1. Which of the following statements for electric field lines are true? (Give ALL correct answers, i.e., B, AC, BCD…) A) E-field lines point inward toward negative charges. B) E-field lines may cross. C) E-field lines do not begin or end in a charge-free region (except at infinity). D) Where the E-field lines are dense the E-field must be weak. E) E-field lines make circles around positive charges. F) A point charge q, released from rest will initially move along an E-field line. G) E-field lines point outward from positive charges. 2. Consider two uniformly charged parallel plates as shown above. The magnitudes of the charges are equal. (For each statement select T True, F False). A) If the plates are oppositely charged, there is no electric field at c. B) If both plates are negatively charged, the electric field at a points towards the top of the page. C) If both plates are positively charged, there is no electric field at b. 3. As shown in the figure above, a ball of mass 1.050 g and positive charge q =38.1microC is suspended on a string of negligible mass in a uniform electric field. We observe that the ball hangs at an angle of theta=15.0° from the vertical. What is the magnitude of the electric field?

1. Which of the following statements for electric field lines are true? (Give ALL correct answers, i.e., B, AC, BCD…) A) E-field lines point inward toward negative charges. B) E-field lines may cross. C) E-field lines do not begin or end in a charge-free region (except at infinity). D) Where the E-field lines are dense the E-field must be weak. E) E-field lines make circles around positive charges. F) A point charge q, released from rest will initially move along an E-field line. G) E-field lines point outward from positive charges. 2. Consider two uniformly charged parallel plates as shown above. The magnitudes of the charges are equal. (For each statement select T True, F False). A) If the plates are oppositely charged, there is no electric field at c. B) If both plates are negatively charged, the electric field at a points towards the top of the page. C) If both plates are positively charged, there is no electric field at b. 3. As shown in the figure above, a ball of mass 1.050 g and positive charge q =38.1microC is suspended on a string of negligible mass in a uniform electric field. We observe that the ball hangs at an angle of theta=15.0° from the vertical. What is the magnitude of the electric field?

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Que 1: in women who suffer from migraine …………………. are classified menstrual migraines, which tend to be more severe and longer lasting . a) 5% – 10% b) 45% – 55% c) 20% – 50% d) 65%-75% Que 2: why are the women on average, slightly shorter than men a) They have fat then man which contributes to stature b) Their long bones are sealed and stop growing earlier than men c) Their brains are somewhat smaller than man’s brain d) Their brains are somewhat larger than man, brain que 3: menopause frequently occurs between ………………..age of year a) 25-30 b) 45-55 c) 35-40 d) 65-75 que 4: this hormone causes enlargement of the larynx and an increase in the length and thickness of the vocal cords. A) estrogen 2) cholesterol 3) progesterone 4) testosterone Que 5: the reproductive cycle includes which of the following interconnected sets of events a) Ovarian cycle b) Urinary cycle c) Placental cycle d) Female prostate cycle Que 6: high level of circulating progesterone have been associated with : a) Excessive milk production b) Ovarian cancer c) Inability to breast feed a new born child d) Pregnancy Que 7: although variations exist, ovulation typically occurs on the …………day before mensuaration a) 1st b) 14th c) 7th d) 28th Que 8: LH stimulates interstitial cells a) To decrease GnRH b) To produce FSH c) To produce testosterones d) To produce sperm Que 9:what region of the uterus is shed during menstration? a) Stratum basalis of the myometrium b) Stratum basalis of the endometrium c) Stratum functionalis of the endometrium d) Perimetrium Que 10: the phenomenon is which women living in close proximity tend to menstruate at approximately the time is called. a) Precocious puberty b) Menstrual synchrony’ c) Delayed puberty d) Ovarian synchrony Que 11.studies have shown that healthy menstruating women a) Should not participate in sports b) Often feel ill or weak when exercising c) Are able to safety engage in athletic activities d) Can contaminate others and should not engage in contacts sports. Que 12: which term below describes a chemical that resembles steroid hormones and posses threat to maintain homeostasis. a) Androgens b) Prostaglandins c) Endocrine disruptors d) All of the above Que 13: one of the primary function of ……….is preparing and sustaining the uterus of pregnancy a) Testosterone b) Progesterone c) Estradiol d) inhibin Que 14: typically ovulation occurs a) at the end of the uterine phase b) at the start of follicular phase c) during an increase of LH in the ovarian cycle d) at the middle of the luteal phase

