8. Discuss the marketing and supply chain risks and benefits related to product complexity?

8. Discuss the marketing and supply chain risks and benefits related to product complexity?

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Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

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RMU Professional Workplace Communication/Talerico Questions for LA Reading 1: “Simplicity,” William Zinsser, 201-206 “The Maker’s Eye: Revising Your Own Manuscripts,” Donald M. Murray, 194-198 Please read the two articles—“Simplicity” and “The Maker’s Eye: Revising Your Own Manuscripts.” Then, answer the following questions in complete sentences, typed and double-spaced (every line); use 12-point type. The answers are due in class on Tuesday, September 8, when we will discuss them. “Simplicity,” William Zinsser, 201-206 1. What document or set of instructions have you read that you found wordy and difficult to read? How did you handle the situation? 2. What does Zinsser mean when he writes, “Our national tendency is to inflate and thereby sound important” (201)? Why is writing often like this? 3. What does the author say is the secret of good writing? Why is this secret important? 4. How can we, according to Zinsser, write clearly and simply? 5. Why is clear writing so important to today’s readers? 6. What two questions must the writer always ask? How might asking these questions during your writing—and when you are finished writing—improve your drafts? “The Maker’s Eye: Revising Your Own Manuscripts,” Donald M. Murray, 194-198.
 7. Murray lists many qualities of professional writers. What are three of them? 8. Why would science-fiction writer Ray Bradbury put away for one year a manuscript he has written, and then reread it “as a stranger” (195)? What would be the value of this? 9. For each of the following quotes by professional writers, write one sentence that summarizes the main point the writer is making: a) Nancy Hale: A writer “should be critical of everything that seems to him most delightful in his style. He should excise what he most admires because he wouldn’t thus admire it if he weren’t…in a sense protecting it from criticism” (195). b) John Ciardi: “The last act of the writing must be to become one’s own reader. It is, I suppose, a schizophrenic process, to begin passionately and to end critically, to begin hot and to end cold; and more important to be passion-hot and critic-cold at the same time” (195) c) Eleanor Estes: “The writer must survey his work critically, coolly, as though he were a stranger to it. He must be willing to prune, expertly and hard-heartedly. At the end of each revision, a manuscript may look…worked over, torn apart, pinned together, added to, deleted from, words changed and words changed back. Yet the book must maintain its orginal freshness and spontaneity” (195). d) Roald Dahl: “Good writing is essentially rewriting” (196). 10. Why do most readers, as Murray states, “underestimate the amount of rewriting it usually takes to produce spontaneous reading” (195)? Do you fit into this category? 11. List the 8 things the author says writers look for in creating their drafts. For each item on your list, write one sentence explaining what it means. 12. What are some of the things Murray says writers begin to learn by writing? Have you ever experienced any of these things when you were writing? Explain your answer. 13. What does Murray means when he states, “A piece of writing is never finished” (198)?

