Materials and process selection for a bicycle frame Background The principle components of the bike are familiar and their function needs no explanation. The largest of these is the frame. Frames can be made from a remarkable diversity of materials: CFRP, carbon steel, GFRP, nylon, wood, aluminium, titanium etc… How is it that such a diversity of materials can co-exist in a free market in which competition favours the fittest – sure there must be a single “best” material for the job? The mistake here is to assume that all bikes have the same purpose. The specification of a “shopping” or “uni” bike is very different from that of one for speed or for the mountain, as are the objectives of the purchaser. The Project Explore materials and process selection for bike frames (illustrated below) or for any other component of the bike: forks, handle bars, cranks, wheels, brake or gear cables…. 1) Analyse your chosen component, listing its function, the constraints it must meet and the objectives for the bike – This will require a decision about the type of bike you are designing (shopping (booze cruiser), speed / road / track bike, mountain bike, folding, children’s etc). Remember to include a lower cut-off constraint on fracture toughness (K1C > 15MPa √m is a good approximation to start at) – a brittle bike would be a bad idea! 2) List the requirements as Functions, Constraints, Objectives and Free Variables. 3) Identify the materials indices you will use to rank / select your materials. 4) Identify a promising material for the component. 5) Make a choice of material and then use CES EduPack Joining database to select ways of joining the frame. 6) Present the case study for your choice of material and process as a report. Use the charts from CES EduPack and other sources to explain your reasoning. For the purposes of simplicity it is suggested that you avoid accounting for shape in your selection criteria / indices identification. However, you should still consider the form of your component when considering an appropriate manufacturing process. To make the right choices you will need to source some information on typical service conditions for you selected bike type, these might be mechanical, physical or environmental focussed properties. You will also need to consider the type of conditions experienced by the component e.g. bending, tension, torsion, abrasion etc. Assignments will be assessed on the basis of the quality and clarity of the problem construction, the selection of indices, appropriate use of charts / figures and crucially the analysis and interpretation of the results presented.

Materials and process selection for a bicycle frame Background The principle components of the bike are familiar and their function needs no explanation. The largest of these is the frame. Frames can be made from a remarkable diversity of materials: CFRP, carbon steel, GFRP, nylon, wood, aluminium, titanium etc… How is it that such a diversity of materials can co-exist in a free market in which competition favours the fittest – sure there must be a single “best” material for the job? The mistake here is to assume that all bikes have the same purpose. The specification of a “shopping” or “uni” bike is very different from that of one for speed or for the mountain, as are the objectives of the purchaser. The Project Explore materials and process selection for bike frames (illustrated below) or for any other component of the bike: forks, handle bars, cranks, wheels, brake or gear cables…. 1) Analyse your chosen component, listing its function, the constraints it must meet and the objectives for the bike – This will require a decision about the type of bike you are designing (shopping (booze cruiser), speed / road / track bike, mountain bike, folding, children’s etc). Remember to include a lower cut-off constraint on fracture toughness (K1C > 15MPa √m is a good approximation to start at) – a brittle bike would be a bad idea! 2) List the requirements as Functions, Constraints, Objectives and Free Variables. 3) Identify the materials indices you will use to rank / select your materials. 4) Identify a promising material for the component. 5) Make a choice of material and then use CES EduPack Joining database to select ways of joining the frame. 6) Present the case study for your choice of material and process as a report. Use the charts from CES EduPack and other sources to explain your reasoning. For the purposes of simplicity it is suggested that you avoid accounting for shape in your selection criteria / indices identification. However, you should still consider the form of your component when considering an appropriate manufacturing process. To make the right choices you will need to source some information on typical service conditions for you selected bike type, these might be mechanical, physical or environmental focussed properties. You will also need to consider the type of conditions experienced by the component e.g. bending, tension, torsion, abrasion etc. Assignments will be assessed on the basis of the quality and clarity of the problem construction, the selection of indices, appropriate use of charts / figures and crucially the analysis and interpretation of the results presented.

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Fact Debate Brief Introduction Crime doesn’t pay; it should be punished. Even since childhood, a slap on the hand has prevented possible criminals from ever committing the same offense; whether it was successful or not depended on how much that child wanted that cookie. While a slap on the wrist might or might not be an effective deterrent, the same can be said about the death penalty. Every day, somewhere in the world, a criminal is stopped permanently from committing any future costs, but this is by the means of the death. While effective in stopping one person permanently, it does nothing about the crime world as a whole. While it is necessary to end the career of a criminal, no matter what his or her crime is, we must not end it by taking a life. Through this paper, the death penalty will be proven ineffective at deterring crime by use of other environmental factors. Definition: The death penalty is defined as the universal punishment of death as legally applied by a fair court system. It is important for it to be a fair legal system, as not to confuse it with genocide, mob mentality, or any other ruling without trial. Claim 1: Use of the death penalty is in decline Ground 1: According to the book The Death Penalty: A Worldwide Perspective by Roger Hood and Carolyn Hoyle, published Dec. 8th, 2014, the Oxford professors in criminology say “As in most of the rest of the world, the death penalty in the US is in decline and distributed unevenly in frequency of use” even addressing that, as of April 2014, 18 states no longer have a death penalty, and even Oregon and Washington are considering removing their death penalty laws. Furthermore, in 2013, only 9 of these states still retaining the death penalty actually executed someone. Warrant 1: The death penalty can be reinstated at any time, but so far, it hasn’t been. At the same time, more states consider getting rid of it altogether. Therefore, it becomes clear that even states don’t want to be involved with this process showing that this is a disliked process. Claim 2: Even states with death penalty in effect still have high crime rates. Ground 2: With the reports gathered from fbi.gov, lawstreetmedia.com, a website based around political expertise and research determined the ranking of each state based on violent crime, published September 12th, 2014. Of the top ten most violent states, only three of which had the death penalty instituted (Maryland #9, New Mexico #4, Alaska #3). The other seven still had the system in place, and, despite it, still have a high amount of violent crime. On the opposite end of the spectrum, at the bottom ten most violent states, four of which, including the bottom-most states, do not have the death penalty in place. Warrant 2: With this ranking, it literally proves that the death penalty does not deter crime, or that there is a correlation between having the death penalty and having a decrease in the crime rate. Therefore, the idea of death penalty deterring crime is a null term in the sense that there is no, or a flawed connection. Claim 3: Violent crime is decreasing (but not because if the death penalty) Ground 3 A: According to an article published by The Economist, dated July 23rd, 2013, the rate of violent crime is in fact decreasing, but not because of the death penalty, but rather, because we have more police. From 1995 to 2010, policing has increased one-fifth, and with it, a decline in crime rate. In fact, in cities such as Detroit where policing has been cut, an opposite effect, an increase in crime, has been reported. Ground 3 B: An article from the Wall Street Journal, dated May 28th, 2011, also cites a decline in violent, only this time, citing the reason as a correlation with poverty levels. In 2009, at the start of the housing crisis, crime rates also dropped noticeably. Oddly enough, this article points out the belief that unemployment is often associated with crime; instead, the evidence presented is environmental in nature. Warrant 3: Crime rate isn’t deterred by death penalty, but rather, our surroundings. Seeing as how conditions have improved, so has the state of peace. Therefore, it becomes clear that the death penalty is ineffective at deterring crime because other key factors present more possibility for improvement of society. Claim 4: The death penalty is a historically flawed system. Ground 4A: According to the book The Death Penalty: Constitutional Issues, Commentaries, and Case Briefs by Scott Vollum, published in 2005, addresses how the case of the death penalty emerged to where it is today. While the book is now a decade old, it is used for historical context, particularly, in describing the first execution that took place in 1608. While it is true that most of these executions weren’t as well-grounded as the modern ones that take place now, they still had no effect in deterring crime. Why? Because even after America was established and more sane, the death penalty still had to be used because criminals still had violent behaviors. Ground 4B: According to data from Mother Jones, published May 17th, 2013, the reason why the crime rate was so high in the past could possibly be due to yet another environmental factor (affected by change over time), exposure to lead. Since the removal of lead from paint started over a hundred years ago, there has been a decline in homicide. Why is this important? Lead poisoning in child’s brain, if not lethal, can affect development and lead to mental disability, lower IQ, and lack of reasoning. Warrant 4: By examining history as a whole, there is a greater correlation between other factors that have resulted in a decline in violent crime. The decline in the crime rate has been an ongoing process, but has shown a faster decline due to other environmental factors, rather than the instatement of the death penalty. Claim 5: The world’s violent crime rate is changing, but not due to the death penalty. Ground 5A: According to article published by Amnesty USA in March of 2014, the number of executions under the death penalty reported in 2013 had increased by 15%. However, the rate of violent crime in the world has decreased significantly in the last decade. But, Latvia, for example, has permanently banned the death penalty since 2012. In 2014, the country was viewed overall as safe and low in violent crime rate. Ground 5B: However, while it is true that there is a decline in violent crime rate worldwide, The World Bank, April 17, 2013, reports that the rate of global poverty is decreasing. In a similar vein to the US, because wealth is being distributed better and conditions are improving overall, there is a steady decline in crime rate. Warrant 5: By examining the world as a whole, it becomes clear that it doesn’t matter if the death penalty is in place, violent crime will still exist. However, mirroring the US, as simple conditions improve, so does lifestyle. The death penalty does not deter crime in the world, rather a better quality of life is responsible for that. Works Cited “Death Sentences and Executions 2013.” Amnesty International USA. Amnesty USA, 26 Mar. 2014. Web. 15 Mar. 2015. <http://www.amnestyusa.org/research/reports/death-sentences-and-executions-2013>. D. K. “Why Is Crime Falling?” The Economist. The Economist Newspaper, 23 July 2013. Web. 12 Mar. 2015. <http://www.economist.com/blogs/economist-explains/2013/07/economist-explains-16>. Drum, Kevin. “The US Murder Rate Is on Track to Be Lowest in a Century.”Mother Jones. Mother Jones, 17 May 2013. Web. 13 Mar. 2015. <http://www.motherjones.com/kevin-drum/2013/05/us-murder-rate-track-be-lowest-century>. Hood, Roger, and Carolyn Hoyle. The Death Penalty: A Worldwide Perspective. Oxford: Oxford UP, 2002. 45. Print. Rizzo, Kevin. “Slideshow: America’s Safest and Most Dangerous States 2014.”Law Street Media. Law Street TM, 12 Sept. 2014. Web. 12 Mar. 2015. <http://lawstreetmedia.com/blogs/crime/safest-and-most-dangerous-states-2014/#slideshow>. Vollum, Scott. The Death Penalty: Constitutional Issues, Commentaries, and Case Briefs. Newark, NJ: LexisNexis, 2005. 2. Print. Theis, David. “Remarkable Declines in Global Poverty, But Major Challenges Remain.” The World Bank. The World Bank, 17 Apr. 2013. Web. 15 Mar. 2015. <http://www.worldbank.org/en/news/press-release/2013/04/17/remarkable-declines-in-global-poverty-but-major-challenges-remain>. Wilson, James Q. “Hard Times, Fewer Crimes.” WSJ. The Wall Street Journal, 28 May 2011. Web. 13 Mar. 2015. <http://www.wsj.com/articles/SB10001424052702304066504576345553135009870>.

