1A. You administer an IV with 3 liters of 50 mM NaCl to a person whose osmolarity is 300 mOsM and whose total body water is 30 L. Fill in the table below: 3 L of 50 mM NaCl Total body ECF ICF Solute (osmoles) Volume (L) Concentration (OsM) 1B. The same person from the previous problem instead is given 1 liter of an IV contained 250 mOsM NaCl and 50 mOsM urea. Com Total body ECF ICF Solute Volume Concentration 2. You isolate intact mitochondria as described in class and equilibrate them in a buffered solution at pH 9, containing 0.1 M KCl and ADP plus Pi but without succinate. You then collect them by centrifugation, and quickly resuspend them in a new buffer at pH 7, without KCl , but with valinomycin (a K+ ionophore). Note: the K+ rushing out will create a huge positive charge differential. a. Describe what happens to proton concentrations in the intermembrane space and the matrix at each step of the study. b. What do you predict will be the result on oxygen consumption and the production of ATP?   3. A negatively charged nutrient (equivalent charge of one electron) is actively transported from the outside to the inside of a cell membrane; i.e. a cell captures energy from the hydrolysis of ATP in order to bring a molecule from the outside of the cell, where it is present at a low concentration, to the inside of the cell, where it is present at higher concentration. If the molecular species to be transported is present at a concentration of 34.5 nM on the outside of the cell, the potential on the outside of the cell is +75 mV, the potential on the inside of the cell is -35 mV, and the efficiency at which energy from the hydrolysis of ATP is captured for this active transport process is 59%, what is the maximum concentration of the transported species that may be achieved inside the cell?   4. . ATP + H2O -> ADP + Pi G0 = -7.3 kcal/mol In a chemical system that has two different solute concentrations, the Gibbs free energy that is available to do work is: ΔG = RT ln [C1/C2], where R and T are the gas constant (2 cal/mol K) and temperature (Kelvin). C1 and C2 refer to the concentrations (e.g. molarities, M) of a solute on different sides of a membrane. (a) For a one unit difference in pH across a cellular membrane, what is the energy (in kcal/mol) that is available to do chemical work? (b) This gradient is to be used to drive the reaction synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi. A concentration gradient of any solute has potential energy. When the solute is charged, a voltage is also established across the membrane, which also adds to the total potential energy. What fraction of the energy needed to drive the reaction is provided by the voltage across the membrane?

1A. You administer an IV with 3 liters of 50 mM NaCl to a person whose osmolarity is 300 mOsM and whose total body water is 30 L. Fill in the table below: 3 L of 50 mM NaCl Total body ECF ICF Solute (osmoles) Volume (L) Concentration (OsM) 1B. The same person from the previous problem instead is given 1 liter of an IV contained 250 mOsM NaCl and 50 mOsM urea. Com Total body ECF ICF Solute Volume Concentration 2. You isolate intact mitochondria as described in class and equilibrate them in a buffered solution at pH 9, containing 0.1 M KCl and ADP plus Pi but without succinate. You then collect them by centrifugation, and quickly resuspend them in a new buffer at pH 7, without KCl , but with valinomycin (a K+ ionophore). Note: the K+ rushing out will create a huge positive charge differential. a. Describe what happens to proton concentrations in the intermembrane space and the matrix at each step of the study. b. What do you predict will be the result on oxygen consumption and the production of ATP?   3. A negatively charged nutrient (equivalent charge of one electron) is actively transported from the outside to the inside of a cell membrane; i.e. a cell captures energy from the hydrolysis of ATP in order to bring a molecule from the outside of the cell, where it is present at a low concentration, to the inside of the cell, where it is present at higher concentration. If the molecular species to be transported is present at a concentration of 34.5 nM on the outside of the cell, the potential on the outside of the cell is +75 mV, the potential on the inside of the cell is -35 mV, and the efficiency at which energy from the hydrolysis of ATP is captured for this active transport process is 59%, what is the maximum concentration of the transported species that may be achieved inside the cell?   4. . ATP + H2O -> ADP + Pi G0 = -7.3 kcal/mol In a chemical system that has two different solute concentrations, the Gibbs free energy that is available to do work is: ΔG = RT ln [C1/C2], where R and T are the gas constant (2 cal/mol K) and temperature (Kelvin). C1 and C2 refer to the concentrations (e.g. molarities, M) of a solute on different sides of a membrane. (a) For a one unit difference in pH across a cellular membrane, what is the energy (in kcal/mol) that is available to do chemical work? (b) This gradient is to be used to drive the reaction synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi. A concentration gradient of any solute has potential energy. When the solute is charged, a voltage is also established across the membrane, which also adds to the total potential energy. What fraction of the energy needed to drive the reaction is provided by the voltage across the membrane?

