. Can you recall a time when a teacher used a test to deliberately punish the class? How do you think that affects a student’s willingness to learn?

. Can you recall a time when a teacher used a test to deliberately punish the class? How do you think that affects a student’s willingness to learn?

I do not recall such a incidence yet I know … Read More...
Think about a book, television show, or movie that you have seen or read involving detectives or investigators. Was their reasoning inductive or deductive? Justify your answer.

Think about a book, television show, or movie that you have seen or read involving detectives or investigators. Was their reasoning inductive or deductive? Justify your answer.

The reality of the conclusions reached by deductive profiling is … Read More...
Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

info@checkyourstudy.com
MCE 260 Fall 2015 Homework 4, due September 22, 2015. PRESENT CLEARLY HOW YOU DEVELOPED THE SOLUTION TO THE PROBLEMS Each problem is worth up to 5 points. Points are given as follows: 5 points: Work was complete and presented clearly, the answer is correct 4 points: Work was complete, but not clearly presented or some errors in calculation 3 points: Some errors or omissions in methods or presentation 2 points: Major errors or omissions in methods or presentation 1 point: Problem was understood but incorrect approach was used DO SOMETHING WITH LINKAGES 1. (5 points) Fig 4-16b shows a Stephenson 6-bar linkage. Assume that the linkage is driven by a constant speed motor on the fixed pivot of link 7. Draw this linkage schematically (dimensions are not important). The link numbering and vector loops are already defined in Fig 4-16b. Add symbols for the angles θ2… θ8 and the lengths L2… L8 to the Figure. 2. (5 points) There are two vector loops (1-2-3-4, and 4-5-6-7-8). Write the vector loop equations as separate X and Y equations for each loop. 3. (5 points) Identify the unknowns that must be solved for doing position analysis. Make sure that the number of unknowns is the same as the number of equations. Hint: “links” 3 and 5 are both on the (rigid) coupler, so there is a simple relationship between the two angles. 4. (5 points) Write the vector loop equations for the inverted crank-slider (Fig. 4-13). Identify the two unknowns that must be solved when it is driven by the slider joint, which means that length b is a known input (as in the hydraulic excavator). Write expressions for the elements of the 2×2 Jacobian matrix. 5. (5 points) Modify the Matlab code fbpos1vec.m to solve the position analysis problem for this system. You may choose the dimensions and the input (probably best to make this similar to Fig 4-13). Show the lines of Matlab code that you changed (and no other lines) and show the values for the two unknowns that you solved. Page 1 of 1

MCE 260 Fall 2015 Homework 4, due September 22, 2015. PRESENT CLEARLY HOW YOU DEVELOPED THE SOLUTION TO THE PROBLEMS Each problem is worth up to 5 points. Points are given as follows: 5 points: Work was complete and presented clearly, the answer is correct 4 points: Work was complete, but not clearly presented or some errors in calculation 3 points: Some errors or omissions in methods or presentation 2 points: Major errors or omissions in methods or presentation 1 point: Problem was understood but incorrect approach was used DO SOMETHING WITH LINKAGES 1. (5 points) Fig 4-16b shows a Stephenson 6-bar linkage. Assume that the linkage is driven by a constant speed motor on the fixed pivot of link 7. Draw this linkage schematically (dimensions are not important). The link numbering and vector loops are already defined in Fig 4-16b. Add symbols for the angles θ2… θ8 and the lengths L2… L8 to the Figure. 2. (5 points) There are two vector loops (1-2-3-4, and 4-5-6-7-8). Write the vector loop equations as separate X and Y equations for each loop. 3. (5 points) Identify the unknowns that must be solved for doing position analysis. Make sure that the number of unknowns is the same as the number of equations. Hint: “links” 3 and 5 are both on the (rigid) coupler, so there is a simple relationship between the two angles. 4. (5 points) Write the vector loop equations for the inverted crank-slider (Fig. 4-13). Identify the two unknowns that must be solved when it is driven by the slider joint, which means that length b is a known input (as in the hydraulic excavator). Write expressions for the elements of the 2×2 Jacobian matrix. 5. (5 points) Modify the Matlab code fbpos1vec.m to solve the position analysis problem for this system. You may choose the dimensions and the input (probably best to make this similar to Fig 4-13). Show the lines of Matlab code that you changed (and no other lines) and show the values for the two unknowns that you solved. Page 1 of 1

