Question 1 1. The ________________________ presents the movement in cash and bank balances over a period. 1 points Question 2 1. Which of the following departments is not a support center? marketing telecommunications guest transportation human resources 1 points Question 3 1. The distinction between operating and nonoperating income relates to: Continuity of income. Primary activities of the reporting entity. Consistency of income stream. Reliability of measurements. 1 points Question 4 1. Change statements include a: Retained earnings statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement. Balance sheet, cash flow statement, and income statement. Cash flow statement, income statement, and retained earnings statement. Retained earnings statement, balance sheet, and income statement. 1 points Question 5 1. Pro forma earnings: Could be considered management’s view of permanent earnings. Are needed for the correction of errors. Are standardized under generally accepted accounting principles Are useful to compare two different firms’ performance. 1 points Question 6 1. The purpose of the statement of retained earnings is to show: the lifetime earnings retained by the corporation. the lifetime cash flow. the lifetime sales. all of the above. 1 points Question 7 1. The study of an individual financial statement item over several accounting periods is called: Ratio analysis. Vertical analysis. Horizontal analysis. Time and motion analysis. 1 points Question 8 1. Which of the following is not an example of an internal user of a company’s financial statements? member of the board of directors department head stockholder top-level manager 1 points Question 9 1. The accounting principle that requires revenue to be reported when earned is the: Matching principle Revenue recognition principle Time period principle Accrual reporting principle Going-concern principle 1 points Question 10 1. Which of the following questions can not be answered by analyzing information presented on a monthly income statement? How profitable was the hospitality operation at the end of the month? How much was spent last month to market the operation’s services? How much cash was on hand at the end of the month? What was the cost of sales for the month? 1 points Question 11 1. The sources of hotel revenue might be: profits and sales. sales, interest income, and dividend income. net income. all of the above. 1 points Question 12 1. Vertical analysis is a tool to evaluate individual financial statement items or groups of items in terms of a specific base amount. True False 1 points Question 13 1. The following is a portion of a comparative analysis: This Year Change Cost of Sales $400,000 (30,000) The cost of sales last year was: $370,000. $430,000. $30,000. $60,000. 1 points Question 14 1. Since everyone knows what an income statement is, there is no need to put a heading on this report. True False 1 points Question 15 1. An analytical procedure in which each income statement amount is stated as a percentage of a base amount, in this case, net sales. 1 points Question 16 1. Groups outside the business who require accounting and financial information. This includes suppliers, bankers, stockholders, and investors. 1 points Question 17 1. Interpretation of data shown on a common-size income statement can be simplified by: zeroing out the income statement bookkeeping accounts. classifying dividends as a business expense. restating the percentages as a component of the sales dollar. redesigning the statement. 1 points Question 18 1. The following information is provided: Dividends paid this year $ 30,000 Dividends declared this year 40,000 Net income this year 100,000 Retained earnings, start of year 150,000 The retained earnings at the end of this year are: $180,000. $220,000. $210,000. $260,000. 1 points Question 19 1. Horizontal analysis is also known as: Liquidity analysis. Absolute analysis. Revenue analysis. Trend analysis. 1 points Question 20 1. At the end of Year 1, the income statement for the Roadside Inn showed net income at $50,000. At the end of Year 2, the income statement showed $100,000 in net income. A horizontal analysis of the income statements would show the relative difference between the two years as: $50,000. $20,000. 100%. 50%. 1 points Question 21 1. Financial statement analysis is the application of analytical tools to general-purpose financial statements and related data for making business decisions. True False 1 points Question 22 1. Following is a portion of an income statement: 20X8 20X7 Sales $180,000 $190,000 In a comparative analysis, the percentage change from 20X7 to 20X8 is: A 105% decrease. A 94.7% Decrease A 5.6% Decrease A 5.3% Decrease 1 points Question 23 1. A fiscal year consists of any twelve consecutive months. True False 1 points Question 24 1. Financial statements intended for internal users. These statements present detailed information on each responsibility area ant the hotel as a whole. 1 points Question 25 1. Financial statements are usually prepared at the end of each fiscal period. True False

