In case the body have to stay in lower temperature for extended time period (more than 1 hour), how does the body regulate its response?

In case the body have to stay in lower temperature for extended time period (more than 1 hour), how does the body regulate its response?

Arterioles transporting blood to external capillaries beneath the surface of … Read More...
. What behaviors indicate psychological distress? Name 5 and explain.

. What behaviors indicate psychological distress? Name 5 and explain.

The term ‘distress’ is commonly used in nursing literature to … Read More...
CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

Question 1 1. When males reach puberty, _________ increases their muscle mass and skeletal development. A. prolactin B. protein C. androgen D. adipose tissue E. estrogen 3 points Question 2 1. Which of the following is the only 100percent effective method of fertility control and STI protection? A. Abstinence B. Condoms and spermicide together C. Condoms and a hormonal contraceptive together D. Oral contraceptives E. Condoms 3 points Question 3 1. The efficacy rate for implants is less than ________ pregnancy per 100 users per year. A. 1 B. 10 C. 11 D. 17 E. 4 3 points Question 4 1. Over-the-counter medications are ________ A. sold legally without a prescription. B. safe for pregnant women to use. C. sold illegally without a prescription. D. the safest drugs for self-medication purposes. E. harmful even when approved by the pregnant women’s physician. 3 points Question 5 1. The ________ activates the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through messages sent via nerves or substances released into the bloodstream. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. thalamus D. subcortex E. hypothalamus 3 points Question 6 1. Ovulation methods center around ______ A. a female’s basal body temperature. B. a female’s cervical secretions. C. a female tracking her menstrual cycle by using a calendar. D. A and B. E. A and C. 3 points Question 7 1. Emergency contraception ______ A. can be used as a regular contraception method. B. provides protection against STDs. C. is the only method available if unprotected intercourse has occurred when fertility is likely. D. is significantly more effective than other contraceptive methods. E. All of the above 3 points Question 8 1. Although a simultaneous orgasm between sexual partners is an exciting event, it _______ A. is a relatively uncommon event and can actually detract from the coital experience if one is preoccupied by sharing this experience. B. is common and should be a priority as far as coitus is concerned. C. is of no particular importance. D. is immensely overrated. E. None of the above 3 points Question 9 1. Cervical caps are similar to ________, but the cervical cap is smaller. A. IUDs B. diaphragms C. Norplant D. oral contraceptives E. Depo-Provera 3 points Question 10 1. Which of the following increases the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby? A. The mother does not eat well during pregnancy. B. The mother does not take care of herself. C. The mother does not receive comprehensive prenatal care. D. The mother smokes. E. All of the above 3 points Question 11 1. An advantage to using IUDs and IUSs is that they ______ A. remain in place, so planning before sexual intercourse is unnecessary. B. have a high level of effectiveness. C. allow fertility to return immediately after they are removed. D. can remain in place during a woman’s period. E. all of the above 3 points Question 12 1. Contraception is the means of preventing _______ from occurring during sexual intercourse. A. conception B. pain C. infertility D. STDs E. pleasure 3 points Question 13 1. ________ is the contraceptive method of removing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation. A. Abstinence B. Sterilization C. Avoidance D. Withdrawal E. Monogamy 3 points Question 14 1. Compared to men, women employed full time __________ A. spend fewer hours on household tasks. B. work more hours in the workplace. C. work a proportionate number of hours on household tasks. D. spend more hours on household tasks. E. work fewer hours in the workplace. 3 points Question 15 1. At ________, the female central nervous system (CNS) is typically more advanced than the male CNS. A. birth B. conception C. adolescence D. adulthood E. puberty 3 points Question 16 1. Females sometimes experience a sexual response cycle similar to that of males, EXCEPT A. when they are menstruating. B. they can have multiple orgasms without a refractory period. C. they can have multiple orgasms with a refractory period. D. the resolution phase is shorter in duration than in males. E. they generally move from excitement to plateau and then to orgasm. 3 points Question 17 1. Fertilization normally takes place in the ________ A. ovary. B. cervix. C. vagina. D. uterus. E. fallopian tubes. 3 points Question 18 1. ________ come in the form of foam, gels, films, suppositories, creams, sponges, and tablets. A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Spermicides D. IUDs E. Sterilization agents 3 points Question 19 1. The three major settings in the United States where labor and delivery occur are ________ A. the hospital, health-care clinics, and the home. B. the home, the hospital, and the birthing room. C. free-standing birth centers, the home, and health-care clinics. D. the hospital, the home, and free-standing birth centers. E. the birthing room, the hospital, and free-standing birth centers. 