RMU Professional Workplace Communication/Talerico Questions for LA Reading 1: “Simplicity,” William Zinsser, 201-206 “The Maker’s Eye: Revising Your Own Manuscripts,” Donald M. Murray, 194-198 Please read the two articles—“Simplicity” and “The Maker’s Eye: Revising Your Own Manuscripts.” Then, answer the following questions in complete sentences, typed and double-spaced (every line); use 12-point type. The answers are due in class on Tuesday, September 8, when we will discuss them. “Simplicity,” William Zinsser, 201-206 1. What document or set of instructions have you read that you found wordy and difficult to read? How did you handle the situation? 2. What does Zinsser mean when he writes, “Our national tendency is to inflate and thereby sound important” (201)? Why is writing often like this? 3. What does the author say is the secret of good writing? Why is this secret important? 4. How can we, according to Zinsser, write clearly and simply? 5. Why is clear writing so important to today’s readers? 6. What two questions must the writer always ask? How might asking these questions during your writing—and when you are finished writing—improve your drafts? “The Maker’s Eye: Revising Your Own Manuscripts,” Donald M. Murray, 194-198.
 7. Murray lists many qualities of professional writers. What are three of them? 8. Why would science-fiction writer Ray Bradbury put away for one year a manuscript he has written, and then reread it “as a stranger” (195)? What would be the value of this? 9. For each of the following quotes by professional writers, write one sentence that summarizes the main point the writer is making: a) Nancy Hale: A writer “should be critical of everything that seems to him most delightful in his style. He should excise what he most admires because he wouldn’t thus admire it if he weren’t…in a sense protecting it from criticism” (195). b) John Ciardi: “The last act of the writing must be to become one’s own reader. It is, I suppose, a schizophrenic process, to begin passionately and to end critically, to begin hot and to end cold; and more important to be passion-hot and critic-cold at the same time” (195) c) Eleanor Estes: “The writer must survey his work critically, coolly, as though he were a stranger to it. He must be willing to prune, expertly and hard-heartedly. At the end of each revision, a manuscript may look…worked over, torn apart, pinned together, added to, deleted from, words changed and words changed back. Yet the book must maintain its orginal freshness and spontaneity” (195). d) Roald Dahl: “Good writing is essentially rewriting” (196). 10. Why do most readers, as Murray states, “underestimate the amount of rewriting it usually takes to produce spontaneous reading” (195)? Do you fit into this category? 11. List the 8 things the author says writers look for in creating their drafts. For each item on your list, write one sentence explaining what it means. 12. What are some of the things Murray says writers begin to learn by writing? Have you ever experienced any of these things when you were writing? Explain your answer. 13. What does Murray means when he states, “A piece of writing is never finished” (198)?

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the late 1960s and early 1970s were years of turmoil in the U.S. Psychologists thought that rioting was related to temperature, with hotter weather making people more aggressive. Two investigators, however, argued that “the frequency of riots should increase in temperature beyond this level.” To support their theory, they collected data on 102 riots over the period 1967-71, including the temperature in the city where the riot took place. They plotted a histogram for the distribution of riots by temperature. There is a definite peak around 85 degrees. True or false and explain: the histogram shows that higher temperatures prevent riots

the late 1960s and early 1970s were years of turmoil in the U.S. Psychologists thought that rioting was related to temperature, with hotter weather making people more aggressive. Two investigators, however, argued that “the frequency of riots should increase in temperature beyond this level.” To support their theory, they collected data on 102 riots over the period 1967-71, including the temperature in the city where the riot took place. They plotted a histogram for the distribution of riots by temperature. There is a definite peak around 85 degrees. True or false and explain: the histogram shows that higher temperatures prevent riots

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The Literary Analysis Essay is essentially an argument that proves what you see in a piece of literature by using evidence from the text to support you. You will have a thesis (your point/what you see) and support (evidence from the text) to persuade readers that you are making a reasonable point. To make things more interesting and meaningful, you will add in a personal reflection that ties your thesis to your own life in some way. Read at least two of the three stories listed below, and choose one of them to analyze: (click on the title to download and/or print a .pdf) “The Things They Carried,” by Tim O’Brien “Everyday Use,” by Alice Walker “The Yellow Wallpaper,” by Charlotte Perkins Gilman To make your argument, you will select a thesis that makes a persuasive case. You are asked to use MLA format and find a personal connection to the thesis that you select. The essay should be: 4 pages in length (minimum 1,000 words) 12-point font in Times New Roman or Arial double-spaced with a centered title and your name, the class, my name and the date in the upper left-hand side of the first page All of the papers you write for this class should be entirely your own work. The penalty for taking part or all of your ideas or words from someone else’s work is a zero for the assignment — and possibly, depending on the seriousness of the plagiarism, an “F” for the course. Your academic honesty is necessary for this course to be fair, effective, and worthwhile.