Fact Debate Brief Introduction Crime doesn’t pay; it should be punished. Even since childhood, a slap on the hand has prevented possible criminals from ever committing the same offense; whether it was successful or not depended on how much that child wanted that cookie. While a slap on the wrist might or might not be an effective deterrent, the same can be said about the death penalty. Every day, somewhere in the world, a criminal is stopped permanently from committing any future costs, but this is by the means of the death. While effective in stopping one person permanently, it does nothing about the crime world as a whole. While it is necessary to end the career of a criminal, no matter what his or her crime is, we must not end it by taking a life. Through this paper, the death penalty will be proven ineffective at deterring crime by use of other environmental factors. Definition: The death penalty is defined as the universal punishment of death as legally applied by a fair court system. It is important for it to be a fair legal system, as not to confuse it with genocide, mob mentality, or any other ruling without trial. Claim 1: Use of the death penalty is in decline Ground 1: According to the book The Death Penalty: A Worldwide Perspective by Roger Hood and Carolyn Hoyle, published Dec. 8th, 2014, the Oxford professors in criminology say “As in most of the rest of the world, the death penalty in the US is in decline and distributed unevenly in frequency of use” even addressing that, as of April 2014, 18 states no longer have a death penalty, and even Oregon and Washington are considering removing their death penalty laws. Furthermore, in 2013, only 9 of these states still retaining the death penalty actually executed someone. Warrant 1: The death penalty can be reinstated at any time, but so far, it hasn’t been. At the same time, more states consider getting rid of it altogether. Therefore, it becomes clear that even states don’t want to be involved with this process showing that this is a disliked process. Claim 2: Even states with death penalty in effect still have high crime rates. Ground 2: With the reports gathered from fbi.gov, lawstreetmedia.com, a website based around political expertise and research determined the ranking of each state based on violent crime, published September 12th, 2014. Of the top ten most violent states, only three of which had the death penalty instituted (Maryland #9, New Mexico #4, Alaska #3). The other seven still had the system in place, and, despite it, still have a high amount of violent crime. On the opposite end of the spectrum, at the bottom ten most violent states, four of which, including the bottom-most states, do not have the death penalty in place. Warrant 2: With this ranking, it literally proves that the death penalty does not deter crime, or that there is a correlation between having the death penalty and having a decrease in the crime rate. Therefore, the idea of death penalty deterring crime is a null term in the sense that there is no, or a flawed connection. Claim 3: Violent crime is decreasing (but not because if the death penalty) Ground 3 A: According to an article published by The Economist, dated July 23rd, 2013, the rate of violent crime is in fact decreasing, but not because of the death penalty, but rather, because we have more police. From 1995 to 2010, policing has increased one-fifth, and with it, a decline in crime rate. In fact, in cities such as Detroit where policing has been cut, an opposite effect, an increase in crime, has been reported. Ground 3 B: An article from the Wall Street Journal, dated May 28th, 2011, also cites a decline in violent, only this time, citing the reason as a correlation with poverty levels. In 2009, at the start of the housing crisis, crime rates also dropped noticeably. Oddly enough, this article points out the belief that unemployment is often associated with crime; instead, the evidence presented is environmental in nature. Warrant 3: Crime rate isn’t deterred by death penalty, but rather, our surroundings. Seeing as how conditions have improved, so has the state of peace. Therefore, it becomes clear that the death penalty is ineffective at deterring crime because other key factors present more possibility for improvement of society. Claim 4: The death penalty is a historically flawed system. Ground 4A: According to the book The Death Penalty: Constitutional Issues, Commentaries, and Case Briefs by Scott Vollum, published in 2005, addresses how the case of the death penalty emerged to where it is today. While the book is now a decade old, it is used for historical context, particularly, in describing the first execution that took place in 1608. While it is true that most of these executions weren’t as well-grounded as the modern ones that take place now, they still had no effect in deterring crime. Why? Because even after America was established and more sane, the death penalty still had to be used because criminals still had violent behaviors. Ground 4B: According to data from Mother Jones, published May 17th, 2013, the reason why the crime rate was so high in the past could possibly be due to yet another environmental factor (affected by change over time), exposure to lead. Since the removal of lead from paint started over a hundred years ago, there has been a decline in homicide. Why is this important? Lead poisoning in child’s brain, if not lethal, can affect development and lead to mental disability, lower IQ, and lack of reasoning. Warrant 4: By examining history as a whole, there is a greater correlation between other factors that have resulted in a decline in violent crime. The decline in the crime rate has been an ongoing process, but has shown a faster decline due to other environmental factors, rather than the instatement of the death penalty. Claim 5: The world’s violent crime rate is changing, but not due to the death penalty. Ground 5A: According to article published by Amnesty USA in March of 2014, the number of executions under the death penalty reported in 2013 had increased by 15%. However, the rate of violent crime in the world has decreased significantly in the last decade. But, Latvia, for example, has permanently banned the death penalty since 2012. In 2014, the country was viewed overall as safe and low in violent crime rate. Ground 5B: However, while it is true that there is a decline in violent crime rate worldwide, The World Bank, April 17, 2013, reports that the rate of global poverty is decreasing. In a similar vein to the US, because wealth is being distributed better and conditions are improving overall, there is a steady decline in crime rate. Warrant 5: By examining the world as a whole, it becomes clear that it doesn’t matter if the death penalty is in place, violent crime will still exist. However, mirroring the US, as simple conditions improve, so does lifestyle. The death penalty does not deter crime in the world, rather a better quality of life is responsible for that. Works Cited “Death Sentences and Executions 2013.” Amnesty International USA. Amnesty USA, 26 Mar. 2014. Web. 15 Mar. 2015. . D. K. “Why Is Crime Falling?” The Economist. The Economist Newspaper, 23 July 2013. Web. 12 Mar. 2015. . Drum, Kevin. “The US Murder Rate Is on Track to Be Lowest in a Century.”Mother Jones. Mother Jones, 17 May 2013. Web. 13 Mar. 2015. . Hood, Roger, and Carolyn Hoyle. The Death Penalty: A Worldwide Perspective. Oxford: Oxford UP, 2002. 45. Print. Rizzo, Kevin. “Slideshow: America’s Safest and Most Dangerous States 2014.”Law Street Media. Law Street TM, 12 Sept. 2014. Web. 12 Mar. 2015. . Vollum, Scott. The Death Penalty: Constitutional Issues, Commentaries, and Case Briefs. Newark, NJ: LexisNexis, 2005. 2. Print. Theis, David. “Remarkable Declines in Global Poverty, But Major Challenges Remain.” The World Bank. The World Bank, 17 Apr. 2013. Web. 15 Mar. 2015. . Wilson, James Q. “Hard Times, Fewer Crimes.” WSJ. The Wall Street Journal, 28 May 2011. Web. 13 Mar. 2015. .