3 points Question 20 1. Mode, a fashion magazine, _______ A. was developed for women who wear normal and large sizes. B. was developed for women who wear over a size 16. C. shows only pictures of clothing, with no models. D. was sued by a group of women who claimed the magazine contributed to their bouts with eating disorders. E. none of the above 3 points Question 21 1. All of the following are advantages to breastfeeding EXCEPT that: A. over-the-counter medications do not affect breast milk. B. babies are less likely to contract respiratory infection. C. mothers’ milk provides antibodies against disease. D. encourages bonding of infant and mother. E. breast milk is cheaper than formula. 3 points Question 22 1. Kaplan’s Triphasic Model consists of the A. excitement, plateau, and resolution phases. B. desire, plateau, and orgasm phases. C. plateau, orgasm, and resolution phases. D. desire, excitement, and resolution phases. E. desire, excitement, and orgasm phases. 3 points Question 23 1. The unique component of Kaplan’s triphasic model is the ______phase—a psychological, prephysical sexual response stage. A. excitement B. desire C. resolution D. plateau E. None of the above 3 points Question 24 1. Together, the ________ and the ______ form the lifeline between the mother and the fetus. A. placenta, cervix B. cervix, uterus C. umbilical cord, vagina D. fallopiantubes, vagina E. placenta, umbilical cord 3 points Question 25 1. When an employee switches genders, which of the following is a difficult issue that employers may face? A. How clients might react B. How others will handle a transitioning employee using the restroom C. How an employee informs coworkers about switching genders D. All of the above E. None of the above 3 points Question 26 1. In men, sex flush occurs during the ________ phase, whereas in women it occurs during the ________ phase. A. refractory, excitement B. excitement, resolution C. excitement, plateau D. plateau, excitement E. plateau, resolution 3 points Question 27 1. The process that results in vaginal lubrication during the excitement phase is: A. myotonia. B. uterine orgasm. C. orgasmic platform. D. transudation. E. tachycardia. 3 points Question 28 1. The ________ is the waxy protective substance that coats the fetus. A. amniotic sac B. amniocentesis C. amniotic fluid D. vernixcaseosa. E. chorionic fluid 3 points Question 29 1. ________ adolescent females seem to be happier with their bodies and less likely to diet than ________ adolescent females. A. Hispanic, European Americans B. Asian American; African American C. African American, European American D. European American, Hispanic 3 points Question 30 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) and intrauterine systems (IUSs) are ______ methods of contraception. A. not B. permanent C. effective D. reversible E. both c and d 3 points Question 31 1. In early adolescence, girls outperform boys at which of the following types of tasks? A. Visual-spatial B. Math C. Physical D. Language and verbal E. None of the above 3 points Question 32 1. Which of the following are common signs that a person may have an eating disorder? A. The person wears tight clothes to show off his or her “new” body. B. A female may quit menstruating C. Excessive exercise D. B and C E. A and C 3 points Question 33 1. The ________ is the valve that prevents urine from entering the urethra and sperm from entering the bladder during ejaculation. A. orgasmic platform B. vasocongestive valve C. sex flush D. internal urethral sphincter E. None of the above 3 points Question 34 1. Which of the following statements reflect gender bias? A. Boys in school will “act out.” B. Girls in school will be docile. C. Girls are neat. D. All of the above. E. None of the above 3 points Question 35 1. The calendar method and ovulation methods are examples of ______ A. natural planning. B. fertility awareness methods. C. natural family planning. D. fertility planning. E. both B and C 3 points Question 36 1. Dieting during pregnancy can be harmful because the breakdown of fat produces toxic substances called ______ A. fibers. B. pheromones. C. ketones. D. monosaccharides. E. hormones. 3 points Question 37 1. Oral contraceptives _____ A. suppress ovulation. B. mimic the changes that occur in pregnancy. C. can be taken by both males and females. D. A and B E. A and C 3 points Question 38 1. According to Fisher (2001), men usually _______, whereas women ________. A. cut straight to the point, see issues as a part of a larger whole B. discuss their feelings, are more stoic C. mull things over, tend to speak their mind D. waiver while making decisions, mull things over E. None of the above 3 points Question 39 1. The increase in heart rate that occurs during sexual activity is known as _______ A. hyperventilation. B. vasocongestion. C. myotonia. D. tachycardia. E. sex flush. 3 points Question 40 1. Women earned about _________ of all college degrees in 2008. A. 10% B. 35% C. 57% D. 85% E. None of the above