info@checkyourstudy.com
1 CE 321 PRINCIPLES ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING LAB WORKSHEET No. 1 Due: One (1) Week After Each Lab Section, respectively MICROBIOLOGY Environmental engineers employ microbiology in a variety of applications. Testing for coliform bacteria is used to assess whether pathogens may be present in a water or wastewater sample. Coliforms are a type of bacteria that live in the intestines of warm blooded mammals, such as humans and cattle. They are not pathogens, but if they are present in a sample, it is taken as an indication that fecal material from humans or cattle has contacted the water. If fecal material is present, pathogens may be present, too. In water treatment, coliform counts must average less than one colony per 100 milliliters of sample tested. In wastewater treatment, typical acceptable levels might be 200-colonies/100 mL. There are two standard ways to test for coliforms, the Most Probable Number test, MPN (also called the multiple tube fermentation technique, MTF) and the membrane filter test, MF. Several companies market testing systems that are somewhat simpler, but these cannot be used by treatment plants until they receive EPA approval. Two recently accepted methods are the Minimal Media Test (Colilert system), and the Presence-Absence coliform test (P-A test). Wastewater treatment plant operators study the microorganism composition of the activated sludge units in order to assess and predict the performance of the biological floc. A sample of mixed liquor from the aeration basin is examined under the microscope, and based on the relative predominance of a variety of organisms that might be present; the operator can tell if the BOD application rates and wasting rates are as they should be. For your worksheet, please submit the items requested below (10 pts. each): 1. Examine a sample of activated sludge under the microscope (To be done together in class). Use the Atlas, Standard Methods, or other references to identify at least 5 different organisms you observed. List them and sketch them neatly on unlined paper. Describe their motility and any other distinctive characteristics as you observed it. 2. Explain what types of organisms you might expect to find in sludge with a high mean cell residence time (MCRT), and explain why these would predominate over the other types. 3. How can the predominance of a certain kind of microorganism in activated sludge affect the settling characteristics of the sludge? Give several examples. 2 4. Explain why coliforms are used as “indicator organisms” for water and wastewater testing. Name two pathogenic bacteria, two pathogenic viruses, and one pathogenic protozoan sometimes found in water supplies. 5. There is also a test for fecal coliforms. Use your class notes and outside references to explain the distinctions between the tests for total and fecal coliforms. Explain why one would use the fecal coliform test instead of the test for total coliforms. 6. Using outside references, indicate typical coliform limits for surface waters used for swimming and fishing; potable water; and wastewater treatment plant effluent. 7). In the recent past, EPA instituted regulations designed to insure that Giardia are removed from the water. Using your text or other references, explain what kind of organism this is, and explain the way in which EPA has set standards to insure they are removed during water treatment. 8. What is meant by “population dynamics”? What two factors usually control the population dynamics of a mixed culture? 9. Use the MPN test data from the samples prepared for class prior to determine the number of coliforms present in the wastewater samples. Please show your work and explain your reasoning. Total Coliforms Raw Intermediate Effluent Sample Volume No. Positive No. Positive No. Positive 10 5 5 4 1 5 5 2 0.1 5 3 1 0.01 5 1 0 0.001 2 1 —- 0.0001 1 —- —- FecalColiforms Raw Intermediate Effluent Sample Volume No. Positive No. Positive No. Positive 10 5 5 2 1 5 4 0 0.1 5 2 1 0.01 1 0 0 0.001 0 0 —– 0.0001 2 —– —– 3 10. Use the membrane filter test data given in class to determine the number of total coliforms and fecal coliforms present in the sample. Please show your work and explain your reasoning. Total Coliforms Fecal Coliforms Dilution Colonies Dilution Colonies Raw Influent 0.1 mL/100 mL 58 1 mL/100 mL 47 Intermediate 1 mL/100 mL 13 10 mL/100 mL 28 Wetland Effluent 10 mL/100 mL 10 100 mL/100 mL 15