Fact Debate Brief Introduction Crime doesn’t pay; it should be … Read More...
http://www.econlib.org/library/Smith/smWN1.html#B.I,%20Ch.1,%20Of%20the%20Division%20of%20Labor What does Smith mean by division of labor, and how does it affect production? A. He means that each person does their own work to benefit themselves by creating goods. This creates well-crafted goods. B. He argues that in order to become more efficient, we need to put everyone in the same workhouses and eliminate division. C. He says that the division of labor provides farmers with the opportunity to become involved in manufacturing. D. He means that each person makes one small part of a good very quickly, but this is bad for the quality of production overall. E. He means that by having each individual specialize in one thing, they can work together to create products more efficiently and effectively. Which of the following is NOT an example of the circumstances by which the division of labor improves efficiency? A. A doll-making company stops allowing each employee to make one whole doll each and instead appoints each employee to create one part of the doll. B. A family of rug makers buys a loom to speed up their production. C. A mechanic opens a new shop to be nearer to the market. D. A factory changes the responsibilities of its employees so that one group handles heavy boxes and the other group does precision sewing. E. A baker who used to make a dozen cookies at a time buys a giant mixer and oven that enable him to make 20 dozen cookies at a time. Considering the global system of states, what do you think the allegory of the pins has to offer? A. It suggests that there could be a natural harmony of interests among states because they can divide labor among themselves to the benefit of everyone. B. It suggests that states can never be secure enough to cooperate because every state is equally capable of producing the same things. C. It suggests that a central authority is necessary to help states cooperate, in the same way that a manager oversees operations at a factory. D. The allegory of the pins is a great way to think about how wars come about, because states won’t cooperate with each other like pin-makers do. E. The allegory of the pins shows us that there is no natural harmony of interests between states. Smith sees the development of industry, technology, and the division of labor as A. generally positive but not progressive. The lives of many people may improve, but the world will generally stay the same. B. generally positive and progressive. The world is improving because of these changes, and it will continue to improve. C. generally negative. The creation of new technologies and the division of labor are harmful to all humans, both the wealthy and the poor. D. generally negative. The creation of the division of labor only benefits the wealthy at the expense of the poor. E. both positive and negative. Smith thinks that technology hurts us, while the division of labor helps society progress and develop. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RUwS1uAdUcI What point is Hans Rosling trying to make when he describes the global health pre-test? A. He is trying to show how the average person has no idea of the true state of global health. B. He is trying to illustrate how we tend to carry around outdated notions about the state of global health. C. He is trying to make us see that the less-developed countries are far worse off than we ever thought. D. He is trying to drive home the idea that global health has not improved over time despite foreign aid and improvements in medicine. E. He is trying to warn us about the rapid growth in world population. Rosling shows us that we tend to think about global health in terms of “we and them.” Who are the “we” and who are the “them”? A. “We” refers to academics, students, and scholars; “them” refers to the uneducated. B. “We” refers to the average person; “them” refers to politicians and global leaders. C. “We” refers to the wealthy; “them” refers to the poor. D. “We” refers to the Western world; “them” refers to the Third World. E. “We” refers to students; “them” refers to professors. In the life expectancy and fertility rate demonstration, what do the statistics reveal? A. Over time, developed countries produced small families and long lives, whereas developing countries produced large families and short lives. B. The world today looks much like it did in 1962 despite our attempts to help poorer countries develop. C. All countries in the world, even the poorer ones, are trending toward longer lives and smaller families. D. Developed countries are trending toward smaller families but shorter lives. E. All countries tend to make gains and losses in fertility and lifespan, but in the long run there is no significant change. What point does Rosling make about life expectancy in Vietnam as compared to the United States? To what does he attribute the change? A. He indicates that economic change preceded social change. B. He suggests that markets and free trade resulted in the increase in life expectancy. C. He says that the data indicates that the Vietnam War contributed to the decrease in life expectancy during that time, but that it recovered shortly thereafter. D. He says that social change in Asia preceded economic change, and life expectancy in Vietnam increased despite the war. E. He indicates that Vietnam was equal to the United States in life expectancy before the war. According to Rosling, how are regional statistics about child survival rates and GDP potentially misleading? A. Countries have an incentive to lie about the actual survival rates because they want foreign assistance. B. Statistics for the individual countries in a region are often vastly different. C. Regional statistics give us a strong sense of how we can understand development within one region, but it does not allow us to compare across regions. D. The data available over time and from countries within regions is often poorly collected and incomplete. E. Child survival rates cannot be compared regionally, since each culture has a different sense of how important children are. What is Rosling’s main point about statistical databases? A. The data is available but not readily accessible, so we need to create networks to solve that problem. B. The data that comes from these databases is often flawed and unreliable. C. It doesn’t matter whether we have access to these databases because the data can’t be used in an interesting way. D. Statistics can’t tell us very much, but we should do our best to make use of the information we do have. E. The information that could be true is too hard to sort out from what isn’t true because we don’t know how strong the data really is. http://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1916/imp-hsc/ch10.htm#v22zz99h-298-GUESS Click the link at left to read Chapter 10 of Imperialism, The Highest Stage of Capitalism, then answer the questions below. According to Lenin, what is the fundamental source of a monopoly? A. It is a natural effect of human behavior. B. It is the result of governments and police systems. C. Its source is rooted in democracy. D. It comes from the concentration of production at a high stage. E. It is what follows a socialist system. What are the principal types or manifestations of monopoly capitalism? A. Monopolistic capitalist associations like cartels, syndicates and trusts; and monopolies as a result of colonial policy. B. Monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital. C. Monopolization of governing structures and monopolies of oligarchies. D. Monopolist capitalist associations like cartels, syndicates and trusts; and monopolies as a result of colonial policy AND monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital. E. Monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital AND monopolization of governing structures and monopolies of oligarchies. What is the definition of a rentier state according to Lenin? A. A state that colonizes other states. B. A state whose bourgeoisie live off the export of capital. C. A poor state. D. A wealthy state. E. A colonized state. Overall Lenin’s analysis of the state of capitalism is concerned with: A. The interactions between states. B. The interactions within states. C. The ownership of industry and organizations. D. The interactions within states AND the ownership of industry and organizations. E. All of these options. http://view.vzaar.com/1194665/flashplayer Watch the video at left, and then answer the questions below. The Marshall Plan was developed by the United States after World War II. What was its purpose? A. to feed the hungry of Europe B. to stem the spread of communism C. to maintain an American military presence in Europe D. to feed the hungry of Europe AND to stem the spread of communism E. to stem the spread of communism AND to maintain an American military presence in Europe What kind of aid was sent at first? A. foods, fertilizers, and machines for agriculture B. books, paper, and radios for education C. clothing, medical supplies, and construction equipment D. mostly cash in the form of loans and grants E. people with business expertise to help develop the economy What kind of aid did the United States send to Greece to help its farmers? A. tractors B. mules C. seeds D. fertilizer E. all of these options What was one way that the United States influenced public opinion in Italy during the elections described in the video? A. The United States provided significant food aid to Italy so that the Italians would be inclined to vote against the Communists. B. The Italians had been impressed by the strength and loyalty of the American soldiers, and were inclined to listen to them during the elections. C. There was a large number of young Italians who followed American fashion and culture. D. Italian immigrants in the United States wrote letters to their families in Italy urging them not to vote for Communists. E. The Greeks showed the Italians how much the Americans had helped them, warning that supporting a Communist candidate would mean sacrificing American aid. How did Pope Pius XII undermine the strength of the Communist Party in Italy? A. He encouraged Italians to go out and vote. B. He warned that the Communist Party would legalize abortion. C. He excommunicated many members of the Communist Party. D. He made a speech in support of capitalism. E. He declared that Communists should not be baptized. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KVhWqwnZ1eM Use the video at left to answer the questions below. Hans Rosling shares how his students discuss “we” versus “them.” To whom are his students referring? A. the United States and Mexico B. Christians and Muslims C. Democrats and Republicans D. Europe and Asia E. none of these options According to Rosling, what factors contribute to a better quality of life for people in developing countries? A. family planning B. soap and water C. investment D. vaccinations E. all of these options Using his data, Rosling demonstrates a great shift in Mexico. What change does his data demonstrate? A. a decrease in drug usage B. a decrease in the number of jobs available C. an increase in average life expenctancy D. an increase in the rate of violent crime E. all of these options Instead of “developing” and “developed,” Rosling divides countries into four categories. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. high-income countries B. middle-income countries C. low-income countries D. no-income countries E. collapsing countries Rosling discusses the increased life expectancy in both China and the United States. How are the situations different? A. The U.S. and China are on different continents. B. The life expectancy in China rose much higher than it did in the U.S. C. China first expanded its life expectancy and then grew economically, whereas the U.S. did the reverse. D. Average income and life expectancy steadily increased in the U.S., but they steadily decreased in China. E. all of these options Rosling shows a chart that demonstrates the regional income distribution of the world from 1970 to 2015. During that time, what has happened in South and East Asia? A. Money has flowed out of Asia to developing countries in Africa. B. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has increased over the last 30 years. C. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has decreased over the last 30 years. D. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has surpassed that of Europe and North America. E. There has been no change. Click here to access GapMinder, the data visualizer that Hans Rosling uses. In 2010, which of the following countries had both a higher per-capita GDP and a higher life expectancy than the United States? A. France B. Japan C. Denmark D. Singapore E. Kuwait http://www.garretthardinsociety.org/articles/art_tragedy_of_the_commons.html http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8a4S23uXIcM The Tragedy of the Commons What is the rough definition of the “commons” given in the article? A. any private property on which others trespass B. behavior that everyone considers to be normal C. a cow that lives in a herd D. government-administered benefits, like unemployment or Social Security E. a shared resource What does Hardin mean by describing pollution as a reverse tragedy of the commons? A. Rather than causing a problem, it resolves a problem. B. Pollution costs us money rather than making us money. C. We are putting something into the commons rather than removing something from it. D. It starts at the other end of the biological pyramid. E. Humans see less of it as time goes on. Hardin says “the air and waters surrounding us cannot readily be fenced, and so the tragedy of the commons as a cesspool must be prevented by different means.” What are those means? A. establishing more international treaties to protect the environment B. using laws or taxes to make the polluter pay for pollution C. punishing consumers for generating waste D. raising awareness about environmental issues E. developing greener products Pacific Garbage Dump According to the news report, what percent of the Gyre is made of plastic? A. 50 percent B. 60 percent C. 70 percent D. 80 percent E. 90 percent Where does the majority of the plastic in the Gyre come from? A. barges that dump trash in the ocean B. storm drains from land C. people throwing litter off boats into the ocean D. remnants from movie sets filmed at sea E. fishing boats processing their catch What does Charles Moore mean by the “throwaway concept”? A. the habitual use of disposable plastic packaging B. the mistaken view that marine ecosystems are infinitely renewable C. a general lack of interest in recycling D. the willingness to discard effective but small-scale environmental policies in deference to broader E. people throwing away their lives in pursuit of money In what way does the Great Pacific Gyre represent issues like global warming a tragedy of the commons? A. because all the plastic trash in it comes from the United States B. because it kills the albatross and makes it impossible for them to reproduce C. surbecause the countries rounding the Pacific Ocean are polluting the water in a way that affects the quality of the resource for all, but no one is specifically accountable for it D. because it causes marine life to compete for increasingly scarce nutrients in the ocean E. because nations in the region all collectively agreed to dump their trash in the Pacific http://www.npr.org/news/specials/climate/video/ http://ngm.nationalgeographic.com/climateconnections/climate-map http://www.npr.org/news/specials/climate/video/wildchronicles.html Use the links provided at left to answer the questions below. Global Warming: It’s All About Carbon How does carbon give us fuel? A. When you burn things that contain carbon the bonds break, giving off energy. B. Burning things creates carbon out of other elements as a result of combustion. C. Carbon is created after oxygen and hydrogen get released. D. Carbon bonds are created thereby giving off energy. E. Carbon is made into fuel by refining oil. National Geographic Climate Map What geographic areas have seen the most significant changes in temperature? A. The African continent. B. The Pacific Ocean. C. The Atlantic Ocean. D. The Arctic Ocean. E. The Indian Ocean. Why does it matter that rain fall steadily rather than in downpours? A. For those countries accustomed to steady rain fall, downpours are actually more efficient ways to catch water. B. Downpours in regions accustomed to steady fall makes them more prone to flooding and damage. C. In general, as long as regions get either steady fall or downpours most things will stay the same. D. Downpours are always more beneficial to crop growth than steady rain. E. Steady rain is always more beneficial to crop growth than downpours. Climate Change Threatens Kona Coffee What is unique about the climate in Hawaii, making it a good place to grow coffee? A. The elevation is high, the nights are cool and the days are humid. B. The elevation is low, the nights are warm and the days are dry. C. The elevation is high, the nights are warm and the days are dry. D. The elevation is low, the nights are cool and the days are dry. E. The elevation is high, the nights are warm and the days are humid. What specific temperature pattern have experts noted about the region where Kona coffee is grown in Hawaii? A. There has been no significant change but the bean production has dropped. B. The nights have warmed up, even though the days have cooled. C. There has been an increase in bean production with the change in climate. D. The nights have cooled even more so than before. E. There has been universally hot days all the way around.