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CHM114: Exam #1 CHM 114, S2015 Exam #1, Version B Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole 1amu = 1.66·10-24 g 1 cal=4.184 J \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #1 1) What volume (mL) of a concentrated solution of sodium hydroxide (6.00 M) must be diluted to 200.0 mL to make a 0.880 M solution of sodium hydroxide? A) 2.64 B) 176 C) 29.3 D) 26.4 E) 50.0 2) Sulfur and fluorine react in a combination reaction to produce sulfur hexafluoride: S (s) + 3 F2 (g)  SF6 (g) The maximum amount of SF6 that can be produced from the reaction of 3.5 g of sulfur with 4.5 g of fluorine is __________ g. A) 5.8 B) 3.2 C) 12 D) 16 E) 8.0 3) Of the reactions below, only __________ is not spontaneous. A) 2 2 Mg (s) 2HCl + (aq)®MgCl (aq) + H (g) B) 2 4 2 4 2 2Ni (s) + H SO (aq) ®Ni SO (aq) + H (g) C) 3 2 2Al (s) + 6HBr (aq)®2AlBr (aq) + 3H (g) D) 3 3 2 2Ag (s) + 2HNO (aq) ®2AgNO (aq) + H (g) E) 2 2 Zn (s) + 2HI (aq) ®ZnI (aq) + H (g) 4) Which solution has the same number of moles of NaOH as 40.00 mL of 0.100M solution of NaOH? A) 20.00 mL of 0.200M solution of NaOH B) 25.00 mL of 0.175M solution of NaOH C) 30.00 mL of 0.145M solution of NaOH D) 50.00 mL of 0.125M solution of NaOH E) 100.00 mL of 0.0500M solution of NaOH 5) What is the concentration (M) of a NaCl solution prepared by dissolving 9.3 g of NaCl in sufficient water to give 450 mL of solution? A) 0.35 B) 0.16 C) 0.45 D) 27 E) -2 2.7×10 -3- CHM 114: Exam #1 6) In which reaction does the oxidation number of hydrogen change? A) 2 HCl (aq) NaOH (+ aq)® NaCl (aq) + H O (l) B) 2 2 CaO (s) + H O (l) ®Ca(OH) (s) C) 4 3 4 2 2 2 2 HClO (aq) + CaCO (s) ® Ca(ClO ) (aq) + H O (l) +CO (g) D) 2 2 2 3 SO (g) + H O (l)®H SO (aq) E) 2 2 2 Na (s) + 2H O (l) ® 2 NaOH (aq) + H (g) 7) Which atom has the smallest number of neutrons? A) phosphorus-30 B) chlorine-37 C) potassium-39 D) argon-40 E) calcium-40 8) The change in the internal energy of a system that absorbs 2,500 J of heat and that has received 7,655 J of work by the surroundings is __________ J. A) -10,155 B) -5,155 C) 7 −1.91×10 D) 10,155 E) 5,155 9) When a metal and a nonmetal react, the __________ tends to lose electrons and the __________ tends to gain electrons. A) metal, metal B) nonmetal, nonmetal C) metal, nonmetal D) nonmetal, metal E) None of the above, these elements share electrons. 10) What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in HNO2? A) -5 B) -3 C) 0 D) +3 E) +5 -4- CHM 114: Exam #1 11) Elements in Group 7A are known as the __________. A) chalcogens B) alkaline earth metals C) alkali metals D) halogens E) noble gases 12) The concentration of iodide ions in a 0.193 M solution of sodium iodide is __________. A) 0.193 M B) 0.386 M C) 0.0965 M D) 0.579 M E) 0.0643 M 13) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride: 6Li (s) + N2 (g)  2Li3N (s) How many moles of N2 are needed to react with 1.422 mol of lithium? A) 4.26 B) 0.710 C) 0.237 D) 2.13 E) 0.118 14) The balanced equation for the decomposition of sodium azide is __________. A) 2NaN3 (s)  Na2 (s) + 3 N2 (g) B) NaN3 (s)  Na (s) + N2 (g) C) 2NaN3 (s)  2Na (s) + 3 N2 (g) D) NaN3 (s)  Na (s) + N2 (g) + N (g) E) 2NaN3 (s)  2Na (s) + 2 N2 (g) 15) A sample of CH2F2 with a mass of 9.5 g contains __________ atoms of F. A) 2.2 × 1023 B) 38 C) 3.3 × 1024 D) 4.4 × 1023 E) 9.5 -5- CHM 114: Exam #1 16) An unknown element is found to have three naturally occurring isotopes with atomic masses of 35.9675 (0.337%), 37.9627 (0.063%), and 39.9624 (99.600%). Which of the following is the unknown element? A) Ar B) K C) Cl D) Ca E) None of the above could be the unknown element. 17) The value of DH° for the reaction below is -482 kJ. Calculate the heat (kJ) released to the surroundings when 24.0 g of CO (g) reacts completely. 2 2 2CO(g) +O (g)®2CO (g) A) 3 2.89×10 B) 207 C) 103 D) 65.7 E) -482 18) Lead (II) carbonate decomposes to give lead (II) oxide and carbon dioxide: PbCO3 (s)  PbO (s) + CO2 (g) __________ grams of carbondioxide will be produced by the decomposition of 7.50 g of lead (II) carbonate? A) 1.23 B) 2.50 C) 0.00936 D) 6.26 E) 7.83 19) Combining aqueous solutions of BaCl2 and K2SO4 affords a precipitate of 4 BaSO . Which ion(s) is/are spectator ions in the reaction? A) 2 Ba only + B) K+ only C) 2 2 Ba and SO4 + − D) SO4 2- and Cl- E) K+ and Cl- 20) Which combination will produce a precipitate? A) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) and HCl (aq) B) Cu(NO3)2 (aq) and KCl (aq) C) KOH (aq) and HNO3 (aq) D) AgNO3 (aq) and HNO3 (aq) E) NaOH (aq) and Sr(NO3)2 (aq) -6- CHM 114: Exam #1 21) There are __________ sulfur atoms in 50 molecules of C4H4S2. A) 1.5 × 1025 B) 100 C) 3.0 × 1025 D) 50 E) 6.02 × 1023 22) A compound contains 38.7% K, 13.9% N, and 47.4% O by mass. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) K2N2O3 B) KNO2 C) KNO3 D) K2NO3 E) K4NO5 23) Predict the empirical formula of the ionic compound that forms from sodium and fluorine. A) 2 Na F B) 2 NaF C) 2 3 Na F D) NaF E) 3 2 Na F 24) The mass % of Krypton in the binary compound KrF2 is __________. A) 18.48 B) 45.38 C) 68.80 D) 81.52 E) 31.20 25) The correct name for K2SO3 is __________. A) potassium sulfate B) potassium disulfide C) potassium sulfite D) potassium sulfide E) dipotassium sulfate -7- CHM 114: Exam #1