Question 1 1. The ________________________ presents the movement in cash and bank balances over a period. 1 points Question 2 1. Which of the following departments is not a support center? marketing telecommunications guest transportation human resources 1 points Question 3 1. The distinction between operating and nonoperating income relates to: Continuity of income. Primary activities of the reporting entity. Consistency of income stream. Reliability of measurements. 1 points Question 4 1. Change statements include a: Retained earnings statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement. Balance sheet, cash flow statement, and income statement. Cash flow statement, income statement, and retained earnings statement. Retained earnings statement, balance sheet, and income statement. 1 points Question 5 1. Pro forma earnings: Could be considered management’s view of permanent earnings. Are needed for the correction of errors. Are standardized under generally accepted accounting principles Are useful to compare two different firms’ performance. 1 points Question 6 1. The purpose of the statement of retained earnings is to show: the lifetime earnings retained by the corporation. the lifetime cash flow. the lifetime sales. all of the above. 1 points Question 7 1. The study of an individual financial statement item over several accounting periods is called: Ratio analysis. Vertical analysis. Horizontal analysis. Time and motion analysis. 1 points Question 8 1. Which of the following is not an example of an internal user of a company’s financial statements? member of the board of directors department head stockholder top-level manager 1 points Question 9 1. The accounting principle that requires revenue to be reported when earned is the: Matching principle Revenue recognition principle Time period principle Accrual reporting principle Going-concern principle 1 points Question 10 1. Which of the following questions can not be answered by analyzing information presented on a monthly income statement? How profitable was the hospitality operation at the end of the month? How much was spent last month to market the operation’s services? How much cash was on hand at the end of the month? What was the cost of sales for the month? 1 points Question 11 1. The sources of hotel revenue might be: profits and sales. sales, interest income, and dividend income. net income. all of the above. 1 points Question 12 1. Vertical analysis is a tool to evaluate individual financial statement items or groups of items in terms of a specific base amount. True False 1 points Question 13 1. The following is a portion of a comparative analysis: This Year Change Cost of Sales $400,000 (30,000) The cost of sales last year was: $370,000. $430,000. $30,000. $60,000. 1 points Question 14 1. Since everyone knows what an income statement is, there is no need to put a heading on this report. True False 1 points Question 15 1. An analytical procedure in which each income statement amount is stated as a percentage of a base amount, in this case, net sales. 1 points Question 16 1. Groups outside the business who require accounting and financial information. This includes suppliers, bankers, stockholders, and investors. 1 points Question 17 1. Interpretation of data shown on a common-size income statement can be simplified by: zeroing out the income statement bookkeeping accounts. classifying dividends as a business expense. restating the percentages as a component of the sales dollar. redesigning the statement. 1 points Question 18 1. The following information is provided: Dividends paid this year $ 30,000 Dividends declared this year 40,000 Net income this year 100,000 Retained earnings, start of year 150,000 The retained earnings at the end of this year are: $180,000. $220,000. $210,000. $260,000. 1 points Question 19 1. Horizontal analysis is also known as: Liquidity analysis. Absolute analysis. Revenue analysis. Trend analysis. 1 points Question 20 1. At the end of Year 1, the income statement for the Roadside Inn showed net income at $50,000. At the end of Year 2, the income statement showed $100,000 in net income. A horizontal analysis of the income statements would show the relative difference between the two years as: $50,000. $20,000. 100%. 50%. 1 points Question 21 1. Financial statement analysis is the application of analytical tools to general-purpose financial statements and related data for making business decisions. True False 1 points Question 22 1. Following is a portion of an income statement: 20X8 20X7 Sales $180,000 $190,000 In a comparative analysis, the percentage change from 20X7 to 20X8 is: A 105% decrease. A 94.7% Decrease A 5.6% Decrease A 5.3% Decrease 1 points Question 23 1. A fiscal year consists of any twelve consecutive months. True False 1 points Question 24 1. Financial statements intended for internal users. These statements present detailed information on each responsibility area ant the hotel as a whole. 1 points Question 25 1. Financial statements are usually prepared at the end of each fiscal period. True False

