. 7. An oil tanker in the shape of a rectangular solid is filled with oil (Doil = 880 kg/m ). The flat bottom of the 3 hull is 48.0 m wide and sits 26.0 m below the surface of the surrounding water. Inside the hull the oil is stored to a depth of 24.0 m. The length of the tanker, assumed filled with oil along the entire length, is 280 m. View from Rear View from Side Note: Dsalt water = 1.015 × 10 kg/m ; Vrectangular solid = length × width × height. 3 3 A. At the bottom of the hull, what is the water pressure on the outside and the oil pressure on the inside of the horizontal bottom part of the hull? Assume the Po above the oil is the same as the Po above the water and its value is Po = 1.01 × 10 N/m . 5 2 B. If you did part A correctly you determined that the water pressure on the horizontal bottom part of the hull is larger than the oil pressure there. Explain why this MUST be the case. C. What buoyant force does the tanker feel? D. What is the weight of the tanker, excluding the weight of the oil in the hull? 8. A. Water is poured into a tall glass cylinder until it reaches a height of 24.0 cm above the bottom of the cylinder. Next, olive oil (Doil = 920 kg/m ) is very carefully added until the total amount of 3 fluid reaches 48.0 cm above the bottom of the cylinder. Olive oil and water do not mix. See figure. Take Dwater = 1.00 × 10 kg/m and Patm = 1.01 × 10 N/m . 3 3 5 2 1. Indicate on the drawing which layer is water and which is olive oil. 2. What is the gauge pressure 10.0 cm below the top of the upper fluid layer in the cylinder. 3. What is the gauge pressure on the bottom of the cylinder? 4. If the cylinder is in the shape of a right circular cylinder with radius of 3.60 cm, what force is exerted on the bottom of the cylinder? B. A 0.200 kg mass is hung from a massless spring. At equilibrium, the spring stretched 28.0 cm below its unstretched length. This mass is now replaced with a 0.500 kg mass. The 0.500 kg mass is lowered to the original equilibrium position of the 0.200 kg mass and suddenly released producing vertical SHM. 1. What is the spring constant for this spring? 2. What is the period of oscillation for the 0.500 kg/spring system? 3. What is the amplitude of this oscillation? r9. The drawing shows a possible design for a thermostat. It consists of an aluminum rod whose length is 5.00 cm at 20.0°C. The thermostat switches an air conditioner when the end of the rod just touches the contact. The position of the contact can be changed with an adjustment screw. What is the size of the spacing such that the air conditioner turns on at 27.0°C. This is not a very practical device. Take “al = 2.3 × 10 /°C. -5 r10. The following is an effective technique for determining the temperature TF inside a furnace. Inside the furnace is 100 gm of molten (i.e., in a liquid state) lead (Pb). The lead is dropped into an aluminum calorimeter containing 200 gm water both at an initial temperature of 10.0°C. After equilibrium is reached, the temperature reads 21.8°C. Assumptions: (1) No water is vaporized; (2) no heat is lost to or gained from the environment; and (3) the specific heat for the lead is the same whether the lead is a solid or a liquid. DATA TABLE LEAD CALORIMETER WATER mPb = 100 gm mAl = 150 gm mW = 200 gm CPb = 0.0305 cal/gm°C CAl = 0.215 cal/gm°C CW = 1.0 cal/gm°C LF = 6.0 ca./gm (heat of fusion) Tinit = 10.0°C Tinit = 10.0°C MPPb = 327°C (melting point) TF = unknown Tequilibrium = 21.8°C A. In words, describe the distinct steps in the cooling of lead. B. How many calories of heat are absorbed by the calorimeter and the water it contains to reach 21.8°C? C. How many calories are lost by the lead in cooling from TF to the final equilibrium temperature of 21.8°C? D. What was the original furnace temperature? E. If the same amount of aluminum (CAl = 0.215 cal/gm°C and LM = 21.5 cal/gm) were used in the same furnace instead of lead, would the final equilibrium temperature be higher, less or the same as in the lead case? No calculation is needed to answer this. Please explain. r11. The length of aluminum cable between consecutive support towers carrying electricity to a large metropolitan area is 180.00 m on a hot August day when the temperature is 38°C. Use “(Al) = 24 × 10-6/°C. A. What is the length of the same section of aluminum cable on a very cold winter day when T = -24°C? B. If the same length of copper (” = 17 × 10-6/°C) cable (i.e., 180.00 m on the same hot August day) were used instead of aluminum, would the length of the copper cable be shorter, longer or the same as that of the aluminum on the same winter day as in (A)? Please explain your conclusion You do not have to do any calculations here. r12. You wish to make a cup of coffee with cream in a 0.250 kg mug (cmug = 900 J/kg°C) with 0.325 kg coffee (ccoffee = 4.18 × 10 J/kg°C) starting at 25.0°C and 0.010 kg cream (ccream = 3.80 × 10 J/kg°C) at 10.0°C. 3 3 You use a 50.0 W electric heater to bring the coffee, cream and mug to a final temperature of 90.0°C. How long must the coffee system be heated? Indicate clearly the assumptions you need to make. r13. A 75.0 kg patient is running a fever of 106°F and is given an alcohol rubdown to lower his body temperature. Take the specific heat of the human body to be Cbody = 3.48 × 10 J/kg°C, the heat of 3 evaporation of the rubbing alcohol to be Lv(alcohol) = 8.51 × 10 J/kg, and the density of the rubbing 5 alcohol to be 793 kg/m3. You may assume that all the heat removed from the fevered body goes into evaporating the alcohol, and that while the patient’s body is cooling, his metabolism adds no measurable heat. A. What quantity of heat must be removed from the body to lower its temperature to 99.0°F? B. What volume of rubbing alcohol is required? C. This is a qualitative question. Give an answer and explanation. Suppose you were told that the alcohol applied started at room temperature (. 70°F) and were given the specific heat for the alcohol. Thus, you now expect some of the body heat warming the alcohol to the temperature of the fever before evaporation occurs. How would this effect the result of the calculation in part (B)? r14. A 56.0 kg hypothermia victim is running a body temperature of 91.0°F. The victim is far away from any immediate medical treatment. Her friends decide to treat the hypothermia victim by placing the victim in a sleeping bag with one of her friends and use the heat from the friend to raise the victim’s body temperature. Take the specific heat of the human body to be Cbody = 3.48 × 10 J/kg°C. Assume that the sleeping bag acts 3 like a perfect calorimeter and also assume no heat is lost to or obtained from the sleeping bag. Finally, assume all the heat that warms the hypothermia victim comes from the basic metabolic heat produced by the body of the victim’s friend in the sleeping bag with her and that metabolism is rated at 2.00 × 106 cal/day, and that the victim’s metabolism is negligible. A. How much heat must be added to the victim’s body to get her temperature up to 98.0°F? B. How long must the victim remain in the sleeping bag with her friend to achieve this temperature change? C. This is a qualitative question. If the thermal characteristics of the sleeping bag are now taken into account, but still assuming no heat leaves or enters the sleeping bag, how will the answer to question (b) above be different? r15. A few years back a lawsuit was filed by a woman against McDonald’s because she scalded herself with a Styrofoam cup filled with coffee which she spilled on herself while driving. This question was spawned by that incredible legal action and represents a possible action taken by McDonald’s to insure cooler coffee. Suppose a typical cup of coffee sold by McDonald’s is basically 400 ml of hot water and when poured into the Styrofoam cup its temperature is 96.0°C. Take 1.00 ml to have a mass of 1.00 gm and = 4.19 kJ/kg°C. Neglect any heat lost to the cup and assume no heat is lost by the coffee to the