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Nilsson & Riedel 9e, p. 349, Problem 9.13. A 80 kHz sinusoidal voltage has zero phase angle and a maximum amplitude of 25 mV. When this voltage is applied across the terminals of a capacitor, the resulting steady-state current has a maximum amplitude of 628.32 A. Numerical answer is [d] 50.0 nF. a) What is the frequency of the current in radians per second? b) What is the phase angle of the current? c) What is the capacitive reactance of the capacitor? d) What is the capacitance of the capacitor in microfarads? e) What is the impedance of the capacitor?

Nilsson & Riedel 9e, p. 349, Problem 9.13. A 80 kHz sinusoidal voltage has zero phase angle and a maximum amplitude of 25 mV. When this voltage is applied across the terminals of a capacitor, the resulting steady-state current has a maximum amplitude of 628.32 A. Numerical answer is [d] 50.0 nF. a) What is the frequency of the current in radians per second? b) What is the phase angle of the current? c) What is the capacitive reactance of the capacitor? d) What is the capacitance of the capacitor in microfarads? e) What is the impedance of the capacitor?

Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 Assignment 4 – Noise and Correlation 1. If a signal is measured as 2.5 V and the noise is 28 mV (28 × 10−3 V), what is the SNR in dB? 2. A single sinusoidal signal is found with some noise. If the RMS value of the noise is 0.5 V and the SNR is 10 dB, what is the RMS amplitude of the sinusoid? 3. The file signal_noise.mat contains a variable x that consists of a 1.0-V peak sinusoidal signal buried in noise. What is the SNR for this signal and noise? Assume that the noise RMS is much greater than the signal RMS. Note: “signal_noise.mat” and other files used in these assignments can be downloaded from the content area of Brightspace, within the “Data Files for Exercises” folder. These files can be opened in Matlab by copying into the active folder and double-clicking on the file or using the Matlab load command using the format: load(‘signal_noise.mat’). To discover the variables within the files use the Matlab who command. 4. An 8-bit ADC converter that has an input range of ±5 V is used to convert a signal that ranges between ±2 V. What is the SNR of the input if the input noise equals the quantization noise of the converter? Hint: Refer to Equation below to find the quantization noise: 5. The file filter1.mat contains the spectrum of a fourth-order lowpass filter as variable x in dB. The file also contains the corresponding frequencies of x in variable freq. Plot the spectrum of this filter both as dB versus log frequency and as linear amplitude versus linear frequency. The frequency axis should range between 10 and 400 Hz in both plots. Hint: Use Equation below to convert: Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 6. Generate one cycle of the square wave similar to the one shown below in a 500-point MATLAB array. Determine the RMS value of this waveform. [Hint: When you take the square of the data array, be sure to use a period before the up arrow so that MATLAB does the squaring point-by-point (i.e., x.^2).]. 7. A resistor produces 10 μV noise (i.e., 10 × 10−6 V noise) when the room temperature is 310 K and the bandwidth is 1 kHz (i.e., 1000 Hz). What current noise would be produced by this resistor? 8. A 3-ma current flows through both a diode (i.e., a semiconductor) and a 20,000-Ω (i.e., 20-kΩ) resistor. What is the net current noise, in? Assume a bandwidth of 1 kHz (i.e., 1 × 103 Hz). Which of the two components is responsible for producing the most noise? 9. Determine if the two signals, x and y, in file correl1.mat are correlated by checking the angle between them. 10. Modify the approach used in Practice Problem 3 to find the angle between short signals: Do not attempt to plot these vectors as it would require a 6-dimensional plot!

Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 Assignment 4 – Noise and Correlation 1. If a signal is measured as 2.5 V and the noise is 28 mV (28 × 10−3 V), what is the SNR in dB? 2. A single sinusoidal signal is found with some noise. If the RMS value of the noise is 0.5 V and the SNR is 10 dB, what is the RMS amplitude of the sinusoid? 3. The file signal_noise.mat contains a variable x that consists of a 1.0-V peak sinusoidal signal buried in noise. What is the SNR for this signal and noise? Assume that the noise RMS is much greater than the signal RMS. Note: “signal_noise.mat” and other files used in these assignments can be downloaded from the content area of Brightspace, within the “Data Files for Exercises” folder. These files can be opened in Matlab by copying into the active folder and double-clicking on the file or using the Matlab load command using the format: load(‘signal_noise.mat’). To discover the variables within the files use the Matlab who command. 4. An 8-bit ADC converter that has an input range of ±5 V is used to convert a signal that ranges between ±2 V. What is the SNR of the input if the input noise equals the quantization noise of the converter? Hint: Refer to Equation below to find the quantization noise: 5. The file filter1.mat contains the spectrum of a fourth-order lowpass filter as variable x in dB. The file also contains the corresponding frequencies of x in variable freq. Plot the spectrum of this filter both as dB versus log frequency and as linear amplitude versus linear frequency. The frequency axis should range between 10 and 400 Hz in both plots. Hint: Use Equation below to convert: Biomedical Signal and Image Processing (4800_420_001) Assigned on September 12th, 2017 6. Generate one cycle of the square wave similar to the one shown below in a 500-point MATLAB array. Determine the RMS value of this waveform. [Hint: When you take the square of the data array, be sure to use a period before the up arrow so that MATLAB does the squaring point-by-point (i.e., x.^2).]. 7. A resistor produces 10 μV noise (i.e., 10 × 10−6 V noise) when the room temperature is 310 K and the bandwidth is 1 kHz (i.e., 1000 Hz). What current noise would be produced by this resistor? 8. A 3-ma current flows through both a diode (i.e., a semiconductor) and a 20,000-Ω (i.e., 20-kΩ) resistor. What is the net current noise, in? Assume a bandwidth of 1 kHz (i.e., 1 × 103 Hz). Which of the two components is responsible for producing the most noise? 9. Determine if the two signals, x and y, in file correl1.mat are correlated by checking the angle between them. 10. Modify the approach used in Practice Problem 3 to find the angle between short signals: Do not attempt to plot these vectors as it would require a 6-dimensional plot!

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CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

Que 1: true of false a) Both silicon and germanium atoms have four valances electrons b) When forward-biased , a diode has a very high resistance c) A zener diode is designed to operate in the forward-bias region and has higher reverse breakdown voltage level than regular diode Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the questions: d) In semiconductor, in addition to the electron flow, there is also another kind of charge flow referred as………………. e) A silicon diode in placed in series with 2kΩresistor and a 14 V dc power supply. The current ID is: i) 6.65 mA ii) 2.2 mA iii)7.5 mA iv) 14 mA f) The series resistor that limits the forward current length through a silicon diode to 8 mA if the power supply voltage is 9.5V is : i) 1.1 kΩ ii) 2.2 kΩ iii) 9.5 mA iv) 4.7 mA FIGURE g) Determine the diode current IZ for the circuit of figure 1-2: assume VZ = 3.9 V i) 8.1 mA ii) 3.55 mA iii) 24.5 mA iv) 13.64 mA h) Determine the current through a 20 mA yellow LED when the power supply voltage is 15 V the series resistor is 2k ohm and the diode is put in backward. Assume VLED = 2V i) 20 mA ii) 0 mA iii) 10 mA iv) 6.5 mA Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the questions: i) Zener diode is a p-n junction diode that is desgined for specifc…………………voltage j) ………………………….is the process by which impurity atoms are introduced to the instrisic semiconductor in order to alter the balance between holes and electrons. 1) The average value of s full-wave rectifier with a peak vaue of 17V ia 108V 2) If the frequency of input signal of the full wave reflector is 60Hz, the output frequency is 120Hz 3) The cathode of a zener diode, when conducting is:y i) at 0.7V ii) more positive than anode iii) more negative than anode iv) -0.7V 4) A given transformer with turn ratio 12:1has an input of 115V at 60Hzthe paek output voltage v0 (p) is i) 9.58 V ii) 6.78V iii) 11.5 V iv) 13.55 V FIGURE 2-1 5) The output voltage of V0(DC)for the full wave rectifier of figure 2-1 is i) 18.07 V ii) 12.78 V iii) 8.3 V iv) 5.74 V FIGURE 2-2 6) The voltage V2(P) for the full-wavr bridge rectifier of figure 2-2 is i) 17.37 V ii)1 6.67 V iii) 12.78 V iv) 18.07 V 7) Assume the current I0(DC) in figure is 100mA and C= 2400µF .the ripple voltage vr (p-p) i) 694mV ii) 424 mV iii) 121 V iv) 347 V Use figure 2-3 for questions below: Assume that RS = 75, RL = 160 FIGURE 2-3 8) The output voltage V0 is i) 7.5 V ii) 10 V iii) 8.5 V iv) 12 V Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the questions: 9) The magnitude of the peak-to-peak ripple voltage vr (p-p) is directly proportional to the output …………………. 10) The ripple voltage at the filter section vr (p-p) can be reduced by increasing the value