The Literary Analysis Essay is essentially an argument that proves what you see in a piece of literature by using evidence from the text to support you. You will have a thesis (your point/what you see) and support (evidence from the text) to persuade readers that you are making a reasonable point. To make things more interesting and meaningful, you will add in a personal reflection that ties your thesis to your own life in some way. Read at least two of the three stories listed below, and choose one of them to analyze: (click on the title to download and/or print a .pdf) “The Things They Carried,” by Tim O’Brien “Everyday Use,” by Alice Walker “The Yellow Wallpaper,” by Charlotte Perkins Gilman To make your argument, you will select a thesis that makes a persuasive case. You are asked to use MLA format and find a personal connection to the thesis that you select. The essay should be: 4 pages in length (minimum 1,000 words) 12-point font in Times New Roman or Arial double-spaced with a centered title and your name, the class, my name and the date in the upper left-hand side of the first page All of the papers you write for this class should be entirely your own work. The penalty for taking part or all of your ideas or words from someone else’s work is a zero for the assignment — and possibly, depending on the seriousness of the plagiarism, an “F” for the course. Your academic honesty is necessary for this course to be fair, effective, and worthwhile.

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1) To assess the accuracy of a laboratory scale, a standard weight known to weight exactly 10 grams is weighed repeatedly. The scale readings are Normally distributed with unknown mean (this mean is 10 grams if the scale has no bias, however). The standard deviation of the scale readings is known (from years of use) to be 0.0002 grams. The weight is measured five times, with a mean value of 10.0023 grams. Give a 95% confidence interval for the mean of repeated measurements of the weight. (Note that the calculator only allows room for 5 digits and a decimal, making this interval’s upper and lower values the same. To conquer this shortcoming of the calculator, consider measuring in “milligrams above 10”.)

1) To assess the accuracy of a laboratory scale, a standard weight known to weight exactly 10 grams is weighed repeatedly. The scale readings are Normally distributed with unknown mean (this mean is 10 grams if the scale has no bias, however). The standard deviation of the scale readings is known (from years of use) to be 0.0002 grams. The weight is measured five times, with a mean value of 10.0023 grams. Give a 95% confidence interval for the mean of repeated measurements of the weight. (Note that the calculator only allows room for 5 digits and a decimal, making this interval’s upper and lower values the same. To conquer this shortcoming of the calculator, consider measuring in “milligrams above 10”.)