environment. A. How much heat in joules must the coffee lose to bring its temperature to a drinkable 68.0°C? B. McDonald’s possible approach to lowering the temperature of the 96.0°C coffee to 68.0°C is to add a cube of ice initially at 0.0°C. (Take Lf = 334 kJ/kg.) What mass of ice has to be added to the coffee to reduce its initial temperature to the desired 68.0°C? r16. During this past Thanksgiving your instructor overdid it and consumed 3000 Cal of food and dessert. Remember 1.0 Cal = 4.19 x 10 J. For the questions below, as 3 sume no heat is lost to the environment. [Note: = 33.5 x 105 J/kg; = 4.19 x 103 J/kgoC] A. If all of this energy went into heating 65.0 kg water starting at 37.0oC (a mass approximately that of your instructor), what would be the final temperature of this water? B. Assume your instructor removes these overeating calories by running 10 kilometer races [note: 1.61 km = 1.00 mile]. Using the rule of thumb that 1 mile of jogging will require 100 Cal, what is the minimum number of races your instructor must run to consume the 3000 Cal in part A as exercise? C. The year before, your instructor was particularly gluttonous and consumed 5000 Cal. Assuming the same conditions of water mass (65.0 kg) and starting temperature (37.0oC) as in A, what is the final temperature of the water system, and if any water vaporizes to steam, how much? [Note: BP(H2O) = 100 C] o 17. Below is the position vs. time graph for the simple harmonic of a spring oscillation on a frictionless horizontal surface. Motion to the right is positive. 1. The earliest instant of time, including t0 = 0 at which the PEelastic is maximum. 2. The earliest instant of time at which the KE of the mass is a maximum and the mass is moving to the right. 3. The earliest instant of time at which the acceleration of the mass is maximum and positive. 4. The earliest instant of time at which the speed of the mass is zero. 18. A. A spring is attached to a post at the top of a 15.0° frictionless ramp. A 2.00 kg mass is attached to the spring and the mass is slowly allowed to stretch the spring to the equilibrium position of the mass-spring system, the spring stretches by 0.400 m See figure. The mass is now pulled an additional 10.0 cm and released. The mass-spring system executes simple harmonic motion. 1. What is the spring constant, k, of the spring. 2. What are the amplitude and period of oscillation of the mass-spring system? B. A solid, uniform cylinder is floating at the interface between water (Dwater = 1.00 × 103 kg/m ) and oil (Doil = 8.24 × 10 kg/m ) with 3/4 of the cylinder in the water region and 3 3 3 1/4 of the cylinder in the oil region. Assume the axis of the cylinder is perfectly vertical. See figure. 1. What is the density of the material out of which the cylinder is made? 2. Assume the upper surface of the oil region si open to the atmosphere (Datm = 1.01 × 10 N/m ) and the oil-water interface is 0.500 m below the 5 2 upper surface of the oil. Also assume the height of the cylinder is 10.0 cm. What is the gauge pressure on the bottom surface of the cylinder? Recall: Pgauge = P – PATM. 19. A. A mass m is attached to a spring and is oscillating on a frictionless horizontal surface (see figure). At the instant the mass is at an amplitude position a second identical mass is carefully placed on top of the original mass. The oscillating system is now the spring and the two identical masses. Relative to the original spring-single mass system, the new spring-2-mass system oscillates with a … In the spaces provided below, enter (I) for increased, (D) for decreased, or (R) remains unchanged, that best completes the above last sentence. 1. amplitude. 2. period. 3. frequency. 4. spring constant. 5. maximum speed. 6. mechanical energy. 7. maximum acceleration. B. Suppose you are asked about the absolute pressure at some depth h below the surface of a liquid. The top surface is exposed to the atmosphere on a sunny day in Salt Lake City. For each statement below in the spaces provided, enter I for increase, D for decrease, or R for remains the same, when accounting for what happens to the absolute pressure at the point you are observing. 1. More liquid is added so now the observation point is farther below the surface. 2. The fluid is now exchanged for a less dense fluid. The observation point is at same h. 3. The experiment is moved to New York City, which is at sea level, on a sunny day. 4. The fluid is now seen to be moving with some speed v past the observation point. 5. The observation point is moved closer to the surface of the liquid. 6. The air above the fluid is removed by a vacuum system. 7. The apparatus is moved to a laboratory on the surface of the moon. 20. A 3.00 kg mass is attached to a spring (k = 52.0 N/m) that is hanging vertically from a fixed support. The mass is moved to a position 0.800 m lower than the unstretched position of the end of the spring. The spring is then released and the mass-spring system executes SHM. Take the 0.800 m of the mass as the reference location for its gravitational PE. A. What is the equilibrium position of the mass-spring system? B. What is the amplitude of the SHM the mass-spring system executes? C. What is the period of the oscillation of this system? D. What is the total mechanical energy of the mass-spring system at the moment the mass is released? E. What are (i) the KE of the mass and (ii) the speed of the mass when the spring is at its equilibrium position? 21. A 38.0 kg block is moving back and forth on a frictionless horizontal surface between two springs. The spring on the right has a force constant kR = 2.50 × 10 N/m. When the block is between the two 3 springs its speed (v) is 1.82 m/s. See figure. A. If the block compresses the left spring to 5.62 cm beyond its uncompressed length, determine the value of kL. B. What is the maximum compression of the right spring when the mass interacts with it? C. What is the total time the spring on the right is compressed during a single event? 22. Two identical containers are connected at the bottom via a tube of negligible volume and a valve which is closed. Both containers are filled initially to the same height of 1.00 m, one with chloroform (DC = 1530 kg/m ) in the left chamber and the other 3 with mercury in the right chamber (DHg = 1.36 × 10 kg/m ). 4 3 Sitting on top of each identical circular container is a massless plate that can slide up or down without friction and without allowing any fluid to leak past. The radius of the circular plate is 12.0 cm. The valve is now opened. A. What volume of mercury drains into the chloroform container? (Note: Vcyl = Br h) 2 B. What mass must be placed on the plate on the chloroform side to force all the mercury, but none of the chloroform, back to the mercury chamber? 23. A 12.0 kg mass M is attached to a cord that is wrapped around a wheel in the shape of a uniform disk of radius r = 12.0 cm and mass m = 10.0 kg. The block starts from rest and accelerates down the frictionless incline with constant acceleration. Assume the disk axle is frictionless. Note: Idisk = 1/2 mr . 2 A. Use energy methods to find the velocity of the block after it has moved 2.00 m down the incline. B. What is the constant acceleration of the block and the angular acceleration of the wheel? C. How many revolutions does the wheel turn for the distance the block travels in (A)? D. If the uniform disk were replaced by a uniform sphere with the same r and m of the disk, would the acceleration of the block attached to the sphere be larger, smaller, or the same as that for the block attached to the disk? Note: Isphere = 2/5 mr . 2 24. A pulley is in the shape of a uniform disk of mass m = 5.00 kg and radius r = 6.40 cm. The pulley can rotate without friction about an axis through the center of mass. A massless cord is wrapped around the pulley and connected to a 1.80 kg mass. The 1.80 kg mass is released from rest and falls 1.50 m. See figure. Note: Idisk = 1/2 mr . 