http://www.econlib.org/library/Smith/smWN1.html#B.I,%20Ch.1,%20Of%20the%20Division%20of%20Labor What does Smith mean by division of labor, and how does it affect production? A. He means that each person does their own work to benefit themselves by creating goods. This creates well-crafted goods. B. He argues that in order to become more efficient, we need to put everyone in the same workhouses and eliminate division. C. He says that the division of labor provides farmers with the opportunity to become involved in manufacturing. D. He means that each person makes one small part of a good very quickly, but this is bad for the quality of production overall. E. He means that by having each individual specialize in one thing, they can work together to create products more efficiently and effectively. Which of the following is NOT an example of the circumstances by which the division of labor improves efficiency? A. A doll-making company stops allowing each employee to make one whole doll each and instead appoints each employee to create one part of the doll. B. A family of rug makers buys a loom to speed up their production. C. A mechanic opens a new shop to be nearer to the market. D. A factory changes the responsibilities of its employees so that one group handles heavy boxes and the other group does precision sewing. E. A baker who used to make a dozen cookies at a time buys a giant mixer and oven that enable him to make 20 dozen cookies at a time. Considering the global system of states, what do you think the allegory of the pins has to offer? A. It suggests that there could be a natural harmony of interests among states because they can divide labor among themselves to the benefit of everyone. B. It suggests that states can never be secure enough to cooperate because every state is equally capable of producing the same things. C. It suggests that a central authority is necessary to help states cooperate, in the same way that a manager oversees operations at a factory. D. The allegory of the pins is a great way to think about how wars come about, because states won’t cooperate with each other like pin-makers do. E. The allegory of the pins shows us that there is no natural harmony of interests between states. Smith sees the development of industry, technology, and the division of labor as A. generally positive but not progressive. The lives of many people may improve, but the world will generally stay the same. B. generally positive and progressive. The world is improving because of these changes, and it will continue to improve. C. generally negative. The creation of new technologies and the division of labor are harmful to all humans, both the wealthy and the poor. D. generally negative. The creation of the division of labor only benefits the wealthy at the expense of the poor. E. both positive and negative. Smith thinks that technology hurts us, while the division of labor helps society progress and develop. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RUwS1uAdUcI What point is Hans Rosling trying to make when he describes the global health pre-test? A. He is trying to show how the average person has no idea of the true state of global health. B. He is trying to illustrate how we tend to carry around outdated notions about the state of global health. C. He is trying to make us see that the less-developed countries are far worse off than we ever thought. D. He is trying to drive home the idea that global health has not improved over time despite foreign aid and improvements in medicine. E. He is trying to warn us about the rapid growth in world population. Rosling shows us that we tend to think about global health in terms of “we and them.” Who are the “we” and who are the “them”? A. “We” refers to academics, students, and scholars; “them” refers to the uneducated. B. “We” refers to the average person; “them” refers to politicians and global leaders. C. “We” refers to the wealthy; “them” refers to the poor. D. “We” refers to the Western world; “them” refers to the Third World. E. “We” refers to students; “them” refers to professors. In the life expectancy and fertility rate demonstration, what do the statistics reveal? A. Over time, developed countries produced small families and long lives, whereas developing countries produced large families and short lives. B. The world today looks much like it did in 1962 despite our attempts to help poorer countries develop. C. All countries in the world, even the poorer ones, are trending toward longer lives and smaller families. D. Developed countries are trending toward smaller families but shorter lives. E. All countries tend to make gains and losses in fertility and lifespan, but in the long run there is no significant change. What point does Rosling make about life expectancy in Vietnam as compared to the United States? To what does he attribute the change? A. He indicates that economic change preceded social change. B. He suggests that markets and free trade resulted in the increase in life expectancy. C. He says that the data indicates that the Vietnam War contributed to the decrease in life expectancy during that time, but that it recovered shortly thereafter. D. He says that social change in Asia preceded economic change, and life expectancy in Vietnam increased despite the war. E. He indicates that Vietnam was equal to the United States in life expectancy before the war. According to Rosling, how are regional statistics about child survival rates and GDP potentially misleading? A. Countries have an incentive to lie about the actual survival rates because they want foreign assistance. B. Statistics for the individual countries in a region are often vastly different. C. Regional statistics give us a strong sense of how we can understand development within one region, but it does not allow us to compare across regions. D. The data available over time and from countries within regions is often poorly collected and incomplete. E. Child survival rates cannot be compared regionally, since each culture has a different sense of how important children are. What is Rosling’s main point about statistical databases? A. The data is available but not readily accessible, so we need to create networks to solve that problem. B. The data that comes from these databases is often flawed and unreliable. C. It doesn’t matter whether we have access to these databases because the data can’t be used in an interesting way. D. Statistics can’t tell us very much, but we should do our best to make use of the information we do have. E. The information that could be true is too hard to sort out from what isn’t true because we don’t know how strong the data really is. http://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1916/imp-hsc/ch10.htm#v22zz99h-298-GUESS Click the link at left to read Chapter 10 of Imperialism, The Highest Stage of Capitalism, then answer the questions below. According to Lenin, what is the fundamental source of a monopoly? A. It is a natural effect of human behavior. B. It is the result of governments and police systems. C. Its source is rooted in democracy. D. It comes from the concentration of production at a high stage. E. It is what follows a socialist system. What are the principal types or manifestations of monopoly capitalism? A. Monopolistic capitalist associations like cartels, syndicates and trusts; and monopolies as a result of colonial policy. B. Monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital. C. Monopolization of governing structures and monopolies of oligarchies. D. Monopolist capitalist associations like cartels, syndicates and trusts; and monopolies as a result of colonial policy AND monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital. E. Monopolization of raw materials and monopolization of finance capital AND monopolization of governing structures and monopolies of oligarchies. What is the definition of a rentier state according to Lenin? A. A state that colonizes other states. B. A state whose bourgeoisie live off the export of capital. C. A poor state. D. A wealthy state. E. A colonized state. Overall Lenin’s analysis of the state of capitalism is concerned with: A. The interactions between states. B. The interactions within states. C. The ownership of industry and organizations. D. The interactions within states AND the ownership of industry and organizations. E. All of these options. http://view.vzaar.com/1194665/flashplayer Watch the video at left, and then answer the questions below. The Marshall Plan was developed by the United States after World War II. What was its purpose? A. to feed the hungry of Europe B. to stem the spread of communism C. to maintain an American military presence in Europe D. to feed the hungry of Europe AND to stem the spread of communism E. to stem the spread of communism AND to maintain an American military presence in Europe What kind of aid was sent at first? A. foods, fertilizers, and machines for agriculture B. books, paper, and radios for education C. clothing, medical supplies, and construction equipment D. mostly cash in the form of loans and grants E. people with business expertise to help develop the economy What kind of aid did the United States send to Greece to help its farmers? A. tractors B. mules C. seeds D. fertilizer E. all of these options What was one way that the United States influenced public opinion in Italy during the elections described in the video? A. The United States provided significant food aid to Italy so that the Italians would be inclined to vote against the Communists. B. The Italians had been impressed by the strength and loyalty of the American soldiers, and were inclined to listen to them during the elections. C. There was a large number of young Italians who followed American fashion and culture. D. Italian immigrants in the United States wrote letters to their families in Italy urging them not to vote for Communists. E. The Greeks showed the Italians how much the Americans had helped them, warning that supporting a Communist candidate would mean sacrificing American aid. How did Pope Pius XII undermine the strength of the Communist Party in Italy? A. He encouraged Italians to go out and vote. B. He warned that the Communist Party would legalize abortion. C. He excommunicated many members of the Communist Party. D. He made a speech in support of capitalism. E. He declared that Communists should not be baptized. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KVhWqwnZ1eM Use the video at left to answer the questions below. Hans Rosling shares how his students discuss “we” versus “them.” To whom are his students referring? A. the United States and Mexico B. Christians and Muslims C. Democrats and Republicans D. Europe and Asia E. none of these options According to Rosling, what factors contribute to a better quality of life for people in developing countries? A. family planning B. soap and water C. investment D. vaccinations E. all of these options Using his data, Rosling demonstrates a great shift in Mexico. What change does his data demonstrate? A. a decrease in drug usage B. a decrease in the number of jobs available C. an increase in average life expenctancy D. an increase in the rate of violent crime E. all of these options Instead of “developing” and “developed,” Rosling divides countries into four categories. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. high-income countries B. middle-income countries C. low-income countries D. no-income countries E. collapsing countries Rosling discusses the increased life expectancy in both China and the United States. How are the situations different? A. The U.S. and China are on different continents. B. The life expectancy in China rose much higher than it did in the U.S. C. China first expanded its life expectancy and then grew economically, whereas the U.S. did the reverse. D. Average income and life expectancy steadily increased in the U.S., but they steadily decreased in China. E. all of these options Rosling shows a chart that demonstrates the regional income distribution of the world from 1970 to 2015. During that time, what has happened in South and East Asia? A. Money has flowed out of Asia to developing countries in Africa. B. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has increased over the last 30 years. C. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has decreased over the last 30 years. D. The average income of citizens of South and East Asia has surpassed that of Europe and North America. E. There has been no change. Click here to access GapMinder, the data visualizer that Hans Rosling uses. In 2010, which of the following countries had both a higher per-capita GDP and a higher life expectancy than the United States? A. France B. Japan C. Denmark D. Singapore E. Kuwait http://www.garretthardinsociety.org/articles/art_tragedy_of_the_commons.html http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8a4S23uXIcM The Tragedy of the Commons What is the rough definition of the “commons” given in the article? A. any private property on which others trespass B. behavior that everyone considers to be normal C. a cow that lives in a herd D. government-administered benefits, like unemployment or Social Security E. a shared resource What does Hardin mean by describing pollution as a reverse tragedy of the commons? A. Rather than causing a problem, it resolves a problem. B. Pollution costs us money rather than making us money. C. We are putting something into the commons rather than removing something from it. D. It starts at the other end of the biological pyramid. E. Humans see less of it as time goes on. Hardin says “the air and waters surrounding us cannot readily be fenced, and so the tragedy of the commons as a cesspool must be prevented by different means.” What are those means? A. establishing more international treaties to protect the environment B. using laws or taxes to make the polluter pay for pollution C. punishing consumers for generating waste D. raising awareness about environmental issues E. developing greener products Pacific Garbage Dump According to the news report, what percent of the Gyre is made of plastic? A. 50 percent B. 60 percent C. 70 percent D. 80 percent E. 90 percent Where does the majority of the plastic in the Gyre come from? A. barges that dump trash in the ocean B. storm drains from land C. people throwing litter off boats into the ocean D. remnants from movie sets filmed at sea E. fishing boats processing their catch What does Charles Moore mean by the “throwaway concept”? A. the habitual use of disposable plastic packaging B. the mistaken view that marine ecosystems are infinitely renewable C. a general lack of interest in recycling D. the willingness to discard effective but small-scale environmental policies in deference to broader E. people throwing away their lives in pursuit of money In what way does the Great Pacific Gyre represent issues like global warming a tragedy of the commons? A. because all the plastic trash in it comes from the United States B. because it kills the albatross and makes it impossible for them to reproduce C. surbecause the countries rounding the Pacific Ocean are polluting the water in a way that affects the quality of the resource for all, but no one is specifically accountable for it D. because it causes marine life to compete for increasingly scarce nutrients in the ocean E. because nations in the region all collectively agreed to dump their trash in the Pacific http://www.npr.org/news/specials/climate/video/ http://ngm.nationalgeographic.com/climateconnections/climate-map http://www.npr.org/news/specials/climate/video/wildchronicles.html Use the links provided at left to answer the questions below. Global Warming: It’s All About Carbon How does carbon give us fuel? A. When you burn things that contain carbon the bonds break, giving off energy. B. Burning things creates carbon out of other elements as a result of combustion. C. Carbon is created after oxygen and hydrogen get released. D. Carbon bonds are created thereby giving off energy. E. Carbon is made into fuel by refining oil. National Geographic Climate Map What geographic areas have seen the most significant changes in temperature? A. The African continent. B. The Pacific Ocean. C. The Atlantic Ocean. D. The Arctic Ocean. E. The Indian Ocean. Why does it matter that rain fall steadily rather than in downpours? A. For those countries accustomed to steady rain fall, downpours are actually more efficient ways to catch water. B. Downpours in regions accustomed to steady fall makes them more prone to flooding and damage. C. In general, as long as regions get either steady fall or downpours most things will stay the same. D. Downpours are always more beneficial to crop growth than steady rain. E. Steady rain is always more beneficial to crop growth than downpours. Climate Change Threatens Kona Coffee What is unique about the climate in Hawaii, making it a good place to grow coffee? A. The elevation is high, the nights are cool and the days are humid. B. The elevation is low, the nights are warm and the days are dry. C. The elevation is high, the nights are warm and the days are dry. D. The elevation is low, the nights are cool and the days are dry. E. The elevation is high, the nights are warm and the days are humid. What specific temperature pattern have experts noted about the region where Kona coffee is grown in Hawaii? A. There has been no significant change but the bean production has dropped. B. The nights have warmed up, even though the days have cooled. C. There has been an increase in bean production with the change in climate. D. The nights have cooled even more so than before. E. There has been universally hot days all the way around.