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CHM114: Exam #1 CHM 114, S2015 Exam #1, Version B Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole 1amu = 1.66·10-24 g 1 cal=4.184 J \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #1 1) What volume (mL) of a concentrated solution of sodium hydroxide (6.00 M) must be diluted to 200.0 mL to make a 0.880 M solution of sodium hydroxide? A) 2.64 B) 176 C) 29.3 D) 26.4 E) 50.0 2) Sulfur and fluorine react in a combination reaction to produce sulfur hexafluoride: S (s) + 3 F2 (g)  SF6 (g) The maximum amount of SF6 that can be produced from the reaction of 3.5 g of sulfur with 4.5 g of fluorine is __________ g. A) 5.8 B) 3.2 C) 12 D) 16 E) 8.0 3) Of the reactions below, only __________ is not spontaneous. A) 2 2 Mg (s) 2HCl + (aq)®MgCl (aq) + H (g) B) 2 4 2 4 2 2Ni (s) + H SO (aq) ®Ni SO (aq) + H (g) C) 3 2 2Al (s) + 6HBr (aq)®2AlBr (aq) + 3H (g) D) 3 3 2 2Ag (s) + 2HNO (aq) ®2AgNO (aq) + H (g) E) 2 2 Zn (s) + 2HI (aq) ®ZnI (aq) + H (g) 4) Which solution has the same number of moles of NaOH as 40.00 mL of 0.100M solution of NaOH? A) 20.00 mL of 0.200M solution of NaOH B) 25.00 mL of 0.175M solution of NaOH C) 30.00 mL of 0.145M solution of NaOH D) 50.00 mL of 0.125M solution of NaOH E) 100.00 mL of 0.0500M solution of NaOH 5) What is the concentration (M) of a NaCl solution prepared by dissolving 9.3 g of NaCl in sufficient water to give 450 mL of solution? A) 0.35 B) 0.16 C) 0.45 D) 27 E) -2 2.7×10 -3- CHM 114: Exam #1 6) In which reaction does the oxidation number of hydrogen change? A) 2 HCl (aq) NaOH (+ aq)® NaCl (aq) + H O (l) B) 2 2 CaO (s) + H O (l) ®Ca(OH) (s) C) 4 3 4 2 2 2 2 HClO (aq) + CaCO (s) ® Ca(ClO ) (aq) + H O (l) +CO (g) D) 2 2 2 3 SO (g) + H O (l)®H SO (aq) E) 2 2 2 Na (s) + 2H O (l) ® 2 NaOH (aq) + H (g) 7) Which atom has the smallest number of neutrons? A) phosphorus-30 B) chlorine-37 C) potassium-39 D) argon-40 E) calcium-40 8) The change in the internal energy of a system that absorbs 2,500 J of heat and that has received 7,655 J of work by the surroundings is __________ J. A) -10,155 B) -5,155 C) 7 −1.91×10 D) 10,155 E) 5,155 9) When a metal and a nonmetal react, the __________ tends to lose electrons and the __________ tends to gain electrons. A) metal, metal B) nonmetal, nonmetal C) metal, nonmetal D) nonmetal, metal E) None of the above, these elements share electrons. 