2 A. Use energy methods to determine the speed of the block after falling 1.50 m. B. What is the constant acceleration of the block and the angular acceleration of the wheel? C. How many revolutions does the pulley disk turn for the distance the block travels in (A)? D Suppose the disk were replaced by a uniform sphere with the same r and m of the disk. Would the acceleration of the block attached to the sphere be larger, smaller, or the same as that for the block attached to the the disk? Note: Isphere 2/5 mr . 2 26. A 700.0 N fisherman is walking toward the edge of a 200 N plank as shown. He has placed a can of worms weighing 75.0 N on the left side of the plank as indicated in the drawing. The plank is the horizontal section in the drawing. A. Identify all the forces the plank feels before it begins to tip. Draw a free body diagram. B. As the fisherman nears the point on the plank where it begins to tip, how do the upward forces the supports exert on the plank change. C. How far a distance, as measured from the center of the right support, can he walk before the plank begins to tip? 26. A 75.0 kg sign hangs from a 4.80 m uniform horizontal rod whose mass is 120 kg. The rod is supported by a cable that makes an angle of 53° with the rod. he sign hangs 3.60 m out along the rod. A. What is the tension in the cable? B. What are the forces PPv and PPH exerted by the wall on the left end of the rod? 27. A 1.00 × 104 N great white shark is hanging by a cable attached to a 4.00 m massless rod that can pivot at its base. See figure. A. Determine the tension in the cable supporting the upper end of the rod. See figure. B. Determine the force (a vector quantity) exerted on the base of the rod. Suggestion: Find this force by first evaluating the separate components of the force. See figure. 28. A 6.00 m uniform beam extends horizontally from a hinge fixed on a wall on the left. A cable is attached to the right end of the beam. The cable makes an angle of 30.0° with respect to the horizontal and the right end of the cable is fixed to a wall on the right. At the right end of the cable hangs a 140.0 kg mass. The mass of the beam is 240.0 kg. See figure. A. Find the tension in the cable. B. Find the vertical and horizontal forces the hinge exerts on the left end of the beam. 29 A. The blades of a “Cuisinart” blender when run at the “mix” level, start from rest and reach 2.00 × 103 rpm (revolutions per minute) in 1.60 s. The edges of the blades are 3.10 cm from the center of the circle about which they rotate. 1. What is the angular acceleration of the blades in rad/s2 while they are accelerating? 2. Through how many rotations did the blades travel in that 1.60 s? 3. If the blades have a moment of inertia of 5.00 × 10-5 kg m2, what net torque did the blades feel while accelerating? B. A 7.50 × 10 N 4 shipping crate is hanging by a cable attached to a uniform 1.20 × 104 N steel beam that can pivot at its base. A second cable supports the beam and is attached to a wall. See figure. 1. Determine the tension T in the upper cable. 2. Determine the magnitude of the force exerted on the beam at its base. See drawing. 30. The drawing shows a uniform ladder of length L and weight 220 N. The ladder is sitting at an angle of 30° above the horizontal resting on the corner of a concrete wall at a point that is one-fourth of the way from the end of the ladder. A 640 N construction worker is standing on the ladder one-third of the way up from the end of the ladder which is resting on the ground. Assume the corner of the wall on which the ladder rests exerts only a normal force on the ladder at the point where there is contact. A. What is the magnitude of the normal force the wall exerts on the ladder? B. Find the magnitude of both the normal force the ground exerts on the left end of the ladder and the static frictional force the ground exerts on the left end of the ladder. 31. A. A solid, right circular cylinder (radius = 0.150 m, height = 0.120 m) has a mass m. The cylinder is floating in a tank in the interface between two liquids that do not mix: water on the bottom and oil above. One-third of the cylinder is in the oil layer (Doil = 725 kg/m ) 3 and two-thirds in the water layer (Dwater = 1.00 × 10 kg/m ). See 3 3 drawing. Note: V(circular cylinder) = B r2 h. 1. Find the mass of the cylinder. 2. With the cylinder present, take the thickness of the oil layer to be 0.200 m and the thickness of the water layer to be 0.300 m. What is the gauge pressure at the bottom of the tank? Assume the top of the oil layer is exposed to the atmosphere. B. A block rests on a frictionless horizontal surface and is attached to a spring. When set into simple harmonic motion, the block oscillates back and forth with an angular frequency of T = 7.52 rad/s. The drawing indicates the position of the block when the spring is unstretched. That position is labeled “x = 0 m” in the drawing. The drawing also shows a small bottle whose left edge is located at Xb = 0.0900 m. The block is now pulled to the right, stretching the spring by Xs = 0.0343 m, and is then thrown to the left, i.e., given an initial push to the left. In order for the block to knock over the bottle when it is moving to the right, it must be “thrown” with an initial speed to the left v0. Ignoring the width of the block, what is the minimum value of v0? 32. B. Three objects, a disk (ICM = ½ MR ), a hoop (ICM = MR ), and a hollow ball (ICM = b MR ) all have 2 2 2 the same mass and radius. Each is subject to the same uniform tangential force that causes the object, starting from rest, to rotate with increasing angular speed about an axis through the center of mass for each object. In the case of the hollow ball the tangential force has a moment arm equal to the radius of the ball. In the space below, enter D for disk, H for hoop, and/or B for hollow ball, or same to best answer the question. 1. The object with the largest moment of inertia about the axis through the CM. 2. The object experiencing the greatest net torque. 3. The object with the greatest angular acceleration during the period the force is acting. 4. The object rotating with the smallest angular speed assuming the force has been acting for the same length of time on each object. 33. A. A uniform disk (D), hoop (H), and sphere (S), all with the same mass and radius, can freely rotate about an axis through the center of mass (CM) of each. A massless string is wrapped around each item. The string is used to apply a constant and equal tangential force to each object. See figure. For the statements below, enter D, H, S, none or the same. Assume all objects start from rest at the same instant. 1. The one with the smallest moment of inertia about the shown axis. 2. The object experiencing the largest net torque. 3. The object undergoing the smallest angular acceleration. 4. The object with the largest angular speed after an elapsed time of 5.0 s. 5. The object for which the largest amount of string has unraveled in 5.0 s. 6. The object with the smallest KErot after 5.0 s. 7. The object that undergoes the most rotations in 5.0 s. B. A spherical object is completely immersed in a liquid of density Dliq some distance above the bottom of the vessel. See figure. The upper surface is initially open to the earth’s atmosphere at sea level. Assume the liquid and object are both incompressible. For the items below, indicate whether the object sinks to the bottom (B), rises to the surface (T), or does nothing (N). 1. The vessel is brought to Salt Lake City. 2. Salt is dissolved in the liquid in the same way fresh water is turned into salt water. 3. The top 50 cm3 of the liquid is removed from the vessel. 4. The entire apparatus is transported to the surface of the moon. 5. The volume of the spherical object is increased by heating it without heating the liquid. 6. The spherical object is moved 10 cm farther down in the vessel and released. 7. A mass is placed on the top surface of the liquid in the vessel increasing the pressure at the surface. No fluid leaks. 