http://www.econlib.org/library/Smith/smWN1.html#B.I,%20Ch.1,%20Of%20the%20Division%20of%20Labor What does Smith mean by division of labor, and … Read More...
Problems Marking scheme 1. Let A be a nonzero square matrix. Is it possible that a positive integer k exists such that ?? = 0 ? For example, find ?3 for the matrix [ 0 1 2 0 0 1 0 0 0 ] A square matrix A is nilpotent of index k when ? ≠ 0 , ?2 ≠ 0 , … . . , ??−1 ≠ 0, ??? ?? = 0. In this task you will explore nilpotent matrices. 1. The matrix in the example given above is nilpotent. What is its index? ( 2 marks ) 2. Use a software program to determine which of the following matrices are nilpotent and find their indices ( 12 marks ) A. [ 0 1 0 0 ] B. [ 0 1 1 0 ] C. [ 0 0 1 0 ] D. [ 1 0 1 0 ] E. [ 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 ] F. [ 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 ] 3. Find 3×3 nilpotent matrices of indices 2 and 3 ( 2 marks ) 4. Find 4×4 nilpotent matrices of indices 2, 3, and 4 ( 2 marks ) 5. Find nilpotent matrix of index 5 ( 2 marks ) 6. Are nilpotent matrices invertible? prove your answer ( 3 marks ) 7. When A is nilpotent, what can you say about ?? ? prove your answer ( 3 marks ) 8. Show that if ? is nilpotent , then ? − ? is invertible ( 4 marks ) 30% 2. A radio transmitter circuit contains a resisitance of 2.0 Ω, a variable inductor of 100 − ? ℎ?????? and a voltage source of 4.0 ? . find the current ? in the circuit as a function of the time t for 0 ≤ ? ≤ 100? if the intial curent is zero. Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 3. An object falling under the influence of gravity has a variable accelertaion given by 32 − ? , where ? represents the velocity. If the object starts from rest, find an expression for the velocity in terms of the time. Also, find the limiting value of the velocity. Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 4. When the angular displacement ? of a pendulum is small ( less than 60), the pendulum moves with simple harmonic motion closely approximated by ?′′ + ? ? ? = 0 . Here , ?′ = ?? ?? and ? is the accelertaion due to gravity , and ? is the length of the pendulum. Find ? as a function of time ( in s ) if ? = 9.8 ?/?2, ? = 1.0 ? ? = 0.1 and ?? ?? = 0 when ? = 0 . sketch the cuve using any graphical tool. Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 5. Find the equation relating the charge and the time in a electric circuit with the following elements: ? = 0.200 ? , ? = 8.00 Ω , ? = 1.00 ?? , ? = 0. In this circuit , ? = 0 and ? = 0.500 ? when ? = 0 Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 6. A spring is stretched 1 m by ? 20 − ? Weight. The spring is stretched 0.5 m below the equilibrium position with the weight attached and the then released. If it is a medium that resists the motion with a force equal to 12?, where v is the velocity, sketch and find the displacement y of the weight as a function of the time. Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 7. A 20?? inductor, a 40.0 Ω resistor, a 50.0 ?? capacitor, and voltage source of 100 ?−100?are connected in series in an electric circuit. Find the charge on the capacitor as a function of time t , if ? = 0 and ? = 0 ?ℎ?? ? = 0 Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 10% quality and neatness and using Math equations in MS word. –