1 CE 321 PRINCIPLES ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING LAB WORKSHEET No. 1 Due: One (1) Week After Each Lab Section, respectively MICROBIOLOGY Environmental engineers employ microbiology in a variety of applications. Testing for coliform bacteria is used to assess whether pathogens may be present in a water or wastewater sample. Coliforms are a type of bacteria that live in the intestines of warm blooded mammals, such as humans and cattle. They are not pathogens, but if they are present in a sample, it is taken as an indication that fecal material from humans or cattle has contacted the water. If fecal material is present, pathogens may be present, too. In water treatment, coliform counts must average less than one colony per 100 milliliters of sample tested. In wastewater treatment, typical acceptable levels might be 200-colonies/100 mL. There are two standard ways to test for coliforms, the Most Probable Number test, MPN (also called the multiple tube fermentation technique, MTF) and the membrane filter test, MF. Several companies market testing systems that are somewhat simpler, but these cannot be used by treatment plants until they receive EPA approval. Two recently accepted methods are the Minimal Media Test (Colilert system), and the Presence-Absence coliform test (P-A test). Wastewater treatment plant operators study the microorganism composition of the activated sludge units in order to assess and predict the performance of the biological floc. A sample of mixed liquor from the aeration basin is examined under the microscope, and based on the relative predominance of a variety of organisms that might be present; the operator can tell if the BOD application rates and wasting rates are as they should be. For your worksheet, please submit the items requested below (10 pts. each): 1. Examine a sample of activated sludge under the microscope (To be done together in class). Use the Atlas, Standard Methods, or other references to identify at least 5 different organisms you observed. List them and sketch them neatly on unlined paper. Describe their motility and any other distinctive characteristics as you observed it. 2. Explain what types of organisms you might expect to find in sludge with a high mean cell residence time (MCRT), and explain why these would predominate over the other types. 3. How can the predominance of a certain kind of microorganism in activated sludge affect the settling characteristics of the sludge? Give several examples. 2 4. Explain why coliforms are used as “indicator organisms” for water and wastewater testing. Name two pathogenic bacteria, two pathogenic viruses, and one pathogenic protozoan sometimes found in water supplies. 5. There is also a test for fecal coliforms. Use your class notes and outside references to explain the distinctions between the tests for total and fecal coliforms. Explain why one would use the fecal coliform test instead of the test for total coliforms. 6. Using outside references, indicate typical coliform limits for surface waters used for swimming and fishing; potable water; and wastewater treatment plant effluent. 7). In the recent past, EPA instituted regulations designed to insure that Giardia are removed from the water. Using your text or other references, explain what kind of organism this is, and explain the way in which EPA has set standards to insure they are removed during water treatment. 8. What is meant by “population dynamics”? What two factors usually control the population dynamics of a mixed culture? 9. Use the MPN test data from the samples prepared for class prior to determine the number of coliforms present in the wastewater samples. Please show your work and explain your reasoning. Total Coliforms Raw Intermediate Effluent Sample Volume No. Positive No. Positive No. Positive 10 5 5 4 1 5 5 2 0.1 5 3 1 0.01 5 1 0 0.001 2 1 —- 0.0001 1 —- —- FecalColiforms Raw Intermediate Effluent Sample Volume No. Positive No. Positive No. Positive 10 5 5 2 1 5 4 0 0.1 5 2 1 0.01 1 0 0 0.001 0 0 —– 0.0001 2 —– —– 3 10. Use the membrane filter test data given in class to determine the number of total coliforms and fecal coliforms present in the sample. Please show your work and explain your reasoning. Total Coliforms Fecal Coliforms Dilution Colonies Dilution Colonies Raw Influent 0.1 mL/100 mL 58 1 mL/100 mL 47 Intermediate 1 mL/100 mL 13 10 mL/100 mL 28 Wetland Effluent 10 mL/100 mL 10 100 mL/100 mL 15