34. A 2.20 × 103 N uniform beam is attached to an overhead beam as shown in the drawing. A 3.60 × 103 N trunk hangs from an attachment to the beam two-thirds of the way down from the upper connection of the beam to the overhead support. A cable is tied to the lower end of the beam and is also attached to the wall on the right. A. What is the tension in the cable connecting the lower end of the beam to the wall? B. What are magnitude of the vertical and horizontal components of the force the overhead beam exerts on the upper end of the beam at P? 35. A. A 12.0 kg block moves back and forth on a frictionless horizontal surface between two springs. The spring on the right has a force constant k = 825 N/m. When the block arrives at the spring on the right, it compresses that spring 0.180 m from its unstretched position. 1. What is the total mechanical energy of the block and two spring system? 2. With what speed does the block travel between the two springs while not in contact with either spring? 3. Suppose the block, after arriving at the left spring, remains in contact with that spring for a total time of 0.650 s, before separating on its way to the right spring? Using the connection between this 0.650 s and the period of oscillation between the block and the left spring, determine the spring constant of the left spring. B. A turkey baster (see figure) consists of a squeeze bulb attached to a plastic tube. When the bulb is squeezed and released, with the open end of the tube under the surface of the turkey gravy, the gravy rises in the tube to a distance h, as shown in the drawing. It can then be squirted over the turkey. Using Patm = 1.013 × 105 N/m2 for atmospheric pressure and 1.10 × 103 kg/m3 for the density of the gravy, determine the absolute pressure of the air in the bulb with the distance h = 0.160 m. Give answer to three significant digits. 36. A. The pictures below depict three glass vessels, each filled with a liquid. The liquids each have different densities, and DA > DB > DC. In vessel C an unknown block is neutrally buoyant halfway to the bottom and completely submerged. A, B, and/or C, or none are all possible answers. 1. _______ In which vessel(s) would the block sink all the way to the bottom? 2. _______ In which vessel(s) would the largest volume of the block be exposed above the surface of the liquid? 3. _______ In which vessel(s) would the buoyant forces on the block be the same? B. A swinging pendulum (A) and a mass-spring system (B) are built to have identical periods. For the statements below enter either A, B, U (unchanged) to best fit which oscillating system would have the larger period as a result of the change. 1. _______ The mass of the mass-spring system is increased. 2. _______ The mass of the swinging pendulum is increased without altering the location of its center of mass. 3. _______ The spring constant of the mass-spring system is increased. 4. _______ The length of the swinging pendulum system is increased. 5. _______ Both systems are taken to the moon and set oscillating. C. A block of mass m moves back and forth on a frictionless surface between two springs. See drawing. Assume kL > kR. For the statements below enter L for the left spring, R for the right spring, or same as the case may be. 1. _______ The spring that has the maximum compression when m is momentarily at rest. 2. _______ The spring that stores the larger elastic potential energy when maximally compressed. 3. _______ The spring that momentarily stops the block in the least time once the block arrives at the spring. 37. A uniform beam extending at right angles from a wall is used to display an advertising sign for an eatery. The beam is 2.50 m long an weighs 80.0 N. The sign, whose dimensions are 1.00 m by 0.800 m, is uniform, and weighs 200. N, hangs from the beam as shown in the drawing. A cable, attached to the wall of the eatery at a point on the beam where the inside end of the sign is attached to the beam and making an angle of 60.0° with the beam, supports this advertising structure. A. What is the magnitude of the tension in the cable supporting the beam? B. What are the magnitudes of the horizontal and vertical forces the wall exerts on the left end of the beam? 38. A. Examine the picture shown to the right. Initially, before the pump is turned on, the two masses (m1 = 1.00 kg, m2 = 2.75 kg) are held in place. the pressures above and below m1 are Patm = 1.01 × 10 N/m and 5 2 the spring is in its unstretched position. The pump is turned on and the masses are allowed to move. The mass m1 moves without friction inside a cylindrical piston of radius r = 3.85 cm. Once equilibrium is established, by what distance has the spring stretched? Take k = 2.00 × 103 N/m for the spring constant. B. A solid cylinder (radius 0.125 m and height 0.150 m) has a mass of 6.50 kg. The cylinder is floating in water. Oil (Doil = 725 kg/m ) is poured on top of the water until 3 the situation shown in the drawing results. How much of the height (in meters) of the cylinder remains in the water layer?
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Question 1 In order to properly manage expenses, the company investigates the amount of money spent by its sales office. The below numbers are related to six randomly selected receipts provided by the staff. $147 $124 $93 $158 $164 $171 a) Calculate ̅ , s2 and s for the expense data. b) Assume that the distribution of expenses is approximately normally distributed. Calculate estimates of tolerance intervals containing 68.26 percent, 95.44 percent, and 99.73 percent of all expenses by the sales office. c) If a member of the sales office submits a receipt with the amount of $190, should this expense be considered unusually high? Explain your answer. d) Compute and interpret the z-score for each of the six expenses. Question 2 A survey presents the results of a concept study for the taste of new food. Three hundred consumers between 18 and 49 years old were randomly selected. After sampling the new cuisine, each was asked to rate the quality of food. The rating was made on a scale from 1 to 5, with 5 representing “extremely agree with the quality” and with 1 representing “not at all agree with the new food.” The results obtained are given in Table 1. Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 18- to 49-year-old consumer a) Would give the phrase a rating of 4. b) Would give the phrase a rating of 3 or higher. c) Is in the 18–26 age group; the 27–35 age group; the 36–49 age group. d) Is a male who gives the phrase a rating of 5. e) Is a 36- to 49-year-old who gives the phrase a rating of 2. f) Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 18- to 49-year-old consumer is a 27- to 49-year-old who gives the phrase a rating of 3. g) Estimate the probability that a randomly selected 18- to 49-year-old consumer would 1) give the phrase a rating of 2 or 4 given that the consumer is male; 2) give the phrase a rating of 4 or 5 given that the consumer is female. Based on the results of parts 1 and 2, is the appeal of the phrase among males much different from the appeal of the phrase among females? Explain. h) Give the phrase a rating of 4 or 5, 1) given that the consumer is in the 18–26 age group; 2) given that the consumer is in the 27–35 age group; 3) given that the consumer is in the 36–49 age group. Table 1. Gender Age Group Rating Total Male Female 18-26 27-35 36-49 Extremely Appealing (5) 151 68 83 48 66 37 (4) 91 51 40 36 36 19 (3) 36 21 15 9 12 15 (2) 13 7 6 4 6 3 Not at all appealing(1) 9 3 6 4 3 2 Question 3 Based on the reports provided by the brokers, it is concluded that the annual returns on common stocks are approximately normally distributed with a mean of 17.8 percent and a standard deviation of 29.3 percent. On the other hand, the company reports that the annual returns on tax-free municipal bonds are approximately normally distributed with a mean return