Problems Marking scheme 1. Let A be a nonzero square matrix. Is it possible that a positive integer k exists such that ?? = 0 ? For example, find ?3 for the matrix [ 0 1 2 0 0 1 0 0 0 ] A square matrix A is nilpotent of index k when ? ≠ 0 , ?2 ≠ 0 , … . . , ??−1 ≠ 0, ??? ?? = 0. In this task you will explore nilpotent matrices. 1. The matrix in the example given above is nilpotent. What is its index? ( 2 marks ) 2. Use a software program to determine which of the following matrices are nilpotent and find their indices ( 12 marks ) A. [ 0 1 0 0 ] B. [ 0 1 1 0 ] C. [ 0 0 1 0 ] D. [ 1 0 1 0 ] E. [ 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 ] F. [ 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 ] 3. Find 3×3 nilpotent matrices of indices 2 and 3 ( 2 marks ) 4. Find 4×4 nilpotent matrices of indices 2, 3, and 4 ( 2 marks ) 5. Find nilpotent matrix of index 5 ( 2 marks ) 6. Are nilpotent matrices invertible? prove your answer ( 3 marks ) 7. When A is nilpotent, what can you say about ?? ? prove your answer ( 3 marks ) 8. Show that if ? is nilpotent , then ? − ? is invertible ( 4 marks ) 30% 2. A radio transmitter circuit contains a resisitance of 2.0 Ω, a variable inductor of 100 − ? ℎ?????? and a voltage source of 4.0 ? . find the current ? in the circuit as a function of the time t for 0 ≤ ? ≤ 100? if the intial curent is zero. Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 3. An object falling under the influence of gravity has a variable accelertaion given by 32 − ? , where ? represents the velocity. If the object starts from rest, find an expression for the velocity in terms of the time. Also, find the limiting value of the velocity. Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 4. When the angular displacement ? of a pendulum is small ( less than 60), the pendulum moves with simple harmonic motion closely approximated by ?′′ + ? ? ? = 0 . Here , ?′ = ?? ?? and ? is the accelertaion due to gravity , and ? is the length of the pendulum. Find ? as a function of time ( in s ) if ? = 9.8 ?/?2, ? = 1.0 ? ? = 0.1 and ?? ?? = 0 when ? = 0 . sketch the cuve using any graphical tool. Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 5. Find the equation relating the charge and the time in a electric circuit with the following elements: ? = 0.200 ? , ? = 8.00 Ω , ? = 1.00 ?? , ? = 0. In this circuit , ? = 0 and ? = 0.500 ? when ? = 0 Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 6. A spring is stretched 1 m by ? 20 − ? Weight. The spring is stretched 0.5 m below the equilibrium position with the weight attached and the then released. If it is a medium that resists the motion with a force equal to 12?, where v is the velocity, sketch and find the displacement y of the weight as a function of the time. Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 7. A 20?? inductor, a 40.0 Ω resistor, a 50.0 ?? capacitor, and voltage source of 100 ?−100?are connected in series in an electric circuit. Find the charge on the capacitor as a function of time t , if ? = 0 and ? = 0 ?ℎ?? ? = 0 Correct solution 5% Graph the general solution 2.5% Graph the function and particular solution 2.5% 10% quality and neatness and using Math equations in MS word. –

Problems Marking scheme 1. Let A be a nonzero square … Read More...
Critical Essay Guidelines FORMAT: Prepare your paper as a Microsoft Word file. Single-space the body of your paper; you may double-space between the headings (Introduction, Background Explanation and Critical Evaluation) described below. Use 1” margins on all sides. Use a font that is no larger than Times New Roman at 12 pt. and no smaller than Times New Roman at 10 pt. Put your name, course name, section and the date in a header on top of all pages. Include page numbers. LENGTH, TOPIC, ETC.: Write a 2 – 3 page (single-spaced) (1500 words) critical response on your topic. Back up your discussion with direct quotation from the relevant text, preferably short quotes, such as single sentences and (even better) crucial phrases. Leave out words or phrases using…ellipses…, etc. Less than 1/4 page total of your paper should be direct quotation. Cite any direct quotes simply by giving text title and page number in parentheses; the page number will either be from the textbook or what’s posted on Blackboard. For example, such a citation might look like: (Schoedinger, 25). Include a “Works Cited” page at the end of your paper citing the primary philosophic text from Schoedinger’s textbook. No other sources should be used. Treat your intended audience as someone who has some familiarity with philosophy generally, but no familiarity with the details of what you are writing on. STRUCTURE: In this critical response, you will do all and only the following three things, putting each under its OWN SECTION HEADING: A. INTRODUCTION Begin with a one-sentence introductory paragraph where you very briefly say what you will be doing in the rest of the critical response, one which has the exact form: “In this critical response, I will consider <insert chosen topic>, and then I will argue that <insert statement of main thesis>.” For example: “In this critical response, I will consider Socrates’ views on a worthwhile life, and then I will argue that the worthwhile life is nothing more or less than the life of pleasure.” B. BACKGROUND EXPLANATION Explain (in one-half to 1 page), as clearly as you can, the background to your chosen topic, including any relevant discussion in the text, and also including any relevant theories, arguments, objections, crucial notions and distinctions, etc. C. CRITICAL EVALUATION Critically evaluate (in 1½ – 2 pages) your chosen topic. This involves explaining and defending your thesis on the topic. In doing this, address relevant material from your “ Background Explanation” section. Also, you are encouraged (but not required) to anticipate potential objections and reply to them. Throughout your critical evaluation, pay careful attention (even if just informally) to the criteria of a good argument. This applies both when you are considering others’ arguments and when you are giving your own. GRADING: Grading will be based partly on whether or not you have successfully followed the instructions above (including the format requirements). Each defect in terms of failure to satisfy the instructions will cost you points. Any paper which completely ignores all instructions, however, will receive a zero. Barring prior consent from me or documented and sufficiently excusing special contingency, late papers will be graded in accord with the late policy on the syllabus. Grading will also be based on the writing quality. Here I have in mind things like: is the paper clear, concise, grammatical and accurate? Does it provide necessary explanations and avoid irrelevant material?

Critical Essay Guidelines FORMAT: Prepare your paper as a Microsoft Word file. Single-space the body of your paper; you may double-space between the headings (Introduction, Background Explanation and Critical Evaluation) described below. Use 1” margins on all sides. Use a font that is no larger than Times New Roman at 12 pt. and no smaller than Times New Roman at 10 pt. Put your name, course name, section and the date in a header on top of all pages. Include page numbers. LENGTH, TOPIC, ETC.: Write a 2 – 3 page (single-spaced) (1500 words) critical response on your topic. Back up your discussion with direct quotation from the relevant text, preferably short quotes, such as single sentences and (even better) crucial phrases. Leave out words or phrases using…ellipses…, etc. Less than 1/4 page total of your paper should be direct quotation. Cite any direct quotes simply by giving text title and page number in parentheses; the page number will either be from the textbook or what’s posted on Blackboard. For example, such a citation might look like: (Schoedinger, 25). Include a “Works Cited” page at the end of your paper citing the primary philosophic text from Schoedinger’s textbook. No other sources should be used. Treat your intended audience as someone who has some familiarity with philosophy generally, but no familiarity with the details of what you are writing on. STRUCTURE: In this critical response, you will do all and only the following three things, putting each under its OWN SECTION HEADING: A. INTRODUCTION Begin with a one-sentence introductory paragraph where you very briefly say what you will be doing in the rest of the critical response, one which has the exact form: “In this critical response, I will consider , and then I will argue that .” For example: “In this critical response, I will consider Socrates’ views on a worthwhile life, and then I will argue that the worthwhile life is nothing more or less than the life of pleasure.” B. BACKGROUND EXPLANATION Explain (in one-half to 1 page), as clearly as you can, the background to your chosen topic, including any relevant discussion in the text, and also including any relevant theories, arguments, objections, crucial notions and distinctions, etc. C. CRITICAL EVALUATION Critically evaluate (in 1½ – 2 pages) your chosen topic. This involves explaining and defending your thesis on the topic. In doing this, address relevant material from your “ Background Explanation” section. Also, you are encouraged (but not required) to anticipate potential objections and reply to them. Throughout your critical evaluation, pay careful attention (even if just informally) to the criteria of a good argument. This applies both when you are considering others’ arguments and when you are giving your own. GRADING: Grading will be based partly on whether or not you have successfully followed the instructions above (including the format requirements). Each defect in terms of failure to satisfy the instructions will cost you points. Any paper which completely ignores all instructions, however, will receive a zero. Barring prior consent from me or documented and sufficiently excusing special contingency, late papers will be graded in accord with the late policy on the syllabus. Grading will also be based on the writing quality. Here I have in mind things like: is the paper clear, concise, grammatical and accurate? Does it provide necessary explanations and avoid irrelevant material?