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Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

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PHILOSOPHY 100 Study Questions on Bentham from The Classical Utilitarians 1. Provide Bentham’s answers to the following questions from chapter I (“of the Principle of Utility” pp. 8—12) of Principles of Morals and Legislation: (a) What is the principle of utility? (b) What is utility? (c) What is the interest of the community? (d) When is an action conformable to the Principle of Utility? 2. According to Bentham, how are the normative moral notions of right and wrong, ought, and ought not to be understood? 3. What is Bentham’s definition of the Principle of Asceticism from chapter II? 4. In chapter IV, Bentham identifies seven factors (what he calls “circumstances”) that must be considered in estimating or measuring pleasure and pain. What are these seven factors? 5. In chapter XIII (pp. 26—31), Bentham discusses the criminal justice system. According to Bentham, what is the purpose of law? How can punishment (which necessarily involves inflicting pain) be made consistent with the principle of utility? 6. Read the poem on p. 71. Memorize the first line. 7. On page 93, Bentham describes a society in which the majority population enslaves the minority and confiscates its happiness. What follows in this situation? 8. Finish this famous phrase (p. 94): “Prejudice apart,…” What does Bentham mean?

PHILOSOPHY 100 Study Questions on Bentham from The Classical Utilitarians 1. Provide Bentham’s answers to the following questions from chapter I (“of the Principle of Utility” pp. 8—12) of Principles of Morals and Legislation: (a) What is the principle of utility? (b) What is utility? (c) What is the interest of the community? (d) When is an action conformable to the Principle of Utility? 2. According to Bentham, how are the normative moral notions of right and wrong, ought, and ought not to be understood? 3. What is Bentham’s definition of the Principle of Asceticism from chapter II? 4. In chapter IV, Bentham identifies seven factors (what he calls “circumstances”) that must be considered in estimating or measuring pleasure and pain. What are these seven factors? 5. In chapter XIII (pp. 26—31), Bentham discusses the criminal justice system. According to Bentham, what is the purpose of law? How can punishment (which necessarily involves inflicting pain) be made consistent with the principle of utility? 6. Read the poem on p. 71. Memorize the first line. 7. On page 93, Bentham describes a society in which the majority population enslaves the minority and confiscates its happiness. What follows in this situation? 8. Finish this famous phrase (p. 94): “Prejudice apart,…” What does Bentham mean?

please email info@checkyourstudy.com A) The Principle of utility is the … Read More...
Study Questions for Peter Singer’s “Famine, Affluence, and Morality” 1. With what assumption or moral principle does Singer begin his discussion?

Study Questions for Peter Singer’s “Famine, Affluence, and Morality” 1. With what assumption or moral principle does Singer begin his discussion?

Singer begins with the postulation that distress and casualty from … Read More...
What is the philosopher Colin McGinn’s objection to Singer’s principle that “to allow harm is to do harm”? How does Peter Unger defend Singer’s principle?

What is the philosopher Colin McGinn’s objection to Singer’s principle that “to allow harm is to do harm”? How does Peter Unger defend Singer’s principle?

please email info@checkyourstudy.com As per Colin, to pay no attention … Read More...
People v. Glover 233 Cal. App. 3d 1476 (1991) Deadline is 12 hours from posting time. There is no page minimum as long as every question in the following instructions is answered thoroughly and completely. Instructions: Complete a case brief on People v. Glover 233 Cal. App. 3d 1476 (1991) and answer the following 11 questions… 1. name of case 2. legal citation and year case decided 3. character of action (how the case was brought before the appellate court) 4. facts of the case 5. legal issues in the case 6. decision of the appellate court 7. majority opinion 8. concurring opinion(s) 9. dissenting opinion 10. comment by the student 11. principle of the case (what the case stands for)

People v. Glover 233 Cal. App. 3d 1476 (1991) Deadline is 12 hours from posting time. There is no page minimum as long as every question in the following instructions is answered thoroughly and completely. Instructions: Complete a case brief on People v. Glover 233 Cal. App. 3d 1476 (1991) and answer the following 11 questions… 1. name of case 2. legal citation and year case decided 3. character of action (how the case was brought before the appellate court) 4. facts of the case 5. legal issues in the case 6. decision of the appellate court 7. majority opinion 8. concurring opinion(s) 9. dissenting opinion 10. comment by the student 11. principle of the case (what the case stands for)