of 4.7 percent and a standard deviation of 10.2 percent. Find the probability that a randomly selected a) Common stock will give a positive yearly return. b) Tax-free municipal bond will give a positive yearly return. c) Common stock will give more than a 13 percent return. d) Tax-free municipal bond will give more than a 11.5 percent return. e) Common stock will give a loss of at least 7 percent. f) Tax-free municipal bond will give a loss of at least 10 percent. Question 4 Based on a sample of 176 workers, it is estimated that the mean amount of paid time lost during a three-month period was 1.4 days per employee with a standard deviation of 1.3 days. It is also estimated that the mean amount of unpaid time lost during a three-month period was 1.0 day per employee with a standard deviation of 1.8 days. We randomly select a sample of 100 workers. a) What is the probability that the average amount of paid time lost during a three-month period for the 100 blue-collar workers will exceed 1.5 days? Assume σ equals 1.3 days. b) What is the probability that the average amount of unpaid time lost during a three-month period for the 100 workers will exceed 1.5 days? Assume σ equals 1.8 days. c) A sample of 100 workers is randomly selected. Suppose the sample mean amount of unpaid time lost during a three-month period actually exceeds 1.5 days. Would it be reasonable to conclude that the mean amount of unpaid time lost has increased above the previously estimated 1.0 day? Explain. Assume σ still equals 1.8 days.
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Question 1 1. When the rules of perspective are applied in order to represent unusual points of view, we call this ________. a. foreshortening b. chiaroscuro c. convergence d. highlight e. overlapping 10 points Question 2 1. A flat work of art has two dimensions: ________ and width. a. breadth b. depth c. size d. mass e. height 10 points Question 3 1. Méret Oppenheim was part of an art movement that rejected rational, conscious thought. Her fur-lined teacup and saucer, Object, conjures an unexpected and illogical sensation for the viewer by using ________ texture. a. smooth b. familiar c. expected d. subversive e. silky 10 points Question 4 1. In James Allen’s etching The Connectors, an image of workers erecting the Empire State Building, the artist created a feeling of great height by using ________ line to lead the viewer’s eye diagonally downward. a. horizontal b. communicative c. regular d. directional e. implied 10 points Question 5 1. Because it is three-dimensional, a form has these three spatial measurements: height, width, and ________. a. mass b. length c. size d. depth e. strength 10 points Question 6 1. The ancient Egyptian depiction of the journey of the Sun god Re (0.1) was painted on ________. a. stone b. a coffin c. the wall of a tomb d. copper e. a vase 10 points Question 7 1. The area covered by a pattern is called the ________. a. field b. motif c. background d. size e. foreground 10 points Question 8 1. ________ balance is achieved when two halves of a composition are not mirror images of each other. a. unified b. radial c. varied d. asymmetrical e. symmetrical 10 points Question 9 1. In Audrey Flack’s Marilyn Monroe, the burning candle, the flower, and the hourglass are typical of a kind of symbolism in art that reminds us of death. This kind of symbolism is known as ________. a. vanitas b. feminism c. abstract d. eternal e. none of the other answers 10 points Question 10 1. Tibetan Buddhist monks create colored sand images with a radial design. This representation of the universe is called a ________. a. prayer wheel b. rotunda c. mandala d. prayer flag e. lotus 10 points Question 11 1. In The School of Athens, Raphael focused our attention on two Greek philosophers positioned in the center of the work. They are ________ and ________. a. Plato . . . Aristotle b. Aristotle . . . Socrates c. Diogenes . . . Socrates d. Diogenes . . . Aristotle e. Socrates . . . Plato 10 points Question 12 1. In his Obey campaign poster Shepard Fairey used a striking contrast between positive and ________ shapes to attract the attention of the public. a. figure–ground reversal b. implied c. geometric d. organic e. negative 10 points Question 13 1. The Italian architect Andrea Palladio created a radial design in his plan for the Villa Capra. This building is also called the ________. a. Colosseum b. Pantheon c. Villa Rotonda d. Villa Caprese e. Parthenon 10 points Question 14 1. The French artist Georges Seurat employed a new technique to create a jewel-like diffusion of light and vibration of color in his work The Circus. This type of painting, made up of small dots of color, is known as ________. a. Fauvism b. Luminism c. pointillism d. Pop art e. Impressionism 10 points Question 15 1. The rarity of an artwork, and its value, are often closely related. True False 10 points Question 16 1. By orienting lines so that they attract attention to a specific area of a work of art the artist is using ________. a. actual line b. implied line c. directional line d. measured line e. chaotic line 10 points Question 17 1. Kindred Spirits by Asher Brown Durand uses the effects of ________ to give a sense of the vastness of the American landscape. a. pencil drawing b. geometry c. atmospheric perspective d. foreshortening e. color 10 points Question 18 1. The opposite of emphasis is ________. a. subordination b. tone c. focal point d. color e. proportion 10 points Question 19 1. Gustav Klimt’s portrait of Adele Bloch-Bauer was typical of his portraits of the wives and sisters of ________. a. foreign tourists b. Nazi rulers c. German scientists d. Austrian businessmen e. important politicians 10 points Question 20 1. The combination of jarring vertical and diagonal lines in Vincent van Gogh’s The Bedroom creates an atmosphere of ________. a. happiness b. rest c. anxiety d. expectation e. calm 10 points Question 21 1. If the clothing of the saint was the only light area in The Funeral of St. Bonaventure, the viewer’s eye would not be easily drawn to any other areas of the composition. True False 10 points Question 22 1. Miriam Schapiro’s collage Baby Blocks combines two different kinds of shape. ________ is the term used to describe a shape that suggests the natural world, while the term geometric suggests mathematical regularity. a. conceptual b. implied c. organic d. regular e. artificial 10 points Question 23 1. Any of the ________ of art can help focus our interest on specific areas of a work of art. a. styles b. elements c. periods d. tones e. themes 10 points Question 24 1. An artwork can be described as non-objective if its subject matter is ________. a. three-dimensional b. difficult c. unrecognizable d. recognizable e. animals 10 points Question 25 1. Match the methodological approach with its definition: biographical analysis feminist analysis formal analysis contextual analysis 2. iconographical analysis a. analyzes the use of formal elements in a work. b. considers the role of women in an artwork c. interprets objects and figures in the artwork as symbols d. considers the artist’s personal experiences e. considers the religious, political, and social environment in which the artwork was made and viewed 10 points Question 26 1. Alexander Calder invented the ________, a type of suspended, balanced sculpture that uses air currents to power its movement. a. mime b. relief c. mobile d. stabile e. zoetrope 10 points Question 27 1. Louise Nevelson’s work White Vertical Water is a realistic depiction of fish in a river. True False 10 points Question 28 1. William G. Wall’s Fort Edward was published as a ________. a. print b. watercolor c. photograph d. oil painting e. newspaper article 10 points Question 29 1. Artemisia Gentileschi worked during this stylistic and historical period. a. Surrealism b. Impressionism c. Baroque d. Renaissance e. Pop art 10 points Question 30 1. The process of using a series of parallel