info@checkyourstudy.com Whatsapp +919911743277
Suppose a force analysis of a particle in equilibrium produced the following system of equations: 4F C ! 3F B = 500 0.866F A + 0.707F B ! F C = 0 !0.707F B + 0.5F A = 50 Solve this system of linear equations using the Gauss-Jordan Elimination method. a) Show the augmented matrix b) Use elementary row operations to obtain the reduced row echelon form c) Write the solution for the three forces (using 3 significant digits), FA, FB, & FC

Suppose a force analysis of a particle in equilibrium produced the following system of equations: 4F C ! 3F B = 500 0.866F A + 0.707F B ! F C = 0 !0.707F B + 0.5F A = 50 Solve this system of linear equations using the Gauss-Jordan Elimination method. a) Show the augmented matrix b) Use elementary row operations to obtain the reduced row echelon form c) Write the solution for the three forces (using 3 significant digits), FA, FB, & FC

 
Click the link to read Chapter 1 of Clausewitz’s On War, and then answer the questions below. http://www.gutenberg.org/files/1946/1946-h/1946-h.htm#2HCH0001 How does Clausewitz define war? A. It is the use of violence to gain wealth. B. It is the way in which states can show their power. C. It is an act of violence intended to compel our opponent to fulfill our will. D. It is no longer a legitimate way to function in a world of international law. E. It is defined by international laws and norms. What are the main motives that cause war, according to Clausewitz? A. Greed and tyranny. B. Instinctive hostility and hostile intention. C. Competition and glory. D. Fear and threat. E. Men and money. What is the polarity principle according to Clausewitz? A. In principle, the world has conflicts that flow from North to South. B. It is like a zero sum game, a win for one yields a loss for the other. C. Two states will tend to find peace before they have to fight. D. The pitch of battle will swing from one end to the other before it ends. E. Humans are both rational and emotional; you must consider both sides. According to Clausewitz the element of War itself is: A. A multifaceted, multiplayer complex system with no central element. B. A duel between two parties on an extensive scale. C. Only made possible through laws that limit violence. D. Completely removed from politics in all aspects. E. Not something that we can understand or study.

Click the link to read Chapter 1 of Clausewitz’s On War, and then answer the questions below. http://www.gutenberg.org/files/1946/1946-h/1946-h.htm#2HCH0001 How does Clausewitz define war? A. It is the use of violence to gain wealth. B. It is the way in which states can show their power. C. It is an act of violence intended to compel our opponent to fulfill our will. D. It is no longer a legitimate way to function in a world of international law. E. It is defined by international laws and norms. What are the main motives that cause war, according to Clausewitz? A. Greed and tyranny. B. Instinctive hostility and hostile intention. C. Competition and glory. D. Fear and threat. E. Men and money. What is the polarity principle according to Clausewitz? A. In principle, the world has conflicts that flow from North to South. B. It is like a zero sum game, a win for one yields a loss for the other. C. Two states will tend to find peace before they have to fight. D. The pitch of battle will swing from one end to the other before it ends. E. Humans are both rational and emotional; you must consider both sides. According to Clausewitz the element of War itself is: A. A multifaceted, multiplayer complex system with no central element. B. A duel between two parties on an extensive scale. C. Only made possible through laws that limit violence. D. Completely removed from politics in all aspects. E. Not something that we can understand or study.