10) What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in HNO2? A) -5 B) -3 C) 0 D) +3 E) +5 -4- CHM 114: Exam #1 11) Elements in Group 7A are known as the __________. A) chalcogens B) alkaline earth metals C) alkali metals D) halogens E) noble gases 12) The concentration of iodide ions in a 0.193 M solution of sodium iodide is __________. A) 0.193 M B) 0.386 M C) 0.0965 M D) 0.579 M E) 0.0643 M 13) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride: 6Li (s) + N2 (g)  2Li3N (s) How many moles of N2 are needed to react with 1.422 mol of lithium? A) 4.26 B) 0.710 C) 0.237 D) 2.13 E) 0.118 14) The balanced equation for the decomposition of sodium azide is __________. A) 2NaN3 (s)  Na2 (s) + 3 N2 (g) B) NaN3 (s)  Na (s) + N2 (g) C) 2NaN3 (s)  2Na (s) + 3 N2 (g) D) NaN3 (s)  Na (s) + N2 (g) + N (g) E) 2NaN3 (s)  2Na (s) + 2 N2 (g) 15) A sample of CH2F2 with a mass of 9.5 g contains __________ atoms of F. A) 2.2 × 1023 B) 38 C) 3.3 × 1024 D) 4.4 × 1023 E) 9.5 -5- CHM 114: Exam #1 16) An unknown element is found to have three naturally occurring isotopes with atomic masses of 35.9675 (0.337%), 37.9627 (0.063%), and 39.9624 (99.600%). Which of the following is the unknown element? A) Ar B) K C) Cl D) Ca E) None of the above could be the unknown element. 17) The value of DH° for the reaction below is -482 kJ. Calculate the heat (kJ) released to the surroundings when 24.0 g of CO (g) reacts completely. 2 2 2CO(g) +O (g)®2CO (g) A) 3 2.89×10 B) 207 C) 103 D) 65.7 E) -482 18) Lead (II) carbonate decomposes to give lead (II) oxide and carbon dioxide: PbCO3 (s)  PbO (s) + CO2 (g) __________ grams of carbondioxide will be produced by the decomposition of 7.50 g of lead (II) carbonate? A) 1.23 B) 2.50 C) 0.00936 D) 6.26 E) 7.83 19) Combining aqueous solutions of BaCl2 and K2SO4 affords a precipitate of 4 BaSO . Which ion(s) is/are spectator ions in the reaction? A) 2 Ba only + B) K+ only C) 2 2 Ba and SO4 + − D) SO4 2- and Cl- E) K+ and Cl- 20) Which combination will produce a precipitate? A) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) and HCl (aq) B) Cu(NO3)2 (aq) and KCl (aq) C) KOH (aq) and HNO3 (aq) D) AgNO3 (aq) and HNO3 (aq) E) NaOH (aq) and Sr(NO3)2 (aq) -6- CHM 114: Exam #1 21) There are __________ sulfur atoms in 50 molecules of C4H4S2. A) 1.5 × 1025 B) 100 C) 3.0 × 1025 D) 50 E) 6.02 × 1023 22) A compound contains 38.7% K, 13.9% N, and 47.4% O by mass. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) K2N2O3 B) KNO2 C) KNO3 D) K2NO3 E) K4NO5 23) Predict the empirical formula of the ionic compound that forms from sodium and fluorine. A) 2 Na F B) 2 NaF C) 2 3 Na F D) NaF E) 3 2 Na F 24) The mass % of Krypton in the binary compound KrF2 is __________. A) 18.48 B) 45.38 C) 68.80 D) 81.52 E) 31.20 25) The correct name for K2SO3 is __________. A) potassium sulfate B) potassium disulfide C) potassium sulfite D) potassium sulfide E) dipotassium sulfate -7- CHM 114: Exam #1