lines set close to one another to differentiate planes of value in a work of art is called ________. a. highlight b. core shadow c. perspective d. hatching e. palette 10 points Question 31 1. The artist Canaletto, in his drawing of the Ducal Palace in Venice, created an impression of three dimensions by using line to show the division between ________. a. planes b. two figures c. colors d. time periods e. mountains 10 points Question 32 1. Marisol’s work Father Damien was created to memorialize the heroism of a priest who lost his life helping the victims of leprosy. This sculpture stands in front of the State Capitol Building in the U.S. State of ________. a. Arizona b. Pennsylvania c. Utah d. Tennessee e. Hawaii 10 points Question 33 1. The medium of Marc Quinn’s Self is: a. clay b. the artist’s toenail clippings c. wood d. real human hair e. the artist’s own blood 10 points Question 34 1. The work now known as the Watts Towers was in fact given a different title by its creator. That title was ________. a. Nuestro Pueblo b. LA Towers c. Found Objects d. it had no title originally e. Skyscrapers 1 and 2 10 points Question 35 1. Why do we presume that the head of a woman from Benin (0.18) was made for someone wealthy? a. because it was made to be shown in a museum b. because it strongly resembles the Queen c. because it has a price carved on the back d. because it was made from rare ivory e. it was definitely not made for anyone wealthy 10 points Question 36 1. Shahzia Sikander’s art is best described as Abstract Expressionism Naturalist sculpture Pop Art Miniature Painting 10 points Question 37 1. A sunset is a work of art. True False 10 points Question 38 1. A mens’ urinal became a well known artwork in the 20th century. True False 10 points Question 39 1. Which artist has torn out people’s lawns to design and build edible gardens across the country? Andrea Zittel Fritz Haeg Ruben Ortiz Torres Mark Newport
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Read this article and answer this question in 2 pages : Answers should be from the below article only. What is the difference between “standards-based” and “standards-embedded” curriculum? what are the curricular implications of this difference? Article: In 2007, at the dawn of 21st century in education, it is impossible to talk about teaching, curriculum, schools, or education without discussing standards . standards-based v. standards-embedded curriculum We are in an age of accountability where our success as educators is determined by individual and group mastery of specific standards dem- onstrated by standardized test per- formance. Even before No Child Left Behind (NCLB), standards and measures were used to determine if schools and students were success- ful (McClure, 2005). But, NCLB has increased the pace, intensity, and high stakes of this trend. Gifted and talented students and their teach- ers are significantly impacted by these local or state proficiency stan- dards and grade-level assessments (VanTassel-Baska & Stambaugh, 2006). This article explores how to use these standards in the develop- ment of high-quality curriculum for gifted students. NCLB, High-Stakes State Testing, and Standards- Based Instruction There are a few potentially positive outcomes of this evolution to public accountability. All stakeholders have had to ask themselves, “Are students learning? If so, what are they learning and how do we know?” In cases where we have been allowed to thoughtfully evaluate curriculum and instruction, we have also asked, “What’s worth learning?” “When’s the best time to learn it?” and “Who needs to learn it?” Even though state achievement tests are only a single measure, citizens are now offered a yardstick, albeit a nar- row one, for comparing communities, schools, and in some cases, teachers. Some testing reports allow teachers to identify for parents what their chil- dren can do and what they can not do. Testing also has focused attention on the not-so-new observations that pov- erty, discrimination and prejudices, and language proficiency impacts learning. With enough ceiling (e.g., above-grade-level assessments), even gifted students’ actual achievement and readiness levels can be identi- fied and provide a starting point for appropriately differentiated instruc- tion (Tomlinson, 2001). Unfortunately, as a veteran teacher for more than three decades and as a teacher-educator, my recent observa- tions of and conversations with class- room and gifted teachers have usually revealed negative outcomes. For gifted children, their actual achievement level is often unrecognized by teachers because both the tests and the reporting of the results rarely reach above the student’s grade-level placement. Assessments also focus on a huge number of state stan- dards for a given school year that cre- ate “overload” (Tomlinson & McTighe, 2006) and have a devastating impact on the development and implementation of rich and relevant curriculum and instruction. In too many scenarios, I see teachers teach- ing directly to the test. And, in the worst cases, some teachers actually teach The Test. In those cases, The Test itself becomes the curriculum. Consistently I hear, “Oh, I used to teach a great unit on ________ but I can’t do it any- more because I have to teach the standards.” Or, “I have to teach my favorite units in April and May after testing.” If the outcomes can’t be boiled down to simple “I can . . .” state- ments that can be posted on a school’s walls, then teachers seem to omit poten- tially meaningful learning opportunities from the school year. In many cases, real education and learning are being trivial- ized. We seem to have lost sight of the more significant purpose of teaching and learning: individual growth and develop- ment. We also have surrendered much of the joy of learning, as the incidentals, the tangents, the “bird walks” are cut short or elimi- nated because teachers hear the con- stant ticking clock of the countdown to the state test and feel the pressure of the way-too-many standards that have to be covered in a mere 180 school days. The accountability movement has pushed us away from seeing the whole child: “Students are not machines, as the standards movement suggests; they are volatile, complicated, and paradoxical” (Cookson, 2001, p. 42). How does this impact gifted chil- dren? In many heterogeneous class- rooms, teachers have retreated to traditional subject delineations and traditional instruction in an effort to ensure direct standards-based instruc- tion even though “no solid basis exists in the research literature for the ways we currently develop, place, and align educational standards in school cur- ricula” (Zenger & Zenger, 2002, p. 212). Grade-level standards are often particularly inappropriate for the gifted and talented whose pace of learning, achievement levels, and depth of knowledge are significantly beyond their chronological peers. A broad-based, thematically rich, and challenging curriculum is the heart of education for the gifted. Virgil Ward, one of the earliest voices for a differen- tial education for the gifted, said, “It is insufficient to consider the curriculum for the gifted in terms of traditional subjects and instructional processes” (Ward, 1980, p. 5). VanTassel-Baska Standards-Based v. Standards-Embedded Curriculum gifted child today 45 Standards-Based v. Standards-Embedded Curriculum and Stambaugh (2006) described three dimensions of successful curriculum for gifted students: content mastery, pro- cess and product, and epistemological concept, “understanding and appre- ciating systems of knowledge rather than individual elements of those systems” (p. 9). Overemphasis on testing and grade-level standards limits all three and therefore limits learning for gifted students. Hirsch (2001) concluded that “broad gen- eral knowledge is the best entrée to deep knowledge” (p. 23) and that it is highly correlated with general ability to learn. He