Click the link to read Chapter 1 of Clausewitz’s On … Read More...
Assessment Brief/Task The detailed requirements for this task are as follows: You are to select a PLC that has a listing on a recognised stock exchange of your choice and agree this with the module tutor. As the company accountant you are expected to produce a report for the board of directors focusing on two elements. You have been asked to produce a Financial Analysis of the company based upon the following ratios for the company for the years 2014, 2012 and 2010;- Return on Capital Employed Operating Profit Margin Asset Turnover Current Ratio Gearing Interest Cover EPS PE Ratio (you will need to show all relevant workings and supporting documentation). Your analysis will be based upon the ratios calculated but is also is to include an analysis of the company’s industry and a comparison of company performance with industry averages/competitor companies for the same years. Where the ratios cannot be calculated please advise the tutor who will agree an alternative ratio. The company you have chosen in part one is seeking to purchase land and building which represents 10% of its Net Assets Employed. As accountant you are required to make a proposal as to how the company might access the finance necessary. This might be from internal or external sources but must be based upon the company performance and capital structure. You should justify your choice. The following information is important when: • Preparing for your assessment • Checking your work before you submit it • Interpreting feedback on your work after marking. Assessment Criteria The module Learning Outcomes tested by this assessment task are indicated on page 1. The precise criteria against which your work will be marked are as follows: The proportions of the assignment should be 1. An analysis of the industry of which the company is a part (15%) 2. Comparison of company performance with industry based upon ratios calculated (40%) 3. Analysis of the different sources of finance available to your company and how it might apply to the chosen company (35%) 4. Summary and justification for choice of financing (10%)

Assessment Brief/Task The detailed requirements for this task are as follows: You are to select a PLC that has a listing on a recognised stock exchange of your choice and agree this with the module tutor. As the company accountant you are expected to produce a report for the board of directors focusing on two elements. You have been asked to produce a Financial Analysis of the company based upon the following ratios for the company for the years 2014, 2012 and 2010;- Return on Capital Employed Operating Profit Margin Asset Turnover Current Ratio Gearing Interest Cover EPS PE Ratio (you will need to show all relevant workings and supporting documentation). Your analysis will be based upon the ratios calculated but is also is to include an analysis of the company’s industry and a comparison of company performance with industry averages/competitor companies for the same years. Where the ratios cannot be calculated please advise the tutor who will agree an alternative ratio. The company you have chosen in part one is seeking to purchase land and building which represents 10% of its Net Assets Employed. As accountant you are required to make a proposal as to how the company might access the finance necessary. This might be from internal or external sources but must be based upon the company performance and capital structure. You should justify your choice. The following information is important when: • Preparing for your assessment • Checking your work before you submit it • Interpreting feedback on your work after marking. Assessment Criteria The module Learning Outcomes tested by this assessment task are indicated on page 1. The precise criteria against which your work will be marked are as follows: The proportions of the assignment should be 1. An analysis of the industry of which the company is a part (15%) 2. Comparison of company performance with industry based upon ratios calculated (40%) 3. Analysis of the different sources of finance available to your company and how it might apply to the chosen company (35%) 4. Summary and justification for choice of financing (10%)