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Take Home Exam 3: Special Note Before Starting the Exam: If you scan your solutions to the exam and save it as a pdf or image file and put it on dropbox and I can not read it or open it, you will not receive credit for the exam. Furthermore, if you write the solutions up in word, latex ect. and give me a print out, which does not include all the pages you will not get credit for the missing pages. Also if your folder on dropbox is not clearly labeled and I can not find your exam then you will not get credit for the exam. Finally, please make sure you put your name on the exam!! Math 2100 Exam 3, Out of Class, Due by December 8th, 2015 at 5:00 pm. Name: Problem 1. (15 points) A random variable is said to have the (standard) Cauchy distribution if its PDF is given by f (x) = 1 π 1 1+ x2 , −∞< x <∞ This problem uses computer simulations to demonstrate that a) samples from this distribution often have extreme outliers (a consequence of the heavy tails of the distribution), and b) the sample mean is prone to the same type of outliers. Below is a graph of the pdf a) (5 points) The R commands x=rcauchy(500); summary(x) generate a random sample of size 500 from the Cauchy distribution and display the sample’s five number summary; Report the five number summary and the interquartile range, and comment on whether or not the smallest and largest numbers generated from this sample of 500 are outliers. Repeat this 10 times. b) (5 points) The R commands m=matrix(rcauchy(50000), nrow=500); xb=apply(m,1,mean);summary(xb) generate the matrix m that has 500 rows, each of which is a sample of size n=100 from the Cauchy distribution, compute the 500 sample means and store them in xb. and display the five number summary xb. Repeat these commands 10 times, and report the 10 sets of five number summaries. Compare with the 10 sets of five number summaries from part (a), and comment on whether or not the distribution of the averages seems to be more prone to extreme outliers as that of the individual observations. c) (5 points) Why does this happen? (hint: try to calculate E(X) and V(X) for this distribution) and does the LLN and CLT apply for samples from a Cauchy distribution? Hint: E(X) is undefined for this distribution unless you use the Cauchy Principle Value as such for the mean lim a→∞ xf (x)dx −a a∫ In addition x2 1+ x2 dx = x2 +1−1 1+ x2 dx = 1− 1 1+ x2 " # $ % & ' ∫ ∫ ∫ dx 1 1+ x2 dx = tan−1 ∫ x +C Problem 2. (5 points) A marketing expert for a pasta-making company believes that 40% of pasta lovers prefer lasagna. If 9 out of 20 pasta lovers choose lasagna over other pastas, what can be concluded about the expert's claim? Use a 0.05 level of significance. Problem 3. (10 points) A coin is tossed 20 times, resulting in 5 heads. Is this sufficient evidence to reject the hypothesis that the coin is balanced in favor of the alternative that heads occur less than 50% of the time (essentially is this significant evidence to claim that the coin is unbalanced in favor of tails)? Use a 0.05 level of significance. Problem 4. (25 points) Since the chemical benzene may cause cancer, the federal government has set the maximum allowable benzene concentration in the workplace at 1 part per million (1 ppm) Suppose that a steel manufacturing plant is under investigation for possible violations regarding benzene level. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) will analyze 14 air samples over a one-month period. Assume normality of the population from which the samples were drawn. a) (3 points) What is an appropriate null hypothesis for this scenario? (Give this in symbols) b) (3 points) What is an appropriate alternative hypothesis for this scenario? (Give this in symbols) c) (3 points) What kind of hypothesis test is this: left-tailed, right-tailed or two-tailed? Explain how you picked your answer. d) (3 points) Is this a one-sample t-test or a one-sample test using a normal distribution? Explain how you picked your answer. e) (4 points) If the test using this sample of size 14 is to be done at the 1% significance level, calculate the critical value(s) and describe the rejection region(s) for the test statistic. Show your work. f) (5 points) OHSA finds the following for their sample of size 14: a mean benzene level of 1.51 ppm and a standard deviation of 1.415 ppm. What should be concluded at the 1% significance level? Support your answer with calculation(s) and reasoning. g) (4 points) Calculate the p-value for this test and verify that this answer would lead to the same conclusion you made in part f. Problem 5. (15 points) A normally distributed random variable Y possesses a mean of μ = 20 and a standard deviation of σ = 5. A random sample of n = 31 observations is to be selected. Let X be the sample average. (X in this problem is really x _ ) a)(5 points) Describe the sampling distribution of X (i.e. describe the distribution of X and give μx, σx ) b) (5 points) Find the z-score of x = 22 c) (5 points) Find P(X ≥ 22) = Problem 6. (10 points) A restaurants receipts show that the cost of customers' dinners has a distribution with a mean of $54 and a standard deviation of $18. What is the probability that the next 100 customers will spend a total of at least $5800 on dinner? Problem 7. (10 points) The operations manager of a large production plant would like to estimate the mean amount of time a worker takes to assemble a new electronic component. Assume that the standard deviation of this assembly time is 3.6 minutes and is normally distributed. a) (3 points) After observing 120 workers assembling similar devices, the manager noticed that their average time was 16.2 minutes. Construct a 92% confidence interval for the mean assembly time. b) (2 points) How many workers should be involved in this study in order to have the mean assembly time estimated up to ± 15 seconds with 92% confidence? c) (5 points) Construct a 92% confidence interval if instead of observing 120 workers assembling similar devices, rather the manager observes 25 workers and notice their average time was 16.2 minutes with a standard deviation of 4.0 minutes. Problem 8. (10 points): A manufacturer of candy must monitor the temperature at which the candies are baked. Too much variation will cause inconsistency in the taste of the candy. Past records show that the standard deviation of the temperature has been 1.2oF . A random sample of 30 batches of candy is selected, and the sample standard deviation of the temperature is 2.1oF . a. (5 points) At the 0.05 level of significance, is there evidence that the population standard deviation has increased above 1.2oF ? b. (3 points) What assumption do you need to make in order to perform this test? c. (2 points) Compute the p-value in (a) and interpret its meaning.