continued, “the best way to learn a subject is to learn its gen- eral principles and to study an ample number of diverse examples that illustrate those principles” (Hirsch, 2001, p. 23). Principle-based learn- ing applies to both gifted and general education children. In order to meet the needs of gifted and general education students, cur- riculum should be differentiated in ways that are relevant and engaging. Curriculum content, processes, and products should provide challenge, depth, and complexity, offering multiple opportunities for problem solving, creativity, and exploration. In specific content areas, the cur- riculum should reflect the elegance and sophistication unique to the discipline. Even with this expanded view of curriculum in mind, we still must find ways to address the current reality of state standards and assess- ments. Standards-Embedded Curriculum How can educators address this chal- lenge? As in most things, a change of perspective can be helpful. Standards- based curriculum as described above should be replaced with standards- embedded curriculum. Standards- embedded curriculum begins with broad questions and topics, either discipline specific or interdisciplinary. Once teachers have given thoughtful consideration to relevant, engaging, and important content and the con- nections that support meaning-making (Jensen, 1998), they next select stan- dards that are relevant to this content and to summative assessments. This process is supported by the backward planning advocated in Understanding by Design by Wiggins and McTighe (2005) and its predecessors, as well as current thinkers in other fields, such as Covey (Tomlinson & McTighe, 2006). It is a critical component of differenti- ating instruction for advanced learners (Tomlinson, 2001) and a significant factor in the Core Parallel in the Parallel Curriculum Model (Tomlinson et al., 2002). Teachers choose from standards in multiple disciplines at both above and below grade level depending on the needs of the students and the classroom or program structure. Preassessment data and the results of prior instruc- tion also inform this process of embed- ding appropriate standards. For gifted students, this formative assessment will result in “more advanced curricula available at younger ages, ensuring that all levels of the standards are traversed in the process” (VanTassel-Baska & Little, 2003, p. 3). Once the essential questions, key content, and relevant standards are selected and sequenced, they are embedded into a coherent unit design and instructional decisions (grouping, pacing, instructional methodology) can be made. For gifted students, this includes the identification of appropri- ate resources, often including advanced texts, mentors, and independent research, as appropriate to the child’s developmental level and interest. Applying Standards- Embedded Curriculum What does this look like in practice? In reading the possible class- room applications below, consider these three Ohio Academic Content Standards for third grade: 1. Math: “Read thermometers in both Fahrenheit and Celsius scales” (“Academic Content Standards: K–12 Mathematics,” n.d., p. 71). 2. Social Studies: “Compare some of the cultural practices and products of various groups of people who have lived in the local community including artistic expression, religion, language, and food. Compare the cultural practices and products of the local community with those of other communities in Ohio, the United States, and countries of the world” (Academic Content Standards: K–12 Social Studies, n.d., p. 122). 3. Life Science: “Observe and explore how fossils provide evidence about animals that lived long ago and the nature of the environment at that time” (Academic Content Standards: K–12 Science, n.d., p. 57). When students are fortunate to have a teacher who is dedicated to helping all of them make good use of their time, the gifted may have a preassessment opportunity where they can demonstrate their familiarity with the content and potential mastery of a standard at their grade level. Students who pass may get to read by them- selves for the brief period while the rest of the class works on the single outcome. Sometimes more experienced teachers will create opportunities for gifted and advanced students Standards-Based v. Standards-Embedded Curriculum to work on a standard in the same domain or strand at the next higher grade level (i.e., accelerate through the standards). For example, a stu- dent might be able to work on a Life Science standard for fourth grade that progresses to other communities such as ecosystems. These above-grade-level standards can provide rich material for differentiation, advanced problem solving, and more in-depth curriculum integration. In another classroom scenario, a teacher may focus on the math stan- dard above, identifying the standard number on his lesson plan. He creates or collects paper thermometers, some showing measurement in Celsius and some in Fahrenheit. He also has some real thermometers. He demonstrates thermometer use with boiling water and with freezing water and reads the different temperatures. Students complete a worksheet that has them read thermometers in Celsius and Fahrenheit. The more advanced students may learn how to convert between the two scales. Students then practice with several questions on the topic that are similar in structure and content to those that have been on past proficiency tests. They are coached in how to answer them so that the stan- dard, instruction, formative assess- ment, and summative assessment are all aligned. Then, each student writes a statement that says, “I can read a thermometer using either Celsius or Fahrenheit scales.” Both of these examples describe a standards-based environment, where the starting point is the standard. Direct instruction to that standard is followed by an observable student behavior that demonstrates specific mastery of that single standard. The standard becomes both the start- ing point and the ending point of the curriculum. Education, rather than opening up a student’s mind, becomes a series of closed links in a chain. Whereas the above lessons may be differentiated to some extent, they have no context; they may relate only to the next standard on the list, such as, “Telling time to the nearest minute and finding elapsed time using a cal- endar or a clock.” How would a “standards-embed- ded” model of curriculum design be different? It would begin with the development of an essential ques- tion such as, “Who or what lived here before me? How were they different from me? How were they the same? How do we know?” These questions might be more relevant to our con- temporary highly mobile students. It would involve place and time. Using this intriguing line of inquiry, students might work on the social studies stan- dard as part of the study of their home- town, their school, or even their house or apartment. Because where people live and what they do is influenced by the weather, students could look into weather patterns of their area and learn how to measure temperature using a Fahrenheit scale so they could see if it is similar now to what it was a century ago. Skipping ahead to consideration of the social studies standard, students could then choose another country, preferably one that uses Celsius, and do the same investigation of fossils, communities, and the like. Students could complete a weather comparison, looking at the temperature in Celsius as people in other parts of the world, such as those in Canada, do. Thus, learning is contextualized and connected, dem- onstrating both depth and complexity. This approach takes a lot more work and time. It is a sophisticated integrated view of curriculum devel- opment and involves in-depth knowl- edge of the content areas, as well as an understanding of the scope and sequence of the standards in each dis- cipline. Teachers who develop vital single-discipline units, as well as inter- disciplinary teaching units, begin with a central topic surrounded by subtopics and connections to other areas. Then they connect important terms, facts, or concepts to the subtopics. Next, the skilled teacher/curriculum devel- oper embeds relevant, multileveled standards and objectives appropriate to a given student or group of stu- dents into the unit. Finally, teachers select the instructional strategies and develop student assessments. These assessments include, but are not lim- ited to, the types of questions asked on standardized and state assessments. Comparing Standards- Based and Standards- Embedded Curriculum Design Following is an articulation of the differences between standards-based and standards-embedded curriculum design. (See Figure 1.) 