Project Title : YAHOO   Introduction   Yahoo Inc is … Read More...
Vermont Technical College Electronic Applications ELT-2060 Lab 05: DC characteristics, input offset voltage and input bias current Reference: Operational Amplifiers with Linear Integrated Circuits Fourth edition William D. Stanley, pages 154-155 (Problems 3-21, 3-22 and Lab exercises LE 3-1 to LE 3-4) For the following exercises, make sure to record all calculations, estimations and measured results. Components: 2 741 Op Amps, 10k Ω Potentiometer, 4-10kΩ, 1kΩ , 100kΩ , 100Ω , 560kΩ , 5.6M Ω, resistors Objectives: a. Voltage offset Null Circuit and Closed-loop Differential Circuit b. Measurement of dc Input Offset Voltage c. Measurement of dc Bias and Offset Currents a. Voltage offset Null Circuit and Closed-loop Differential Circuit In this exercise, investigate the use of a null circuit to reduce the output dc offset to its minimum possible value. Refer to the “Voltage Offset Null Circuit” describe in the 741 op amp data sheet from Appendix C of your text book. Although there are no specific closed-loop configurations shown, use a closed-loop differential Amplifier shown in Figure 1. The differential nature of this type of circuit makes it particularly sensitive, therefore well suited, to illustrate the concept dc voltage offset. 1. Connect the closed-loop difference amplifier of Figure 1 with R=10k Ω and A=1. Using a 10kΩ potentiometer connect the “Voltage Offset Null Circuit” between nodes 1 and 5 as shown in the 741 data sheet. Keep in mind that a potentiometer is a three terminal device. You will need to connect the potentiometer wiper terminal to the lowest potential in the circuit -VCC. 2. Connect the two external circuit inputs (v1 and v2) to ground, measure the dc voltage. From the data sheet the expected value of offset voltage at room temperature is 2mV typical and 6mV maximum. Voltages at these levels will be hard to measure with the laboratory multimeter. 3. Adjust the potentiometer until the dc output magnitude is either zero or it’s minimum possible value. Record the minimum value of voltage attained. 5. Do not break down you difference amplifier. Next, build the non-inverting amplifier as shown in figure 2 with Ri=1k Ω and Rf =100k Ω. Attach the output of the difference amplifier to the input of the non-inverting amplifier. This will amplify your offset by 101. 6. Adjust the potentiometer until the dc output magnitude is either zero or it’s minimum possible value. Record the minimum value of voltage attained. 7. In effect we amplified the voltage offset from the difference amplifier by 101. Please describe any possible flaws in using this approach. Compare this result to what was measured in step 2. 8. Write an equation that expresses the expected output voltage Vo in terms of the two input voltages V1 and V2. 9. Apply dc input voltage for the following six combinations, compare the results to the expected values you calculate with the equation from step 8 a. V1=10V, V2=0V b. V1=0V, V2=10V c. V1=V2=10V d. V1=10mV, V2=0 e. V1=0, V2=10mV f. V1=V2=10mV b. Measurement of dc Input Offset Voltage ( Stanley Problem 3-21 page 151) A circuit and equation to measure the input offset voltage Vio is show in figure 3. With the proper selection of resistors Ri, Rf, and Rc the effects of offset due to input bias currents can be neglected. When the input terminals are both held to ground the resulting output voltage should be a direct measurement of Vio. 1. Build the circuit in Figure 3 with Ri=100 Ω and Rf=10k Ω measure and record Vo. Compare your results with the specification of input offset voltage provided in the data sheet. 2. Increase the value of Rf to 100k Ω, and measure Vo again. Did the output increase by approximately 10x the value recorded in step 1, if so explain how that validates the assumption the input bias currents are negligible. 3. Be sure to include a comparison of the measured values in steps 1 and 2. Include a discussion on how there relationship demonstrates that neglecting input bias current was a valid assumption. c. Measurement of dc Bias and Offset Currents (Stanley Problem 3-22 page 152) Consider the three circuits of figure 4 .The resistance R is chosen large so that the contribution to the output from bias currents is considerably larger than the contribution from the input offset voltages. The accompanying equations will predict the values of Ib+, Ib- and Iio. 1. Start with setting R=560k Ω and build each circuit in figure 4 one at a time. Going from one configuration to the next configuration should be quick, all that is changing is the placement of the resistors. Measure Voa, Vob and Voc for each circuit and calculate Ib+, Ib-, and Iio, compare your measurements to the values in the data sheet. 2. Increase the value of R to 5.6M Ω. Measure Voa, Vob and Voc for each circuit and calculate Ib+, Ib-, and Iio, compare your measurements to the values in the data sheet and to the results in part 1.Did the output increase by approximately 10x the value recorded in step 1, if so explain how that validates the assumption the input offset voltage effect is negligible. 3. Be sure to include a comparison of the measured values in steps 1 and 2. Include a discussion on why neglecting input offset voltage was a valid assumption. LAB write up: This lab requires a semi-formal lab report. Record all calculations, estimations, and measured results. No MultiSim will be required for this report. Please include a written English language paragraph for all lab steps that required an explanation.