CHM114: Exam #1 CHM 114, S2015 Exam #1, Version B Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole 1amu = 1.66·10-24 g 1 cal=4.184 J \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #1 1) What volume (mL) of a concentrated solution of sodium hydroxide (6.00 M) must be diluted to 200.0 mL to make a 0.880 M solution of sodium hydroxide? A) 2.64 B) 176 C) 29.3 D) 26.4 E) 50.0 2) Sulfur and fluorine react in a combination reaction to produce sulfur hexafluoride: S (s) + 3 F2 (g)  SF6 (g) The maximum amount of SF6 that can be produced from the reaction of 3.5 g of sulfur with 4.5 g of fluorine is __________ g. A) 5.8 B) 3.2 C) 12 D) 16 E) 8.0 3) Of the reactions below, only __________ is not spontaneous. A) 2 2 Mg (s) 2HCl + (aq)®MgCl (aq) + H (g) B) 2 4 2 4 2 2Ni (s) + H SO (aq) ®Ni SO (aq) + H (g) C) 3 2 2Al (s) + 6HBr (aq)®2AlBr (aq) + 3H (g) D) 3 3 2 2Ag (s) + 2HNO (aq) ®2AgNO (aq) + H (g) E) 2 2 Zn (s) + 2HI (aq) ®ZnI (aq) + H (g) 4) Which solution has the same number of moles of NaOH as 40.00 mL of 0.100M solution of NaOH? A) 20.00 mL of 0.200M solution of NaOH B) 25.00 mL of 0.175M solution of NaOH C) 30.00 mL of 0.145M solution of NaOH D) 50.00 mL of 0.125M solution of NaOH E) 100.00 mL of 0.0500M solution of NaOH 5) What is the concentration (M) of a NaCl solution prepared by dissolving 9.3 g of NaCl in sufficient water to give 450 mL of solution? A) 0.35 B) 0.16 C) 0.45 D) 27 E) -2 2.7×10 -3- CHM 114: Exam #1 6) In which reaction does the oxidation number of hydrogen change? A) 2 HCl (aq) NaOH (+ aq)® NaCl (aq) + H O (l) B) 2 2 CaO (s) + H O (l) ®Ca(OH) (s) C) 4 3 4 2 2 2 2 HClO (aq) + CaCO (s) ® Ca(ClO ) (aq) + H O (l) +CO (g) D) 2 2 2 3 SO (g) + H O (l)®H SO (aq) E) 2 2 2 Na (s) + 2H O (l) ® 2 NaOH (aq) + H (g) 7) Which atom has the smallest number of neutrons? A) phosphorus-30 B) chlorine-37 C) potassium-39 D) argon-40 E) calcium-40 8) The change in the internal energy of a system that absorbs 2,500 J of heat and that has received 7,655 J of work by the surroundings is __________ J. A) -10,155 B) -5,155 C) 7 −1.91×10 D) 10,155 E) 5,155 9) When a metal and a nonmetal react, the __________ tends to lose electrons and the __________ tends to gain electrons. A) metal, metal B) nonmetal, nonmetal C) metal, nonmetal D) nonmetal, metal E) None of the above, these elements share electrons. 10) What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in HNO2? A) -5 B) -3 C) 0 D) +3 E) +5 -4- CHM 114: Exam #1 11) Elements in Group 7A are known as the __________. A) chalcogens B) alkaline earth metals C) alkali metals D) halogens E) noble gases 12) The concentration of iodide ions in a 0.193 M solution of sodium iodide is __________. A) 0.193 M B) 0.386 M C) 0.0965 M D) 0.579 M E) 0.0643 M 13) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride: 6Li (s) + N2 (g)  2Li3N (s) How many moles of N2 are needed to react with 1.422 mol of lithium? A) 4.26 B) 0.710 C) 0.237 D) 2.13 E) 0.118 14) The balanced equation for the decomposition of sodium azide is __________. A) 2NaN3 (s)  Na2 (s) + 3 N2 (g) B) NaN3 (s)  Na (s) + N2 (g) C) 2NaN3 (s)  2Na (s) + 3 N2 (g) D) NaN3 (s)  Na (s) + N2 (g) + N (g) E) 2NaN3 (s)  2Na (s) + 2 N2 (g) 15) A sample of CH2F2 with a mass of 9.5 g contains __________ atoms of F. A) 2.2 × 1023 B) 38 C) 3.3 × 1024 D) 4.4 × 1023 E) 9.5 -5- CHM 114: Exam #1 16) An unknown element is found to have three naturally occurring isotopes with atomic masses of 35.9675 (0.337%), 37.9627 (0.063%), and 39.9624 (99.600%). Which of the following is the unknown element? A) Ar B) K C) Cl D) Ca E) None of the above could be the unknown element. 17) The value of DH° for the reaction below is -482 kJ. Calculate the heat (kJ) released to the surroundings when 24.0 g of CO (g) reacts completely. 2 2 2CO(g) +O (g)®2CO (g) A) 3 2.89×10 B) 207 C) 103 D) 65.7 E) -482 18) Lead (II) carbonate decomposes to give lead (II) oxide and carbon dioxide: PbCO3 (s)  PbO (s) + CO2 (g) __________ grams of carbondioxide will be produced by the decomposition of 7.50 g of lead (II) carbonate? A) 1.23 B) 2.50 C) 0.00936 D) 6.26 E) 7.83 19) Combining aqueous solutions of BaCl2 and K2SO4 affords a precipitate of 4 BaSO . Which ion(s) is/are spectator ions in the reaction? A) 2 Ba only + B) K+ only C) 2 2 Ba and SO4 + − D) SO4 2- and Cl- E) K+ and Cl- 20) Which combination will produce a precipitate? A) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) and HCl (aq) B) Cu(NO3)2 (aq) and KCl (aq) C) KOH (aq) and HNO3 (aq) D) AgNO3 (aq) and HNO3 (aq) E) NaOH (aq) and Sr(NO3)2 (aq) -6- CHM 114: Exam #1 21) There are __________ sulfur atoms in 50 molecules of C4H4S2. A) 1.5 × 1025 B) 100 C) 3.0 × 1025 D) 50 E) 6.02 × 1023 22) A compound contains 38.7% K, 13.9% N, and 47.4% O by mass. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) K2N2O3 B) KNO2 C) KNO3 D) K2NO3 E) K4NO5 23) Predict the empirical formula of the ionic compound that forms from sodium and fluorine. A) 2 Na F B) 2 NaF C) 2 3 Na F D) NaF E) 3 2 Na F 24) The mass % of Krypton in the binary compound KrF2 is __________. A) 18.48 B) 45.38 C) 68.80 D) 81.52 E) 31.20 25) The correct name for K2SO3 is __________. A) potassium sulfate B) potassium disulfide C) potassium sulfite D) potassium sulfide E) dipotassium sulfate -7- CHM 114: Exam #1