CHM114: Exam #1 CHM 114, S2015 Exam #1, Version B Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole 1amu = 1.66·10-24 g 1 cal=4.184 J \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #1 1) What volume (mL) of a concentrated solution of sodium hydroxide (6.00 M) must be diluted to 200.0 mL to make a 0.880 M solution of sodium hydroxide? A) 2.64 B) 176 C) 29.3 D) 26.4 E) 50.0 2) Sulfur and fluorine react in a combination reaction to produce sulfur hexafluoride: S (s) + 3 F2 (g)  SF6 (g) The maximum amount of SF6 that can be produced from the reaction of 3.5 g of sulfur with 4.5 g of fluorine is __________ g. A) 5.8 B) 3.2 C) 12 D) 16 E) 8.0 3) Of the reactions below, only __________ is not spontaneous. A) 2 2 Mg (s) 2HCl + (aq)®MgCl (aq) + H (g) B) 2 4 2 4 2 2Ni (s) + H SO (aq) ®Ni SO (aq) + H (g) C) 3 2 2Al (s) + 6HBr (aq)®2AlBr (aq) + 3H (g) D) 3 3 2 2Ag (s) + 2HNO (aq) ®2AgNO (aq) + H (g) E) 2 2 Zn (s) + 2HI (aq) ®ZnI (aq) + H (g) 4) Which solution has the same number of moles of NaOH as 40.00 mL of 0.100M solution of NaOH? A) 20.00 mL of 0.200M solution of NaOH B) 25.00 mL of 0.175M solution of NaOH C) 30.00 mL of 0.145M solution of NaOH D) 50.00 mL of 0.125M solution of NaOH E) 100.00 mL of 0.0500M solution of NaOH 5) What is the concentration (M) of a NaCl solution prepared by dissolving 9.3 g of NaCl in sufficient water to give 450 mL of solution? A) 0.35 B) 0.16 C) 0.45 D) 27 E) -2 2.7×10 -3- CHM 114: Exam #1 6) In which reaction does the oxidation number of hydrogen change? A) 2 HCl (aq) NaOH (+ aq)® NaCl (aq) + H O (l) B) 2 2 CaO (s) + H O (l) ®Ca(OH) (s) C) 4 3 4 2 2 2 2 HClO (aq) + CaCO (s) ® Ca(ClO ) (aq) + H O (l) +CO (g) D) 2 2 2 3 SO (g) + H O (l)®H SO (aq) E) 2 2 2 Na (s) + 2H O (l) ® 2 NaOH (aq) + H (g) 7) Which atom has the smallest number of neutrons? A) phosphorus-30 B) chlorine-37 C) potassium-39 D) argon-40 E) calcium-40 8) The change in the internal energy of a system that absorbs 2,500 J of heat and that has received 7,655 J of work by the surroundings is __________ J. A) -10,155 B) -5,155 C) 7 −1.91×10 D) 10,155 E) 5,155 9) When a metal and a nonmetal react, the __________ tends to lose electrons and the __________ tends to gain electrons. A) metal, metal B) nonmetal, nonmetal C) metal, nonmetal D) nonmetal, metal E) None of the above, these elements share electrons. 10) What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in HNO2? A) -5 B) -3 C) 0 D) +3 E) +5 -4- CHM 114: Exam #1 11) Elements in Group 7A are known as the __________. A) chalcogens B) alkaline earth metals C) alkali metals D) halogens E) noble gases 12) The concentration of iodide ions in a 0.193 M solution of sodium iodide is __________. A) 0.193 M B) 0.386 M C) 0.0965 M D) 0.579 M E) 0.0643 M 13) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride: 6Li (s) + N2 (g)  2Li3N (s) How many moles of N2 are needed to react with 1.422 mol of lithium? A) 4.26 B) 0.710 C) 0.237 D) 2.13 E) 0.118 14) The balanced equation for the decomposition of sodium azide is __________. A) 2NaN3 (s)  Na2 (s) + 3 N2 (g) B) NaN3 (s)  Na (s) + N2 (g) C) 2NaN3 (s)  2Na (s) + 3 N2 (g) D) NaN3 (s)  Na (s) + N2 (g) + N (g) E) 2NaN3 (s)  2Na (s) + 2 N2 (g) 15) A sample of CH2F2 with a mass of 9.5 g contains __________ atoms of F. A) 2.2 × 1023 B) 38 C) 3.3 × 1024 D) 4.4 × 1023 E) 9.5 -5- CHM 114: Exam #1 16) An unknown element is found to have three naturally occurring isotopes with atomic masses of 35.9675 (0.337%), 37.9627 (0.063%), and 39.9624 (99.600%). Which of the following is the unknown element? A) Ar B) K C) Cl D) Ca E) None of the above could be the unknown element. 17) The value of DH° for the reaction below is -482 kJ. Calculate the heat (kJ) released to the surroundings when 24.0 g of CO (g) reacts completely. 2 2 2CO(g) +O (g)®2CO (g) A) 3 2.89×10 B) 207 C) 103 D) 65.7 E) -482 18) Lead (II) carbonate decomposes to give lead (II) oxide and carbon dioxide: PbCO3 (s)  PbO (s) + CO2 (g) __________ grams of carbondioxide will be produced by the decomposition of 7.50 g of lead (II) carbonate? A) 1.23 B) 2.50 C) 0.00936 D) 6.26 E) 7.83 19) Combining aqueous solutions of BaCl2 and K2SO4 affords a precipitate of 4 BaSO . Which ion(s) is/are spectator ions in the reaction? A) 2 Ba only + B) K+ only C) 2 2 Ba and SO4 + − D) SO4 2- and Cl- E) K+ and Cl- 20) Which combination will produce a precipitate? A) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) and HCl (aq) B) Cu(NO3)2 (aq) and KCl (aq) C) KOH (aq) and HNO3 (aq) D) AgNO3 (aq) and HNO3 (aq) E) NaOH (aq) and Sr(NO3)2 (aq) -6- CHM 114: Exam #1 21) There are __________ sulfur atoms in 50 molecules of C4H4S2. A) 1.5 × 1025 B) 100 C) 3.0 × 1025 D) 50 E) 6.02 × 1023 22) A compound contains 38.7% K, 13.9% N, and 47.4% O by mass. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) K2N2O3 B) KNO2 C) KNO3 D) K2NO3 E) K4NO5 23) Predict the empirical formula of the ionic compound that forms from sodium and fluorine. A) 2 Na F B) 2 NaF C) 2 3 Na F D) NaF E) 3 2 Na F 24) The mass % of Krypton in the binary compound KrF2 is __________. A) 18.48 B) 45.38 C) 68.80 D) 81.52 E) 31.20 25) The correct name for K2SO3 is __________. A) potassium sulfate B) potassium disulfide C) potassium sulfite D) potassium sulfide E) dipotassium sulfate -7- CHM 114: Exam #1

CHM114: Exam #2 CHM 114, S2015 Exam #2, Version C 16 March 2015 Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 3. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 RH=2.18·10-18 J R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 1Å=10-10 m c=3·108 m/s Ephoton=h·n=h·c/l h=6.626·10-34 Js Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole DH°rxn =  n DHf° (products) –  n DHf° (reactants) ) 1 1 ( 2 2 f i H n n DE = R − \ -2- CHM114: Exam #2 1) Which one of the following is an incorrect orbital notation? A) 2s B) 2p C) 3f D) 3d E) 4s 2) The energy of a photon that has a frequency of 8.21 1015s 1 − × is __________ J. A) 8.08 10 50 − × B) 1.99 10 25 − × C) 5.44 10 18 − × D) 1.24×1049 E) 1.26 10 19 − × 3) The ground state electron configuration of Ga is __________. A) 1s22s23s23p64s23d104p1 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104d1 E) [Ar]4s23d11 4) Of the bonds N–N, N=N, and NN, the N-N bond is __________. A) strongest/shortest B) weakest/longest C) strongest/longest D) weakest/shortest E) intermediate in both strength and length 5) Of the atoms below, __________ is the most electronegative. A) Br B) O C) Cl D) N E) F 6) Of the following, __________ cannot accommodate more than an octet of electrons. A) P B) O C) S D) Cl E) I -3- CHM 114: Exam #2 7) Which electron configuration represents a violation of Hund’s Rule? A) B) C) D) E) 8) A tin atom has 50 electrons. Electrons in the _____ subshell experience the highest effective nuclear charge. A) 1s B) 3p C) 3d D) 5s E) 5p 9) In ionic compounds, the lattice energy_____ as the magnitude of the ion charges _____ and the radii _____. A) increases, decrease, increase B) increases, increase, increase C) decreases, increase, increase D) increases, increase, decrease E) increases, decrease, decrease 10) Which of the following ionic compounds has the highest lattice energy? A) LiF B) MgO C) CsF D) CsI E) LiI -4- CHM 114: Exam #2 11) For which one of the following reactions is the value of H°rxn equal to Hf° for the product? A) 2 C (s, graphite) + 2 H2 (g)  C2H4 (g) B) N2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 NO (g) C) 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 H2O (l) D) 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 H2O (g) E) all of the above 12) Given the data in the table below, H rxn D ° for the reaction 3 2 3 PCl (g) + 3HCl(g)®3Cl (g) + PH (g) is __________ kJ. A) -570.37 B) -385.77 C) 570.37 D) 385.77 E) The f DH° of 2 Cl (g) is needed for the calculation. 13) Given the following reactions (1) 2 2 2NO® N +O H = -180 kJ (2) 2 2 2NO+O ®2NO H = -112 kJ the enthalpy of the reaction of nitrogen with oxygen to produce nitrogen dioxide 2 2 2 N + 2O ®2NO is __________ kJ. A) 68 B) -68 C) -292 D) 292 E) -146 14) Of the following transitions in the Bohr hydrogen atom, the __________ transition results in the absorption of the lowest-energy photon. A) n = 1  n = 6 B) n = 6  n = 1 C) n = 6  n = 5 D) n = 3  n = 6 E) n = 1  n = 4 -5- CHM 114: Exam #2 15) Which equation correctly represents the electron affinity of calcium? A) Ca (g)  Ca+ (g) + e- B) Ca (g)  Ca- (g) + e- C) Ca (g) + e-  Ca- (g) D) Ca- (g)  Ca (g) + e- E) Ca+ (g) + e-  Ca (g) 16) Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons? A) Ca+ B) Rb+ C) Xe D) Br− E) All of the above have eight valence electrons. 17) The specific heat of liquid bromine is 0.226 J/g · K. The molar heat capacity (in J/mol-K) of liquid bromine is __________. A) 707 B) 36.1 C) 18.1 D) 9.05 E) 0.226 18) Given the electronegativities below, which covalent single bond is least polar? Element: H C N O F Electronegativity: 2.1 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 A) C-H B) C-F C) O-H D) O-C E) F-H 19) The bond length in an HCl molecule is 1.27 Å and the measured dipole moment is 1.08 D. What is the magnitude (in units of e) of the negative charge on Cl in HCl? (1 debye = 3.34 10 30 coulomb-meters − × ; e=1.6 10 19 coulombs − × ) A) 1.6 10 19 − × B) 0.057 C) 0.18 D) 1 E) 0.22 -6- CHM 114: Exam #2 20) The F-B-F bond angle in the BF3 molecule is approximately __________. A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) 60° 21) Which isoelectronic series is correctly arranged in order of increasing radius? A) K+ < Ca2+ < Ar < Cl- B) Cl- < Ar < K+ < Ca2+ C) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl- D) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl- E) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl- < Ar 22) What is the electron configuration for the Fe2+ ion? A) [Ar]4s03d6 B) [Ar]4s23d4 C) [Ar]4s03d8 D) [Ar]4s23d8 E) [Ar]4s63d2 23) The formal charge on carbon in the Lewis structure of the NCS - ion is __________: A) -1 B) +1 C) +2 D) 0 E) +3 -7- CHM 114: Exam #2 24) Using the table of bond dissociation energies, the H for the following gas-phase reaction is __________ kJ. A) 291 B) 2017 C) -57 D) -356 E) -291 25) According to VSEPR theory, if there are six electron domains in the valence shell of an atom, they will be arranged in a(n) __________ geometry. A) octahedral B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal planar E) trigonal bipyramidal -8- CHM 114: Exam #2

CHM114: Exam #2 CHM 114, S2015 Exam #2, Version C 16 March 2015 Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 3. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 RH=2.18·10-18 J R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 1Å=10-10 m c=3·108 m/s Ephoton=h·n=h·c/l h=6.626·10-34 Js Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole DH°rxn =  n DHf° (products) –  n DHf° (reactants) ) 1 1 ( 2 2 f i H n n DE = R − \ -2- CHM114: Exam #2 1) Which one of the following is an incorrect orbital notation? A) 2s B) 2p C) 3f D) 3d E) 4s 2) The energy of a photon that has a frequency of 8.21 1015s 1 − × is __________ J. A) 8.08 10 50 − × B) 1.99 10 25 − × C) 5.44 10 18 − × D) 1.24×1049 E) 1.26 10 19 − × 3) The ground state electron configuration of Ga is __________. A) 1s22s23s23p64s23d104p1 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104d1 E) [Ar]4s23d11 4) Of the bonds N–N, N=N, and NN, the N-N bond is __________. A) strongest/shortest B) weakest/longest C) strongest/longest D) weakest/shortest E) intermediate in both strength and length 5) Of the atoms below, __________ is the most electronegative. A) Br B) O C) Cl D) N E) F 6) Of the following, __________ cannot accommodate more than an