Vermont Technical College Electronic Applications ELT-2060 Lab 05: DC characteristics, input offset voltage and input bias current Reference: Operational Amplifiers with Linear Integrated Circuits Fourth edition William D. Stanley, pages 154-155 (Problems 3-21, 3-22 and Lab exercises LE 3-1 to LE 3-4) For the following exercises, make sure to record all calculations, estimations and measured results. Components: 2 741 Op Amps, 10k Ω Potentiometer, 4-10kΩ, 1kΩ , 100kΩ , 100Ω , 560kΩ , 5.6M Ω, resistors Objectives: a. Voltage offset Null Circuit and Closed-loop Differential Circuit b. Measurement of dc Input Offset Voltage c. Measurement of dc Bias and Offset Currents a. Voltage offset Null Circuit and Closed-loop Differential Circuit In this exercise, investigate the use of a null circuit to reduce the output dc offset to its minimum possible value. Refer to the “Voltage Offset Null Circuit” describe in the 741 op amp data sheet from Appendix C of your text book. Although there are no specific closed-loop configurations shown, use a closed-loop differential Amplifier shown in Figure 1. The differential nature of this type of circuit makes it particularly sensitive, therefore well suited, to illustrate the concept dc voltage offset. 1. Connect the closed-loop difference amplifier of Figure 1 with R=10k Ω and A=1. Using a 10kΩ potentiometer connect the “Voltage Offset Null Circuit” between nodes 1 and 5 as shown in the 741 data sheet. Keep in mind that a potentiometer is a three terminal device. You will need to connect the potentiometer wiper terminal to the lowest potential in the circuit -VCC. 2. Connect the two external circuit inputs (v1 and v2) to ground, measure the dc voltage. From the data sheet the expected value of offset voltage at room temperature is 2mV typical and 6mV maximum. Voltages at these levels will be hard to measure with the laboratory multimeter. 3. Adjust the potentiometer until the dc output magnitude is either zero or it’s minimum possible value. Record the minimum value of voltage attained. 5. Do not break down you difference amplifier. Next, build the non-inverting amplifier as shown in figure 2 with Ri=1k Ω and Rf =100k Ω. Attach the output of the difference amplifier to the input of the non-inverting amplifier. This will amplify your offset by 101. 6. Adjust the potentiometer until the dc output magnitude is either zero or it’s minimum possible value. Record the minimum value of voltage attained. 7. In effect we amplified the voltage offset from the difference amplifier by 101. Please describe any possible flaws in using this approach. Compare this result to what was measured in step 2. 8. Write an equation that expresses the expected output voltage Vo in terms of the two input voltages V1 and V2. 9. Apply dc input voltage for the following six combinations, compare the results to the expected values you calculate with the equation from step 8 a. V1=10V, V2=0V b. V1=0V, V2=10V c. V1=V2=10V d. V1=10mV, V2=0 e. V1=0, V2=10mV f. V1=V2=10mV b. Measurement of dc Input Offset Voltage ( Stanley Problem 3-21 page 151) A circuit and equation to measure the input offset voltage Vio is show in figure 3. With the proper selection of resistors Ri, Rf, and Rc the effects of offset due to input bias currents can be neglected. When the input terminals are both held to ground the resulting output voltage should be a direct measurement of Vio. 1. Build the circuit in Figure 3 with Ri=100 Ω and Rf=10k Ω measure and record Vo. Compare your results with the specification of input offset voltage provided in the data sheet. 2. Increase the value of Rf to 100k Ω, and measure Vo again. Did the output increase by approximately 10x the value recorded in step 1, if so explain how that validates the assumption the input bias currents are negligible. 3. Be sure to include a comparison of the measured values in steps 1 and 2. Include a discussion on how there relationship demonstrates that neglecting input bias current was a valid assumption. c. Measurement of dc Bias and Offset Currents (Stanley Problem 3-22 page 152) Consider the three circuits of figure 4 .The resistance R is chosen large so that the contribution to the output from bias currents is considerably larger than the contribution from the input offset voltages. The accompanying equations will predict the values of Ib+, Ib- and Iio. 1. Start with setting R=560k Ω and build each circuit in figure 4 one at a time. Going from one configuration to the next configuration should be quick, all that is changing is the placement of the resistors. Measure Voa, Vob and Voc for each circuit and calculate Ib+, Ib-, and Iio, compare your measurements to the values in the data sheet. 2. Increase the value of R to 5.6M Ω. Measure Voa, Vob and Voc for each circuit and calculate Ib+, Ib-, and Iio, compare your measurements to the values in the data sheet and to the results in part 1.Did the output increase by approximately 10x the value recorded in step 1, if so explain how that validates the assumption the input offset voltage effect is negligible. 3. Be sure to include a comparison of the measured values in steps 1 and 2. Include a discussion on why neglecting input offset voltage was a valid assumption. LAB write up: This lab requires a semi-formal lab report. Record all calculations, estimations, and measured results. No MultiSim will be required for this report. Please include a written English language paragraph for all lab steps that required an explanation.