Que 1: true of false a) Both silicon and germanium atoms have four valances electrons b) When forward-biased , a diode has a very high resistance c) A zener diode is designed to operate in the forward-bias region and has higher reverse breakdown voltage level than regular diode Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the questions: d) In semiconductor, in addition to the electron flow, there is also another kind of charge flow referred as………………. e) A silicon diode in placed in series with 2kΩresistor and a 14 V dc power supply. The current ID is: i) 6.65 mA ii) 2.2 mA iii)7.5 mA iv) 14 mA f) The series resistor that limits the forward current length through a silicon diode to 8 mA if the power supply voltage is 9.5V is : i) 1.1 kΩ ii) 2.2 kΩ iii) 9.5 mA iv) 4.7 mA FIGURE g) Determine the diode current IZ for the circuit of figure 1-2: assume VZ = 3.9 V i) 8.1 mA ii) 3.55 mA iii) 24.5 mA iv) 13.64 mA h) Determine the current through a 20 mA yellow LED when the power supply voltage is 15 V the series resistor is 2k ohm and the diode is put in backward. Assume VLED = 2V i) 20 mA ii) 0 mA iii) 10 mA iv) 6.5 mA Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the questions: i) Zener diode is a p-n junction diode that is desgined for specifc…………………voltage j) ………………………….is the process by which impurity atoms are introduced to the instrisic semiconductor in order to alter the balance between holes and electrons. 1) The average value of s full-wave rectifier with a peak vaue of 17V ia 108V 2) If the frequency of input signal of the full wave reflector is 60Hz, the output frequency is 120Hz 3) The cathode of a zener diode, when conducting is:y i) at 0.7V ii) more positive than anode iii) more negative than anode iv) -0.7V 4) A given transformer with turn ratio 12:1has an input of 115V at 60Hzthe paek output voltage v0 (p) is i) 9.58 V ii) 6.78V iii) 11.5 V iv) 13.55 V FIGURE 2-1 5) The output voltage of V0(DC)for the full wave rectifier of figure 2-1 is i) 18.07 V ii) 12.78 V iii) 8.3 V iv) 5.74 V FIGURE 2-2 6) The voltage V2(P) for the full-wavr bridge rectifier of figure 2-2 is i) 17.37 V ii)1 6.67 V iii) 12.78 V iv) 18.07 V 7) Assume the current I0(DC) in figure is 100mA and C= 2400µF .the ripple voltage vr (p-p) i) 694mV ii) 424 mV iii) 121 V iv) 347 V Use figure 2-3 for questions below: Assume that RS = 75, RL = 160 FIGURE 2-3 8) The output voltage V0 is i) 7.5 V ii) 10 V iii) 8.5 V iv) 12 V Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the questions: 9) The magnitude of the peak-to-peak ripple voltage vr (p-p) is directly proportional to the output …………………. 10) The ripple voltage at the filter section vr (p-p) can be reduced by increasing the value