octet of electrons. A) P B) O C) S D) Cl E) I -3- CHM 114: Exam #2 7) Which electron configuration represents a violation of Hund’s Rule? A) B) C) D) E) 8) A tin atom has 50 electrons. Electrons in the _____ subshell experience the highest effective nuclear charge. A) 1s B) 3p C) 3d D) 5s E) 5p 9) In ionic compounds, the lattice energy_____ as the magnitude of the ion charges _____ and the radii _____. A) increases, decrease, increase B) increases, increase, increase C) decreases, increase, increase D) increases, increase, decrease E) increases, decrease, decrease 10) Which of the following ionic compounds has the highest lattice energy? A) LiF B) MgO C) CsF D) CsI E) LiI -4- CHM 114: Exam #2 11) For which one of the following reactions is the value of H°rxn equal to Hf° for the product? A) 2 C (s, graphite) + 2 H2 (g)  C2H4 (g) B) N2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 NO (g) C) 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 H2O (l) D) 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g)  2 H2O (g) E) all of the above 12) Given the data in the table below, H rxn D ° for the reaction 3 2 3 PCl (g) + 3HCl(g)®3Cl (g) + PH (g) is __________ kJ. A) -570.37 B) -385.77 C) 570.37 D) 385.77 E) The f DH° of 2 Cl (g) is needed for the calculation. 13) Given the following reactions (1) 2 2 2NO® N +O H = -180 kJ (2) 2 2 2NO+O ®2NO H = -112 kJ the enthalpy of the reaction of nitrogen with oxygen to produce nitrogen dioxide 2 2 2 N + 2O ®2NO is __________ kJ. A) 68 B) -68 C) -292 D) 292 E) -146 14) Of the following transitions in the Bohr hydrogen atom, the __________ transition results in the absorption of the lowest-energy photon. A) n = 1  n = 6 B) n = 6  n = 1 C) n = 6  n = 5 D) n = 3  n = 6 E) n = 1  n = 4 -5- CHM 114: Exam #2 15) Which equation correctly represents the electron affinity of calcium? A) Ca (g)  Ca+ (g) + e- B) Ca (g)  Ca- (g) + e- C) Ca (g) + e-  Ca- (g) D) Ca- (g)  Ca (g) + e- E) Ca+ (g) + e-  Ca (g) 16) Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons? A) Ca+ B) Rb+ C) Xe D) Br− E) All of the above have eight valence electrons. 17) The specific heat of liquid bromine is 0.226 J/g · K. The molar heat capacity (in J/mol-K) of liquid bromine is __________. A) 707 B) 36.1 C) 18.1 D) 9.05 E) 0.226 18) Given the electronegativities below, which covalent single bond is least polar? Element: H C N O F Electronegativity: 2.1 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 A) C-H B) C-F C) O-H D) O-C E) F-H 19) The bond length in an HCl molecule is 1.27 Å and the measured dipole moment is 1.08 D. What is the magnitude (in units of e) of the negative charge on Cl in HCl? (1 debye = 3.34 10 30 coulomb-meters − × ; e=1.6 10 19 coulombs − × ) A) 1.6 10 19 − × B) 0.057 C) 0.18 D) 1 E) 0.22 -6- CHM 114: Exam #2 20) The F-B-F bond angle in the BF3 molecule is approximately __________. A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) 60° 21) Which isoelectronic series is correctly arranged in order of increasing radius? A) K+ < Ca2+ < Ar < Cl- B) Cl- < Ar < K+ < Ca2+ C) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl- D) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl- E) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl- < Ar 22) What is the electron configuration for the Fe2+ ion? A) [Ar]4s03d6 B) [Ar]4s23d4 C) [Ar]4s03d8 D) [Ar]4s23d8 E) [Ar]4s63d2 23) The formal charge on carbon in the Lewis structure of the NCS - ion is __________: A) -1 B) +1 C) +2 D) 0 E) +3 -7- CHM 114: Exam #2 24) Using the table of bond dissociation energies, the H for the following gas-phase reaction is __________ kJ. A) 291 B) 2017 C) -57 D) -356 E) -291 25) According to VSEPR theory, if there are six electron domains in the valence shell of an atom, they will be arranged in a(n) __________ geometry. A) octahedral B) linear C) tetrahedral D) trigonal planar E) trigonal bipyramidal -8- CHM 114: Exam #2

A crush of popular social-media toys – Facebook, Twitter, Google, Yahoo, Yelp, social games, Skype, YouTube and Quora, to name a few – has opened the lines of communication between millions of people as never before. But the glut of tools and their features – chat, messages, instant messages, texting and tweets – has led to multiple conversations that can be head-spinning. People are drowning in a deluge of data. Corporate users received about 110 messages a day in 2010, says market researcher Radicati Group. There are 110 million tweets a day, Twitter says. Researcher Basex has pegged business productivity losses due to the “cost of unnecessary interruptions” at $650 billion in 2007. What can you do to manage social media? Is there a way to use social media in a positive way in the workplace?

A crush of popular social-media toys – Facebook, Twitter, Google, Yahoo, Yelp, social games, Skype, YouTube and Quora, to name a few – has opened the lines of communication between millions of people as never before. But the glut of tools and their features – chat, messages, instant messages, texting and tweets – has led to multiple conversations that can be head-spinning. People are drowning in a deluge of data. Corporate users received about 110 messages a day in 2010, says market researcher Radicati Group. There are 110 million tweets a day, Twitter says. Researcher Basex has pegged business productivity losses due to the “cost of unnecessary interruptions” at $650 billion in 2007. What can you do to manage social media? Is there a way to use social media in a positive way in the workplace?