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Assignment 2 Conditional Probability, Bayes Theorem, and Random Variables Conditional Probability and Bayes’ Theorem Problems 1-14 from Problem Set on Conditional Probability and Bayes’ Theorem I am including all the question here so that there is no confusion. Q1. Pair of six sided dices are rolled and the outcome is noted: What is the sample space? What is the size of the sample space? Suppose all we are interested in is the sum of the two outcomes. What is the probability that the sum of the two is 6? 7? 8? (Note: This can be solved using both enumeration and conditional probability method). Here, it makes more sense to use the enumeration approach than conditional probability. It is, however, listed here to set the stage for Q5. What is the probability that the sum of the two is above 5 and the two numbers are equal? Express this question in terms of events A, B, and set operators. What is the probability that the sum of the two is above 5 or the two numbers are equal? Express this question in terms of events A, B, and set operators. Q2. If P(A)=0.4, P(B)=0.5 and P(A∩B)=0.3 What is the value of (a) P(A|B) and (b) P(B|A) Q3. At a fair, a vendor has 25 helium balloons on strings: 10 balloons are yellow, 8 are red, and 7 are green. A balloon is selected at random and sold. Given that the balloon sold is yellow, what is the probability that the next balloon selected at random is also yellow? Q4. A bowl contains seven blue chips and three red chips. Two chips are to be drawn at random and without replacement. What is the probability that the fist chip is a red chip and the second a blue? Express this question in terms of events A, B, and set operators and use conditional probability. Q5. Three six sided dices are rolled and the outcome is noted: What is the size of the sample space? What is the probability that the sum of the three numbers is 6? 13? 18? Solve using conditional probability How does the concept of conditional probability help? Q6. A grade school boy has 5 blue and four white marbles in his left pocket and four blue and five white marbles in his right pocket. If he transfers one marble at random from his left pocket to his right pocket, what is the probability of his then drawing a blue marble from his right pocket? Q7. In a certain factory, machine I, II, and III are all producing springs of the same length. Of their production, machines I, II, and III produce 2%, 1%, and 3% defective springs respectively. Of the total production of springs in the factory, machine I produces 35%, machine II produces 25%, and machine III produces 40%. If one spring is selected at random from the total springs produced in a day, what is the probability that it is defective? Given that the selected spring is defective, what is the probability that it was produced on machine III? Q8. Bowl B1 contains 2 white chips, bowl B2 contains 2 red chips, bowl B3 contains 2 white and 2 red chips, and Bowl B4 contains 3 white chips and 1 red chip. The probabilities of selecting bowl B1, B2, B3, and B4 are 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, and 1/8 respectively. A bowl is selected using these probabilities, and a chip is then drawn at random. Find P(W), the probability of drawing a white chip P(B1|W): the probability that bowl B1 was selected, given that a white chip was drawn. Q9. A pap smear is a screening procedure used to detect cervical cancer. For women with this cancer, there are about 16% false negative. For women without cervical cancer, there are about 19% false positive. In the US, there are about 8 women in 100,000 who have this cancer. What is the probability that a woman who has been tested positive actually has cervical cancer? Q10. There is a new diagnostic test for a disease that occurs in about 0.05% of the population. The test is not perfect but will detect a person with the disease 99% of the time. It will, however, say that a person without the disease has the disease about 3% of the time. A person is selected at random from the population and the test indicates that this person has the disease. What are the conditional probabilities that The person has the disease The person does not have the disease Q11. Consider two urns: the first contains two white and seven black balls, and the second contains five white and six black balls. We flip a fair coin and then draw a ball from the first urn or the second urn depending on whether the outcome was a head or a tails. What is the conditional probability that the outcome of the toss was heads given that a white ball was selected? Q12. In answering a question on a multiple-choice test a student either knows the answer or guesses. Let p be the probability that she knows the answer. Assume that a student who guesses at the answer will be correct with probability 1/m where m is the number of multiple choice alternatives. What is the conditional probability that a student knew the answer given that she answered it correctly? Q13. A laboratory blood test is 95% effective in detecting a certain disease when it is, in fact, present. However, the test also yields a “false positive” result for 1% of the healthy persons tested (i.e., if a healthy person is tested, then, with probability 0.01, the test result will imply that he has the disease.). If 0.5% of the population actually have the disease, what is the probability a person has the disease given that his test results are positive? Q14. An urn contains b black balls and r red balls. One of the balls is drawn at random, but when it is put back in the urn, c additional balls of the same color are put in it with it. Now suppose that we draw another ball. What is the probability that the first ball drawn was black given that the second ball drawn was red? Random Variables Q15. Suppose an experiment consists of tossing two six sided fair dice and observing the outcomes. What is the sample space? Let Y denote the sum of the two numbers that appear on the dice. Define Y to be a random variable. What are the values that the random variable Y can take? What does it mean if we say Y=7? What does it mean if I say that Y<7? Q16. Suppose an experiment consists of picking a sample of size n from a population of size N. Assume that n≪N. Also, assume that the population contains D defective parts and N-D non defective parts, where n<D≪N. What is the sample space? If we are interested in knowing the number (count) of defective parts in the sample space, describe how, the concept of a random variable could help. Define a random variable Y and describe what values the random variable Y can take? What does it mean if we say Y=5? Q17. Suppose an experiment consists of tossing two fair coins. Let Y denote the number of heads appearing. Define Y to be a random variable. What are the values that the random variable Y can take? What does it mean if we say Y=1? What are the probabilities associated with each outcome? What is the sum of the probabilities associated with all possible values that Y can take? Q18. A lot, consisting of 100 fuses, is inspected by the following procedure. Five fuses are chosen at random and tested: if all 5 fuses pass the inspection, the lot is accepted. Suppose that the lot contains 20 defective fuses. What is the probability of accepting the lot? Define the random variable, its purpose, and the formula/concept that you would use. Q19. In a small pond there are 50 fish, 10 of which have been tagged. If a fisherman’s catch consists of 7 fish, selected at random and without replacement. Give an example of a random variable that can be defined if we are interested in knowing the number of tagged fish that are caught? What is the probability that exactly 2 tagged fish are caught? Define the random variable, its purpose, and the formula/concept that you would use. Applied to Quality Control Q20. My manufacturing firm makes 100 cars every day out of which 10 are defective; the quality control inspector tests drives 5 different cars. Based on the sample, the quality control inspector will make a generalization about the whole batch of 100 cars that I have on that day. Let d denote the number of defective cars in the sample What are the values that d can take (given the information provided above)? What is the probability that the quality control inspector will conclude that: (a) 0% of the cars are defective- call this P(d=0); (b) 20% of the cars are defective- call this P(d=1); (c) 40% of the cars are defective- call this P(d=2); (d) 60% of the cars are defective- call this P(d=3),(e) 80% of the cars are defective- call this P(d=4), and (f) 100% of the cars are defective- call this P(d=5) What is P(d=0)+ P(d=1)+ P(d=2)+ P(d=3)+ P(d=4)+ P(d=5) Let’s assume that the quality control inspector has been doing the testing for a while (say for the past 1000 days). What is the average # of defective cars that he found? Q21. Assume that the quality control inspector is selecting 1 car at a time and the car that he tested is put back in the pool of possible cars that he can test (sample with replacement). Let d denote the number of defective cars in the sample (n) What are the values that d can take (given the information provided above)? What is the probability that the quality control inspector will conclude that: (a) 0% of the cars are defective, (b) 20% of the cars are defective, (c) 40% of the cars are defective, (d) 60% of the cars are defective, (e) 80% of the cars are defective, and (f) 100% of the cars are defective. Let’s call these P(d=0)….P(d=5) What is P(d=0)+ P(d=1)+ P(d=2)+ P(d=3)+ P(d=4)+ P(d=5) Let’s assume that the quality control inspector has been doing the testing for a while (say for the past 1000 days). What is the average # of defective cars that he found? Interesting Problems Q22. A closet contains n pairs of shoes. If 2r shoes are chosen at random (2r<n), what is the probability that there will be no matching pair in the sample? Q23. In a draft lottery containing the 366 days of the leap year, what is the probability that the first 180 days drawn (without replacement) are evenly distributed among the 12 months? What is the probability that the first 30 days drawn contain none from September? Q25. You and I play a coin-tossing game. If the coin falls heads I score one, if tails, you score one. In the beginning, the score is zero. What is the probability that after 2n throws our scores are equal? What is the probability that after 2n+1 throws my score is three more than yours?