ELEC 2000 Semiconductor Devices Homework #1 Choose the answer that best completes the statement or answers the question. (1) Assume the valence electron is removed from a copper atom. The net charge of the atom becomes a. 0 b. +1 c. -1 d. +4 (2) The valence electron of a copper atom experiences what kind of attraction toward the nucleus? a. None b. Weak c. Strong d. Impossible to say (3) How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 (4) Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a a. Covalent bond b. Crystal c. Semiconductor d. Valence orbit (5) An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these holes? a. Doping b. Free electrons c. Thermal energy d. Valence electrons (6) The merging of a free electron and a hole is called a. Covalent bonding b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Thermal energy (7) At room temperature an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately a. A Battery b. A conductor c. An insulator d. Copper wire (8) The amount of time between the creation of a hole and its disappearance is called a. Doping b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Valence (9) A conductor has how many type of flow? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 (10) A semiconductor has how many types of flow? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 (11) For semiconductor material, its valence orbit is saturated when it contains a. 1 electron b. Equal (+) and (-) ions c. 4 electrons d. 8 electrons (12) In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of holes a. Equal the number of free electrons b. Is greater than the number of free electrons c. Is less than the number of free electrons d. None of the above (13) The number of free electrons and holes in an intrinsic semiconductor decreases when the temperature a. Decreases b. Increases c. Stays the same d. None of the above (14) The flow of valence electrons to the right means that holes are flowing to the a. Left b. Right c. Either way d. None of the above (15) Holes act like a. Atoms b. Crystals c. Negative charges d. Positive charges (16) An donor atom has how many valence electrons? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 (17) If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor, which of these would you use? a. Acceptor atoms b. Donor atoms c. Pentavalent impurity d. Silicon (18) Electrons are the minority carriers in which type of semiconductor? a. Extrinsic b. Intrinsic c. n-Type d. p-type (19) Silver is the best conductor. How many valence electrons do you think it has? a. 1 b. 4 c. 18 d. 29 (20) Which of the following describes an n-type semiconductor? a. Neutral b. Positively charged c. Negatively charged d. has many holes (21) What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode a room temperature? a. 0.3 V b. 0.7 V c. 1 V d. 2 mV per degree Celsius

ELEC 2000 Semiconductor Devices Homework #1 Choose the answer that best completes the statement or answers the question. (1) Assume the valence electron is removed from a copper atom. The net charge of the atom becomes a. 0 b. +1 c. -1 d. +4 (2) The valence electron of a copper atom experiences what kind of attraction toward the nucleus? a. None b. Weak c. Strong d. Impossible to say (3) How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 (4) Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a a. Covalent bond b. Crystal c. Semiconductor d. Valence orbit (5) An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these holes? a. Doping b. Free electrons c. Thermal energy d. Valence electrons (6) The merging of a free electron and a hole is called a. Covalent bonding b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Thermal energy (7) At room temperature an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately a. A Battery b. A conductor c. An insulator d. Copper wire (8) The amount of time between the creation of a hole and its disappearance is called a. Doping b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Valence (9) A conductor has how many type of flow? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 (10) A semiconductor has how many types of flow? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 (11) For semiconductor material, its valence orbit is saturated when it contains a. 1 electron b. Equal (+) and (-) ions c. 4 electrons d. 8 electrons (12) In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of holes a. Equal the number of free electrons b. Is greater than the number of free electrons c. Is less than the number of free electrons d. None of the above (13) The number of free electrons and holes in an intrinsic semiconductor decreases when the temperature a. Decreases b. Increases c. Stays the same d. None of the above (14) The flow of valence electrons to the right means that holes are flowing to the a. Left b. Right c. Either way d. None of the above (15) Holes act like a. Atoms b. Crystals c. Negative charges d. Positive charges (16) An donor atom has how many valence electrons? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 (17) If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor, which of these would you use? a. Acceptor atoms b. Donor atoms c. Pentavalent impurity d. Silicon (18) Electrons are the minority carriers in which type of semiconductor? a. Extrinsic b. Intrinsic c. n-Type d. p-type (19) Silver is the best conductor. How many valence electrons do you think it has? a. 1 b. 4 c. 18 d. 29 (20) Which of the following describes an n-type semiconductor? a. Neutral b. Positively charged c. Negatively charged d. has many holes (21) What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode a room temperature? a. 0.3 V b. 0.7 V c. 1 V d. 2 mV per degree Celsius

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