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Project 1: Particle Trajectory in Pleated Filters Due: 12:30 pm, Dec. 1, 2015, submission through blackboard Course: Numerical Methods Instructor: Dr. Hooman V. Tafreshi Most aerosol filters are made of pleated fibrous media. This is to accommodate as much filtration media as possible in a limited space available to an air filtration unit (e.g., the engine of a car). A variety of parameters contribute to the performance of a pleated filter. These parameters include, but are not limited to, geometry of the pleat (e.g., pleat height, width, and count), microscale properties of the fibrous media (e.g., fiber diameters, fiber orientation, and solid volume fraction), aerodynamic and thermal conditions of the flow (e.g., flow velocity, temperature, and operating pressure), and particle properties (e.g., diameter, density, and shape). Figure 1: Examples of pleated air filters [1‐2]. In this project you are asked to calculate the trajectory of aerosol particles as they travel inside a rectangular pleat channel. Due to the symmetry of the pleat geometry, you only need to simulate one half of the channel (see Figure 2). Figure 2: The simulation domain and boundary conditions (the figure’s aspect ratio is altered for illustration purposes). Trajectory of the aerosol particles can be calculated in a 2‐D domain by solving the Newton’s 2nd law written for the particles in the x‐ and y‐directions, v(h) inlet velocity fibrous media v(y) y tm l h x Ui u(l) u(x) 2 2 p 1 p 1 ( , ) d x dx u x y dt  dt    2 2 p 1 p 1 ( , ) d y dy v x y dt  dt    where 2 1/18 p p   d    is the particle relaxation time, 10 μm p d  is the particle diameter, 1000 kg/m3 p   is the particle density, and   1.85105 Pa.s is the air viscosity. Also, u(x, y) and v(x, y) represent the components of the air velocity in the x and y directions inside the pleat channel, respectively. The x and y positions of the particles are denoted by xp and yp, respectively. You may use the following expressions for u(x, y) and v(x, y) .     2 3 1 2 u x, y u x y h                  sin 2 v x,y v h π y h        where   i 1 u x U x l h          is the average air velocity inside the pleat channel in the x‐direction and Ui is the velocity at the pleat entrance (assume 1 m/s for this project). l = 0.0275 m and h =0.0011 m are the pleat length and height, respectively. Writing the conservation of mass for the air flowing into the channel, you can also obtain that   i v h U h l h         . These 2nd order ODEs can easily be solved using a 4th order Rung‐Kutta method. In order to obtain realistic particle trajectories, you also need to consider proper initial conditions for the velocity of the particles: x(t  0)  0 , ( 0) i p p y t   y , p ( 0) cos i i dx t U dt    , p ( 0) sin i i dy t U dt     . where i  is the angle with respect to the axial direction by which a particle enters the pleat channel (see Figure 3). The inlet angle can be obtained from the following equation: 2 75 0.78 +0.16 1.61St i i p p i y y e h h                    where   2 St 18 2 ρPdPUi μ h  is the particles Stokes number. Figure 3: An illustration of the required particle trajectory calculation inside a rectangular pleated filter. You are asked to calculate and plot the trajectories of particles released from the vertical positions of ?? ? ? 0.05?, ?? ? ? 0.25?, ?? ? ? 0.5?, ?? ? ? 0.75? , and ?? ? ? 0.95? in one single figure. To do so, you need to track the trajectories until they reach one of the channel walls (i.e., stop when xp  l or p y  h ). Use a time step of 0.00001 sec. For more information see Ref. [3]. For additional background information see Ref. [4] and references there. In submitting your project please stick to following guidelines: 1‐ In blackboard, submit all the Matlab files and report in one single zip file. For naming your zip file, adhere to the format as: Lastname_firstname_project1.zip For instance: Einstein_albert_project1.zip 2‐ The report should be in pdf format only with the name as Project1.pdf (NO word documents .docx or .doc will be graded). 3‐ Your zip file can contain as many Matlab files as you want to submit. Also please submit the main code which TA’s should run with the name as: Project1.m (You can name the function files as you desire). Summary of what you should submit: 1‐ Runge–Kutta 4th order implementation in MATLAB. 2‐ Plot 5 particle trajectories in one graph. 3‐ Report your output (the x‐y positions of the five particles at each time step) in the form of a table with 11 columns (one for time and two for the x and y of each particle). Make sure the units are second for time and meter for the x and y. 4‐ Write a short, but yet clean and professional report describing your work. Up to 25% of your grade will be based solely on the style and formatting of your report. Use proper heading for each section of your report. Be consistent in your font size. Use Times New Roman only. Make sure that figures have proper self‐explanatory captions and are cited in the body of the report. Make sure that your figures have legends as well as x and y labels with proper and consistent fonts. Don’t forget that any number presented in the report or on the figures has to have a proper unit. Equations and pages in your report should be numbered. Embed your figures in the text. Make sure they do not have unnecessary frames around them or are not plotted on a grey background (default setting of some software programs!). inlet angle Particle trajectory i p y i 0 p x  Important Note: It is possible to solve the above ODEs using built‐in solvers such as ode45 in MATLAB, and you are encouraged to consider that for validating your MATLAB program. However, the results that you submit for this project MUST be obtained from your own implementation of the 4th order Runge‐Kutta method. You will not receive full credit if your MATALB program does not work, even if your results are absolutely correct! References: 1. http://www.airexco.net/custom‐manufacturedbr12‐inch‐pleated‐filter‐c‐108_113_114/custommadebr12‐ inch‐pleated‐filter‐p‐786.html 2. http://www.ebay.com/itm/Air‐Compressor‐Air‐Filter‐Element‐CFE‐275‐Round‐Pleated‐Filter‐ /251081172328 3. A.M. Saleh and H.V. Tafreshi, A Simple Semi‐Analytical Model for Designing Pleated Air Filters under Loading, Separation and Purification Technology 137, 94 (2014) 4. A.M. Saleh, S. Fotovati, H.V. Tafreshi, and B. Pourdeyhimi, Modeling Service Life of Pleated Filters Exposed to Poly‐Dispersed Aerosols, Powder Technology 266, 79 (2014)