Assignment 2 Conditional Probability, Bayes Theorem, and Random Variables Conditional Probability and Bayes’ Theorem Problems 1-14 from Problem Set on Conditional Probability and Bayes’ Theorem I am including all the question here so that there is no confusion. Q1. Pair of six sided dices are rolled and the outcome is noted: What is the sample space? What is the size of the sample space? Suppose all we are interested in is the sum of the two outcomes. What is the probability that the sum of the two is 6? 7? 8? (Note: This can be solved using both enumeration and conditional probability method). Here, it makes more sense to use the enumeration approach than conditional probability. It is, however, listed here to set the stage for Q5. What is the probability that the sum of the two is above 5 and the two numbers are equal? Express this question in terms of events A, B, and set operators. What is the probability that the sum of the two is above 5 or the two numbers are equal? Express this question in terms of events A, B, and set operators. Q2. If P(A)=0.4, P(B)=0.5 and P(A∩B)=0.3 What is the value of (a) P(A|B) and (b) P(B|A) Q3. At a fair, a vendor has 25 helium balloons on strings: 10 balloons are yellow, 8 are red, and 7 are green. A balloon is selected at random and sold. Given that the balloon sold is yellow, what is the probability that the next balloon selected at random is also yellow? Q4. A bowl contains seven blue chips and three red chips. Two chips are to be drawn at random and without replacement. What is the probability that the fist chip is a red chip and the second a blue? Express this question in terms of events A, B, and set operators and use conditional probability. Q5. Three six sided dices are rolled and the outcome is noted: What is the size of the sample space? What is the probability that the sum of the three numbers is 6? 13? 18? Solve using conditional probability How does the concept of conditional probability help? Q6. A grade school boy has 5 blue and four white marbles in his left pocket and four blue and five white marbles in his right pocket. If he transfers one marble at random from his left pocket to his right pocket, what is the probability of his then drawing a blue marble from his right pocket? Q7. In a certain factory, machine I, II, and III are all producing springs of the same length. Of their production, machines I, II, and III produce 2%, 1%, and 3% defective springs respectively. Of the total production of springs in the factory, machine I produces 35%, machine II produces 25%, and machine III produces 40%. If one spring is selected at random from the total springs produced in a day, what is the probability that it is defective? Given that the selected spring is defective, what is the probability that it was produced on machine III? Q8. Bowl B1 contains 2 white chips, bowl B2 contains 2 red chips, bowl B3 contains 2 white and 2 red chips, and Bowl B4 contains 3 white chips and 1 red chip. The probabilities of selecting bowl B1, B2, B3, and B4 are 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, and 1/8 respectively. A bowl is selected using these probabilities, and a chip is then drawn at random. Find P(W), the probability of drawing a white chip P(B1|W): the probability that bowl B1 was selected, given that a white chip was drawn. Q9. A pap smear is a screening procedure used to detect cervical cancer. For women with this cancer, there are about 16% false negative. For women without cervical cancer, there are about 19% false positive. In the US, there are about 8 women in 100,000 who have this cancer. What is the probability that a woman who has been tested positive actually has cervical cancer? Q10. There is a new diagnostic test for a disease that occurs in about 0.05% of the population. The test is not perfect but will detect a person with the disease 99% of the time. It will, however, say that a person without the disease has the disease about 3% of the time. A person is selected at random from the population and the test indicates that this person has the disease. What are the conditional probabilities that The person has the disease The person does not have the disease Q11. Consider two urns: the first contains two white and seven black balls, and the second contains five white and six black balls. We flip a fair coin and then draw a ball from the first urn or the second urn depending on whether the outcome was a head or a tails. What is the conditional probability that the outcome of the toss was heads given that a white ball was selected? Q12. In answering a question on a multiple-choice test a student either knows the answer or guesses. Let p be the probability that she knows the answer. Assume that a student who guesses at the answer will be correct with probability 1/m where m is the number of multiple choice alternatives. What is the conditional probability that a student knew the answer given that she answered it correctly? Q13. A laboratory blood test is 95% effective in detecting a certain disease when it is, in fact, present. However, the test also yields a “false positive” result for 1% of the healthy persons tested (i.e., if a healthy person is tested, then, with probability 0.01, the test result will imply that he has the disease.). If 0.5% of the population actually have the disease, what is the probability a person has the disease given that his test results are positive? Q14. An urn contains b black balls and r red balls. One of the balls is drawn at random, but when it is put back in the urn, c additional balls of the same color are put in it with it. Now suppose that we draw another ball. What is the probability that the first ball drawn was black given that the second ball drawn was red? Random Variables Q15. Suppose an experiment consists of tossing two six sided fair dice and observing the outcomes. What is the sample space? Let Y denote the sum of the two numbers that appear on the dice. Define Y to be a random variable. What are the values that the random variable Y can take? What does it mean if we say Y=7? What does it mean if I say that Y<7? Q16. Suppose an experiment consists of picking a sample of size n from a population of size N. Assume that n≪N. Also, assume that the population contains D defective parts and N-D non defective parts, where n

Instructions Multiple Attempts Not allowed. This test can only be taken once. Force Completion This test can be saved and resumed later. Question 1 1. According to Matthews, Egyptian culture is thought to be ______. more pessimistic in outlook that Mesopotamian culture. Egyptians were more fun and had more parties than Mesopotamians. more optimistic in outlook that Mesopotamian culture. Ancient Sumerians could really throw a party. Question 2 1. The Rosetta Stone, found in the Rosetta section of the Nile by Napoleon, allowed historians to translate Egyptian hieroglyphics because it had each of the following languages EXCEPT ______. Hieratic Hieroglyphics Greek Coptic Question 3 1. Select the legacies of Near Eastern civilizations. Choose all the correct answers. Lunar calendar that guides planting Number system based on 60 Newspapers Algebra Pschology Writing Question 4 1. Each of the following would be considered a quality of Egyptian art EXCEPT _____. people were portrayed with serene looks on their faces. sculptures, paintings and reliefs portray figures in profile and from the front simultaneously. images of people housed their ka or spirit figures were often portrayed in a contorted, twisting and dramatic fashion. Question 5 1. Hatshepsut became pharaoh because _______. she claimed title of pharaoh because of her visions of Aten. she pulled a sword out of a pyramid-shaped stone. she inherited the title from her mother, Nefertiti. she was the chief queen to Thutmose II and seized power when he died. Question 6 1. Place the civilizations in the correct chronological order. Persian Akkadian Assyrian Sumerian Babylonian Question 7 1. Match the description with the phrase. A time when a more free and fluid style of artwork was created. Read Answer Items for Question 7 A set of rules or a set of established works of art Read Answer Items for Question 7 Tokens or emblems of royal authority Read Answer Items for Question 7 The northern more fertile area of the Nile’s delta Read Answer Items for Question 7 Answer A. Regalia B. Lower Egypt C. The Amarna period under Akhenaten D. Canon Question 8 1. After reading the ancient Sumerian text from 1700 BCE in which a father “Lectures His Son,” what conclusions might we draw about parallels between contemporary and ancient fathers? Select all the correct answers. Both modern and ancient fathers often want their sons to be successful. Both modern and ancient fathers often encourage their sons not to be idle. Both modern and ancient fathers often think education is important. Both modern and ancient fathers think the purchase of shares in reeds and canes is a wise investment. Both modern and ancient fathers often watch over their sons and are concerned about their future. Both modern and ancient fathers enjoy golf. Question 9 1. The oldest surviving medical textbooks from ancient Egypt might include each of the following EXCEPT _____. health insurance forms advice about getting rid of vermin magical spells to heal illnesses diagnostic information about maladies of organs Question 10 1. Circle each of the developments of the Neolithic age. Circle all that apply. plows microchip indoor plumbing kiln-fired bricks wheel hammers boats flying buttress internal combustion engine knives Save and Submit Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers. Click Close Window to close window.

Instructions Multiple Attempts Not allowed. This test can only be taken once. Force Completion This test can be saved and resumed later. Question 1 1. According to Matthews, Egyptian culture is thought to be ______. more pessimistic in outlook that Mesopotamian culture. Egyptians were more fun and had more parties than Mesopotamians. more optimistic in outlook that Mesopotamian culture. Ancient Sumerians could really throw a party. Question 2 1. The Rosetta Stone, found in the Rosetta section of the Nile by Napoleon, allowed historians to translate Egyptian hieroglyphics because it had each of the following languages EXCEPT ______. Hieratic Hieroglyphics Greek Coptic Question 3 1. Select the legacies of Near Eastern civilizations. Choose all the correct answers. Lunar calendar that guides planting Number system based on 60 Newspapers Algebra Pschology Writing Question 4 1. Each of the following would be considered a quality of Egyptian art EXCEPT _____. people were portrayed with serene looks on their faces. sculptures, paintings and reliefs portray figures in profile and from the front simultaneously. images of people housed their ka or spirit figures were often portrayed in a contorted, twisting and dramatic fashion. Question 5 1. Hatshepsut became pharaoh because _______. she claimed title of pharaoh because of her visions of Aten. she pulled a sword out of a pyramid-shaped stone. she inherited the title from her mother, Nefertiti. she was the chief queen to Thutmose II and seized power when he died. Question 6 1. Place the civilizations in the correct chronological order. Persian Akkadian Assyrian Sumerian Babylonian Question 7 1. Match the description with the phrase. A time when a more free and fluid style of artwork was created. Read Answer Items for Question 7 A set of rules or a set of established works of art Read Answer Items for Question 7 Tokens or emblems of royal authority Read Answer Items for Question 7 The northern more fertile area of the Nile’s delta Read Answer Items for Question 7 Answer A. Regalia B. Lower Egypt C. The Amarna period under Akhenaten D. Canon Question 8 1. After reading the ancient Sumerian text from 1700 BCE in which a father “Lectures His Son,” what conclusions might we draw about parallels between contemporary and ancient fathers? Select all the correct answers. Both modern and ancient fathers often want their sons to be successful. Both modern and ancient fathers often encourage their sons not to be idle. Both modern and ancient fathers often think education is important. Both modern and ancient fathers think the purchase of shares in reeds and canes is a wise investment. Both modern and ancient fathers often watch over their sons and are concerned about their future. Both modern and ancient fathers enjoy golf. Question 9 1. The oldest surviving medical textbooks from ancient Egypt might include each of the following EXCEPT _____. health insurance forms advice about getting rid of vermin magical spells to heal illnesses diagnostic information about maladies of organs Question 10 1. Circle each of the developments of the Neolithic age. Circle all that apply. plows microchip indoor plumbing kiln-fired bricks wheel hammers boats flying buttress internal combustion engine knives Save and Submit Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers. Click Close Window to close window.

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Q1. On Tuesday Sasha writes back saying “Here is my cheque for £4,500” She puts it in the post that night. On Friday morning, Sasha’s letter has still not arrived. Later that day Arthur receives a text message from Simon, which reads, “I’ll give you £5000 for the car. I’ll pick it up tomorrow”. Arthur replied “OK”. Explain to Arthur with which party he will have a valid contract. Give full reasons with case law illustrations. (25 marks) 2. Explain with examples why goods should be of satisfactory quality and fit for purpose. (25 marks) 3. Explain with examples how terms are incorporated into a contract. (25 marks) 4. Explain with examples contractual remedies. (25 marks)

Q1. On Tuesday Sasha writes back saying “Here is my cheque for £4,500” She puts it in the post that night. On Friday morning, Sasha’s letter has still not arrived. Later that day Arthur receives a text message from Simon, which reads, “I’ll give you £5000 for the car. I’ll pick it up tomorrow”. Arthur replied “OK”. Explain to Arthur with which party he will have a valid contract. Give full reasons with case law illustrations. (25 marks) 2. Explain with examples why goods should be of satisfactory quality and fit for purpose. (25 marks) 3. Explain with examples how terms are incorporated into a contract. (25 marks) 4. Explain with examples contractual remedies. (25 marks)

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