info@checkyourstudy.com
Geometric versus Componentwise Vector Addition Learning Goal: To understand that adding vectors geometrically or using components yields the same result. Vectors may be manipulated using either geometry or components. In this tutorial, we consider the addition of two vectors using these methods. Vectors A and B have lengths A and B, respectively, and B makes an angle θ from the direction of A. Vector addition using geometry Vector addition using geometry is accomplished by placing the tail of one vector, in this case B, at the tip of the other vector, A (Figure 1) and using the laws of plane geometry to find C=A2+B2−2ABcos(c)−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√ and b=sin−1(Bsin(c)C), where the length C and angle b are those of the resultant (or sum) vector, C=A+B. Vector addition using components Vector addition using components requires that a coordinate system be chosen. Here, the x axis is chosen along the direction of A (Figure 2) . Given the coordinate system, the x and y components of B are Bcos(θ) and Bsin(θ), respectively. Therefore, the x and y components of C are given by the equations Cx=A+Bcos(θ) and Cy=Bsin(θ). Part A Which of the following sets of conditions, if true, would show that Equations 1 and 2 above define the same vector C as Equations 3 and 4? The two pairs of equations give the same Check all that apply. length and direction for C. length and x component for C. direction and x component for C. length and y component for C. direction and y component for C. x and y components for C.

Geometric versus Componentwise Vector Addition Learning Goal: To understand that adding vectors geometrically or using components yields the same result. Vectors may be manipulated using either geometry or components. In this tutorial, we consider the addition of two vectors using these methods. Vectors A and B have lengths A and B, respectively, and B makes an angle θ from the direction of A. Vector addition using geometry Vector addition using geometry is accomplished by placing the tail of one vector, in this case B, at the tip of the other vector, A (Figure 1) and using the laws of plane geometry to find C=A2+B2−2ABcos(c)−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√ and b=sin−1(Bsin(c)C), where the length C and angle b are those of the resultant (or sum) vector, C=A+B. Vector addition using components Vector addition using components requires that a coordinate system be chosen. Here, the x axis is chosen along the direction of A (Figure 2) . Given the coordinate system, the x and y components of B are Bcos(θ) and Bsin(θ), respectively. Therefore, the x and y components of C are given by the equations Cx=A+Bcos(θ) and Cy=Bsin(θ). Part A Which of the following sets of conditions, if true, would show that Equations 1 and 2 above define the same vector C as Equations 3 and 4? The two pairs of equations give the same Check all that apply. length and direction for C. length and x component for C. direction and x component for C. length and y component for C. direction and y component for C. x and y components for C.