Project 1: Particle Trajectory in Pleated Filters Due: 12:30 pm, Dec. 1, 2015, submission through blackboard Course: Numerical Methods Instructor: Dr. Hooman V. Tafreshi Most aerosol filters are made of pleated fibrous media. This is to accommodate as much filtration media as possible in a limited space available to an air filtration unit (e.g., the engine of a car). A variety of parameters contribute to the performance of a pleated filter. These parameters include, but are not limited to, geometry of the pleat (e.g., pleat height, width, and count), microscale properties of the fibrous media (e.g., fiber diameters, fiber orientation, and solid volume fraction), aerodynamic and thermal conditions of the flow (e.g., flow velocity, temperature, and operating pressure), and particle properties (e.g., diameter, density, and shape). Figure 1: Examples of pleated air filters [1‐2]. In this project you are asked to calculate the trajectory of aerosol particles as they travel inside a rectangular pleat channel. Due to the symmetry of the pleat geometry, you only need to simulate one half of the channel (see Figure 2). Figure 2: The simulation domain and boundary conditions (the figure’s aspect ratio is altered for illustration purposes). Trajectory of the aerosol particles can be calculated in a 2‐D domain by solving the Newton’s 2nd law written for the particles in the x‐ and y‐directions, v(h) inlet velocity fibrous media v(y) y tm l h x Ui u(l) u(x) 2 2 p 1 p 1 ( , ) d x dx u x y dt  dt    2 2 p 1 p 1 ( , ) d y dy v x y dt  dt    where 2 1/18 p p   d    is the particle relaxation time, 10 μm p d  is the particle diameter, 1000 kg/m3 p   is the particle density, and   1.85105 Pa.s is the air viscosity. Also, u(x, y) and v(x, y) represent the components of the air velocity in the x and y directions inside the pleat channel, respectively. The x and y positions of the particles are denoted by xp and yp, respectively. You may use the following expressions for u(x, y) and v(x, y) .     2 3 1 2 u x, y u x y h                  sin 2 v x,y v h π y h        where   i 1 u x U x l h          is the average air velocity inside the pleat channel in the x‐direction and Ui is the velocity at the pleat entrance (assume 1 m/s for this project). l = 0.0275 m and h =0.0011 m are the pleat length and height, respectively. Writing the conservation of mass for the air flowing into the channel, you can also obtain that   i v h U h l h         . These 2nd order ODEs can easily be solved using a 4th order Rung‐Kutta method. In order to obtain realistic particle trajectories, you also need to consider proper initial conditions for the velocity of the particles: x(t  0)  0 , ( 0) i p p y t   y , p ( 0) cos i i dx t U dt    , p ( 0) sin i i dy t U dt     . where i  is the angle with respect to the axial direction by which a particle enters the pleat channel (see Figure 3). The inlet angle can be obtained from the following equation: 2 75 0.78 +0.16 1.61St i i p p i y y e h h                    where   2 St 18 2 ρPdPUi μ h  is the particles Stokes number. Figure 3: An illustration of the required particle trajectory calculation inside a rectangular pleated filter. You are asked to calculate and plot the trajectories of particles released from the vertical positions of ?? ? ? 0.05?, ?? ? ? 0.25?, ?? ? ? 0.5?, ?? ? ? 0.75? , and ?? ? ? 0.95? in one single figure. To do so, you need to track the trajectories until they reach one of the channel walls (i.e., stop when xp  l or p y  h ). Use a time step of 0.00001 sec. For more information see Ref. [3]. For additional background information see Ref. [4] and references there. In submitting your project please stick to following guidelines: 1‐ In blackboard, submit all the Matlab files and report in one single zip file. For naming your zip file, adhere to the format as: Lastname_firstname_project1.zip For instance: Einstein_albert_project1.zip 2‐ The report should be in pdf format only with the name as Project1.pdf (NO word documents .docx or .doc will be graded). 3‐ Your zip file can contain as many Matlab files as you want to submit. Also please submit the main code which TA’s should run with the name as: Project1.m (You can name the function files as you desire). Summary of what you should submit: 1‐ Runge–Kutta 4th order implementation in MATLAB. 2‐ Plot 5 particle trajectories in one graph. 3‐ Report your output (the x‐y positions of the five particles at each time step) in the form of a table with 11 columns (one for time and two for the x and y of each particle). Make sure the units are second for time and meter for the x and y. 4‐ Write a short, but yet clean and professional report describing your work. Up to 25% of your grade will be based solely on the style and formatting of your report. Use proper heading for each section of your report. Be consistent in your font size. Use Times New Roman only. Make sure that figures have proper self‐explanatory captions and are cited in the body of the report. Make sure that your figures have legends as well as x and y labels with proper and consistent fonts. Don’t forget that any number presented in the report or on the figures has to have a proper unit. Equations and pages in your report should be numbered. Embed your figures in the text. Make sure they do not have unnecessary frames around them or are not plotted on a grey background (default setting of some software programs!). inlet angle Particle trajectory i p y i 0 p x  Important Note: It is possible to solve the above ODEs using built‐in solvers such as ode45 in MATLAB, and you are encouraged to consider that for validating your MATLAB program. However, the results that you submit for this project MUST be obtained from your own implementation of the 4th order Runge‐Kutta method. You will not receive full credit if your MATALB program does not work, even if your results are absolutely correct! References: 1. http://www.airexco.net/custom‐manufacturedbr12‐inch‐pleated‐filter‐c‐108_113_114/custommadebr12‐ inch‐pleated‐filter‐p‐786.html 2. http://www.ebay.com/itm/Air‐Compressor‐Air‐Filter‐Element‐CFE‐275‐Round‐Pleated‐Filter‐ /251081172328 3. A.M. Saleh and H.V. Tafreshi, A Simple Semi‐Analytical Model for Designing Pleated Air Filters under Loading, Separation and Purification Technology 137, 94 (2014) 4. A.M. Saleh, S. Fotovati, H.V. Tafreshi, and B. Pourdeyhimi, Modeling Service Life of Pleated Filters Exposed to Poly‐Dispersed Aerosols, Powder Technology 266, 79 (2014)

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