Take Home Exam 3: Special Note Before Starting the Exam: If you scan your solutions to the exam and save it as a pdf or image file and put it on dropbox and I can not read it or open it, you will not receive credit for the exam. Furthermore, if you write the solutions up in word, latex ect. and give me a print out, which does not include all the pages you will not get credit for the missing pages. Also if your folder on dropbox is not clearly labeled and I can not find your exam then you will not get credit for the exam. Finally, please make sure you put your name on the exam!! Math 2100 Exam 3, Out of Class, Due by December 8th, 2015 at 5:00 pm. Name: Problem 1. (15 points) A random variable is said to have the (standard) Cauchy distribution if its PDF is given by f (x) = 1 π 1 1+ x2 , −∞< x <∞ This problem uses computer simulations to demonstrate that a) samples from this distribution often have extreme outliers (a consequence of the heavy tails of the distribution), and b) the sample mean is prone to the same type of outliers. Below is a graph of the pdf a) (5 points) The R commands x=rcauchy(500); summary(x) generate a random sample of size 500 from the Cauchy distribution and display the sample’s five number summary; Report the five number summary and the interquartile range, and comment on whether or not the smallest and largest numbers generated from this sample of 500 are outliers. Repeat this 10 times. b) (5 points) The R commands m=matrix(rcauchy(50000), nrow=500); xb=apply(m,1,mean);summary(xb) generate the matrix m that has 500 rows, each of which is a sample of size n=100 from the Cauchy distribution, compute the 500 sample means and store them in xb. and display the five number summary xb. Repeat these commands 10 times, and report the 10 sets of five number summaries. Compare with the 10 sets of five number summaries from part (a), and comment on whether or not the distribution of the averages seems to be more prone to extreme outliers as that of the individual observations. c) (5 points) Why does this happen? (hint: try to calculate E(X) and V(X) for this distribution) and does the LLN and CLT apply for samples from a Cauchy distribution? Hint: E(X) is undefined for this distribution unless you use the Cauchy Principle Value as such for the mean lim a→∞ xf (x)dx −a a∫ In addition x2 1+ x2 dx = x2 +1−1 1+ x2 dx = 1− 1 1+ x2 " # $ % & ' ∫ ∫ ∫ dx 1 1+ x2 dx = tan−1 ∫ x +C Problem 2. (5 points) A marketing expert for a pasta-making company believes that 40% of pasta lovers prefer lasagna. If 9 out of 20 pasta lovers choose lasagna over other pastas, what can be concluded about the expert's claim? Use a 0.05 level of significance. Problem 3. (10 points) A coin is tossed 20 times, resulting in 5 heads. Is this sufficient evidence to reject the hypothesis that the coin is balanced in favor of the alternative that heads occur less than 50% of the time (essentially is this significant evidence to claim that the coin is unbalanced in favor of tails)? Use a 0.05 level of significance. Problem 4. (25 points) Since the chemical benzene may cause cancer, the federal government has set the maximum allowable benzene concentration in the workplace at 1 part per million (1 ppm) Suppose that a steel manufacturing plant is under investigation for possible violations regarding benzene level. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) will analyze 14 air samples over a one-month period. Assume normality of the population from which the samples were drawn. a) (3 points) What is an appropriate null hypothesis for this scenario? (Give this in symbols) b) (3 points) What is an appropriate alternative hypothesis for this scenario? (Give this in symbols) c) (3 points) What kind of hypothesis test is this: left-tailed, right-tailed or two-tailed? Explain how you picked your answer. d) (3 points) Is this a one-sample t-test or a one-sample test using a normal distribution? Explain how you picked your answer. e) (4 points) If the test using this sample of size 14 is to be done at the 1% significance level, calculate the critical value(s) and describe the rejection region(s) for the test statistic. Show your work. f) (5 points) OHSA finds the following for their sample of size 14: a mean benzene level of 1.51 ppm and a standard deviation of 1.415 ppm. What should be concluded at the 1% significance level? Support your answer with calculation(s) and reasoning. g) (4 points) Calculate the p-value for this test and verify that this answer would lead to the same conclusion you made in part f. Problem 5. (15 points) A normally distributed random variable Y possesses a mean of μ = 20 and a standard deviation of σ = 5. A random sample of n = 31 observations is to be selected. Let X be the sample average. (X in this problem is really x _ ) a)(5 points) Describe the sampling distribution of X (i.e. describe the distribution of X and give μx, σx ) b) (5 points) Find the z-score of x = 22 c) (5 points) Find P(X ≥ 22) = Problem 6. (10 points) A restaurants receipts show that the cost of customers' dinners has a distribution with a mean of $54 and a standard deviation of $18. What is the probability that the next 100 customers will spend a total of at least $5800 on dinner? Problem 7. (10 points) The operations manager of a large production plant would like to estimate the mean amount of time a worker takes to assemble a new electronic component. Assume that the standard deviation of this assembly time is 3.6 minutes and is normally distributed. a) (3 points) After observing 120 workers assembling similar devices, the manager noticed that their average time was 16.2 minutes. Construct a 92% confidence interval for the mean assembly time. b) (2 points) How many workers should be involved in this study in order to have the mean assembly time estimated up to ± 15 seconds with 92% confidence? c) (5 points) Construct a 92% confidence interval if instead of observing 120 workers assembling similar devices, rather the manager observes 25 workers and notice their average time was 16.2 minutes with a standard deviation of 4.0 minutes. Problem 8. (10 points): A manufacturer of candy must monitor the temperature at which the candies are baked. Too much variation will cause inconsistency in the taste of the candy. Past records show that the standard deviation of the temperature has been 1.2oF . A random sample of 30 batches of candy is selected, and the sample standard deviation of the temperature is 2.1oF . a. (5 points) At the 0.05 level of significance, is there evidence that the population standard deviation has increased above 1.2oF ? b. (3 points) What assumption do you need to make in order to perform this test? c. (2 points) Compute the p-value in (a) and interpret its meaning.

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