1. The starting point. Standards- based curriculum begins with the grade-level standard and the underlying assumption that every student needs to master that stan- dard at that moment in time. In standards-embedded curriculum, the multifaceted essential ques- tion and students’ needs are the starting points. 2. Preassessment. In standards- based curriculum and teaching, if a preassessment is provided, it cov- ers a single standard or two. In a standards-embedded curriculum, preassessment includes a broader range of grade-level and advanced standards, as well as students’ knowledge of surrounding content such as background experiences with the subject, relevant skills (such as reading and writing), and continued on page ?? even learning style or interests. gifted child today 47 Standards-Based v. Standards-Embedded Curriculum Standards Based Standards Embedded Starting Points The grade-level standard. Whole class’ general skill level Essential questions and content relevant to individual students and groups. Preassessment Targeted to a single grade-level standard. Short-cycle assessments. Background knowledge. Multiple grade-level standards from multiple areas connected by the theme of the unit. Includes annual learning style and interest inventories. Acceleration/ Enrichment To next grade-level standard in the same strand. To above-grade-level standards, as well as into broader thematically connected content. Language Arts Divided into individual skills. Reading and writing skills often separated from real-world relevant contexts. The language arts are embedded in all units and themes and connected to differentiated processes and products across all content areas. Instruction Lesson planning begins with the standard as the objective. Sequential direct instruction progresses through the standards in each content area separately. Strategies are selected to introduce, practice, and demonstrate mastery of all grade-level standards in all content areas in one school year. Lesson planning begins with essential questions, topics, and significant themes. Integrated instruction is designed around connections among content areas and embeds all relevant standards. Assessment Format modeled after the state test. Variety of assessments including questions similar to the state test format. Teacher Role Monitor of standards mastery. Time manager. Facilitator of instructional design and student engagement with learning, as well as assessor of achievement. Student Self- Esteem “I can . . .” statements. Star Charts. Passing “the test.” Completed projects/products. Making personal connections to learning and the theme/topic. Figure 1. Standards based v. standards-embedded instruction and gifted students. and the potential political outcry of “stepping on the toes” of the next grade’s teacher. Few classroom teachers have been provided with the in-depth professional develop- ment and understanding of curric- ulum compacting that would allow them to implement this effectively. In standards-embedded curricu- lum, enrichment and extensions of learning are more possible and more interesting because ideas, top- ics, and questions lend themselves more easily to depth and complex- ity than isolated skills. 4. Language arts. In standards- based classrooms, the language arts have been redivided into sepa- rate skills, with reading separated from writing, and writing sepa- rated from grammar. To many concrete thinkers, whole-language approaches seem antithetical to teaching “to the standards.” In a standards-embedded classroom, integrated language arts skills (reading, writing, listening, speak- ing, presenting, and even pho- nics) are embedded into the study of every unit. Especially for the gifted, the communication and language arts are essential, regard- less of domain-specific talents (Ward, 1980) and should be com- ponents of all curriculum because they are the underpinnings of scholarship in all areas. 5. Instruction. A standards-based classroom lends itself to direct instruction and sequential pro- gression from one standard to the next. A standards-embedded class- room requires a variety of more open-ended instructional strate- gies and materials that extend and diversify learning rather than focus it narrowly. Creativity and differ- entiation in instruction and stu- dent performance are supported more effectively in a standards- embedded approach. 6. Assessment. A standards-based classroom uses targeted assess- ments focused on the structure and content of questions on the externally imposed standardized test (i.e., proficiency tests). A stan- dards-embedded classroom lends itself to greater use of authentic assessment and differentiated 3. Acceleration/Enrichment. In a standards-based curriculum, the narrow definition of the learning outcome (a test item) often makes acceleration or curriculum compact- ing the only path for differentiating instruction for gifted, talented, and/ or advanced learners. This rarely happens, however, because of lack of materials, knowledge, o
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GEOGRAPHY 325V – “Take Home Exam” 5 LIST/SHORT ANSWER – Worth 10 points each: 50 points. 1) List the 8 eras of New Mexico geography: name three Athabaskan Nations and three Pueblo Nations 2) List and briefly explain the 6 factors that made Spanish settlement in New Mexico successful 3) List and briefly explain 4 types of land grants given by Spain and Mexico: explain three ways land grants were lost during the American Period, and say how many acres of the original grants were retained. 4) Briefly explain how the Manhattan Project happened in New Mexico. In your view, was dropping the atomic bombs on Japan the right thing to do – explain your opinion using facts. How has this history affected New Mexico’s economy today? 5) List and briefly explain 6 landscape traits created by the Laws of the Indies 10 EXPANDED DEFINITIONS – Define and explain each term. 4 points each: 40 points. Chihuahuan Desert: where is it, what season does it rain, and what is a typical plant found here? Don Juan de Oñate: who was he, what year did he come to NM, and what was his significance in the history of New Mexico? El Camino Real: what was it and why was it important? Repartimento: what was this system and how did cause anger in the early Spanish colony? Pueblo Revolt: when and what was it, and what was its outcome? Santuario de Chimayo: write a paragraph explaining its history and religious importance Mayordomo: who is this and what is their importance in the New Mexico landscape? US/Mexico Border Fence/Wall: what are the arguments for and against this project. What is your view? La Llorona: what is this basic story and what is its importance in NM culture? Pancho Villa’s raid on Columbus: what was this, why did it occur, and what was its importance in U.S. military history? ONE ANALYSIS QUESTION: Explain why there was so much resistance in Washington, DC to New Mexico becoming a state. Use two quotes from politicians of the time who were against statehood. Do you think New Mexico is still viewed with suspicion in the USA? Explain why or why not? 10 points.
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