Que 1: in women who suffer from migraine …………………. are classified menstrual migraines, which tend to be more severe and longer lasting . a) 5% – 10% b) 45% – 55% c) 20% – 50% d) 65%-75% Que 2: why are the women on average, slightly shorter than men a) They have fat then man which contributes to stature b) Their long bones are sealed and stop growing earlier than men c) Their brains are somewhat smaller than man’s brain d) Their brains are somewhat larger than man, brain que 3: menopause frequently occurs between ………………..age of year a) 25-30 b) 45-55 c) 35-40 d) 65-75 que 4: this hormone causes enlargement of the larynx and an increase in the length and thickness of the vocal cords. A) estrogen 2) cholesterol 3) progesterone 4) testosterone Que 5: the reproductive cycle includes which of the following interconnected sets of events a) Ovarian cycle b) Urinary cycle c) Placental cycle d) Female prostate cycle Que 6: high level of circulating progesterone have been associated with : a) Excessive milk production b) Ovarian cancer c) Inability to breast feed a new born child d) Pregnancy Que 7: although variations exist, ovulation typically occurs on the …………day before mensuaration a) 1st b) 14th c) 7th d) 28th Que 8: LH stimulates interstitial cells a) To decrease GnRH b) To produce FSH c) To produce testosterones d) To produce sperm Que 9:what region of the uterus is shed during menstration? a) Stratum basalis of the myometrium b) Stratum basalis of the endometrium c) Stratum functionalis of the endometrium d) Perimetrium Que 10: the phenomenon is which women living in close proximity tend to menstruate at approximately the time is called. a) Precocious puberty b) Menstrual synchrony’ c) Delayed puberty d) Ovarian synchrony Que 11.studies have shown that healthy menstruating women a) Should not participate in sports b) Often feel ill or weak when exercising c) Are able to safety engage in athletic activities d) Can contaminate others and should not engage in contacts sports. Que 12: which term below describes a chemical that resembles steroid hormones and posses threat to maintain homeostasis. a) Androgens b) Prostaglandins c) Endocrine disruptors d) All of the above Que 13: one of the primary function of ……….is preparing and sustaining the uterus of pregnancy a) Testosterone b) Progesterone c) Estradiol d) inhibin Que 14: typically ovulation occurs a) at the end of the uterine phase b) at the start of follicular phase c) during an increase of LH in the ovarian cycle d) at the middle of the luteal phase

CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

CHM114: Exam #3 CHM 114 Exam #3 Practice Exam (Chapters 9.1-9.4, 9.6, 10, 11.1-11.6, 13.1-13.5) Instructor: O. Graudejus Points: 100 Print Name Sign Name Student I.D. # 1. You are responsible for the information on this page. Please read it carefully. 2. If you enter your ASU ID incorrectly on the scantron, a 3 point penalty will be assessed. 3. Code your name and 10 digit affiliate identification number on the separate scantron answer sheet. Use only a #2 pencil 4. Do all calculations on the exam pages. Do not make any unnecessary marks on the answer sheet. 5. This exam consists of 25 multiple choice questions worth 4 points each and a periodic table. Make sure you have them all. 6. Choose the best answer to each of the questions and answer it on the computer-graded answer sheet. Read all responses before making a selection. 7. Read the directions carefully for each problem. 8. Avoid even casual glances at other students’ exams. 9. Stop writing and hand in your scantron answer sheet and your test promptly when instructed. LATE EXAMS MAY HAVE POINTS DEDUCTED. 10. You will have 50 minutes to complete the exam. 11. If you leave early, please do so quietly. 12. Work the easiest problems first. 13. A periodic table is attached as the last page to this exam. 14. Answers will be posted online this afternoon. Potentially useful information: K = ºC + 273.15 PV=nRT R=8.314 J·K-1·mol-1 DE = q + w 760 torr = 1 atm = 101325 Pa = 1.013 bar Avogadro’s Number = 6.022 × 1023 particles/mole q = (Sp. Heat) × m × DT (Specific Heatwater = 4.184 J/g°C) 1 2 2 3 2 ( is a constant) KE mv KE RT R = = M RT u 3 = \ -2- CHM 114: Exam #3 1) Of the following molecules, only __________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 2) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar 3) The electron-domain geometry of __________ is tetrahedral. A) 4 CBr B) 3 PH C) 2 2 CCl Br D) 4 XeF E) all of the above except 4 XeF 4) Of the following substances, only __________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) H2O B) CCl4 C) HF D) CH3COOH E) PH3 5) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the __________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation (interaction) of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent -3- CHM 114: Exam #3 6) There are __________  and __________  bonds in the H −C º C−H molecule. A) 3 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 4 and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 5 and 0 7) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is __________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 8) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is __________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 9) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 3 2 2NaN (s)®2Na (s) + 3N (g) . What mass (g) of 3 NaN is required to provide 40.0 L of 2 N at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1  10) The reaction of 50 mL of 2 Cl gas with 50 mL of 4 CH gas via the equation: 2 4 3 Cl (g) + CH (g)®HCl (g) + CH Cl (g) will produce a total of __________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 200 D) 150 E) 250 -4- CHM 114: Exam #3 11) The density of 2 N O at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C is __________ g/L. A) 18.2 B) 1.76 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 2.58 12) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of __________ N on an area of 2 5.5 m . A)1.8×103 B) 59 C) 5 2.4×10 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 13) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-mean-square speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) 2 Cl C) 2 H O D) 6 SF E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. 14) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of __________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole rejections C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions -5- CHM 114: Exam #3 16) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 Jmol-1K-1. The conversion of 50.0 g of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 22.0 °C requires __________ kJ of heat. A) 3.8×102 B) 21.3 C) 17.2 D) 0.469 E) Insufficient data are given. 17) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point. A) 2 H O B) 2 CO C) 4 CH D) Kr E) SF4 18) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all 19) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point? A) 3 2 3 CH CH CH B) 3 3 CH OCH C) 3 CH Cl D) 3 CH CHO E) 3 CH CN -6- CHM 114: Exam #3 20) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point __________ correspond to the critical temperature and pressure. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 21) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult’s Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of _______ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of __________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose (a sugar) 23) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 (formula weight = 164 g/mol) in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 °C/m. A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 -7- CHM 114: Exam #3 24) The phase changes B  C and D  E are not associated with temperature increases because the heat energy is used up to __________. A) break intermolecular bonds B) break intramolecular bonds C) rearrange atoms within molecules D) increase the velocity of molecules E) increase the density of the sample 25) Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3) dissolves readily in water even though the dissolution is endothermic by 26.4 kJ/mol. The solution process is spontaneous because __________. A) the vapor pressure of the water decreases upon addition of the solute B) the ammonium and the nitrate ion both contain nitrogen C) of the decrease in enthalpy upon addition of the solute D) of the increase in enthalpy upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte E) of the increase in disorder (entropy) upon dissolution of this strong electrolyte    -8- CHM 114: Exam #3

Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

Ch 2 Questions that might be on the test. If you cannot answer them, check your class notes or the textbook. 1. A mineral is a naturally occurring substance formed through geological processes that has: a) a characteristic chemical composition, b) a highly ordered atomic structure c) specific physical properties d) all of the above 2. There are currently more than ______ known minerals, according to the International Mineralogical Association, a) 40 b) 400 c) 4000 d) 40 000 3. Some minerals, like quartz, mica or feldspar are: a) rare b) common c) valuable d) priceless 4. Rocks from which minerals are mined for economic purposes are referred to as: a) gangue b) tailings c) ores d) granite 5. Electrons, which have a _____ charge, a size which is so small as to be currently unmeasurable, and which are the least massive of the three types of basic particles. a) positive b) negative c) neutral 6. Both protons and neutrons are themselves now thought to be composed of even more elementary particles called: a) quarks b) quakes c) parsons d) megans 7. In processes which change the number of protons in a nucleus, the atom becomes an atom of a different chemical: a) isotope b) compound c) element d) planet 8. Atoms which have either a deficit or a surplus of electrons are called: a) elements b) isotopes c) ions d) molecules 9. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons can only orbit the nucleus in particular circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy, their distances from the nucleus being proportional to their respective energies. They can only make _____ leaps between the fixed energy levels. a) tiny b) quantum c) gradual 10. It is impossible to simultaneously derive precise values for both the position and momentum of a particle for any given point in time; this became known as the ______ principle. a) Bohr b) Einstein c) uncertainty d) quantum 11. The modern model of the atom describes the positions of electrons in an atom in terms of: a) quantum levels b) orbital paths c) probabilities d) GPS 12. Isotopes of an element have nuclei with the same number of protons (the same atomic number) but different numbers of: a) electrons b) neutrons c) ions d) photons 13. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many protons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 14. In helium-3 (or 3He), how many neutrons are present? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 15. The relative abundance of an isotope is strongly correlated with its tendency toward nuclear _____, short-lived nuclides quickly go away, while their long-lived counterparts endure. a) fission b) fusion c) decay d) bombardment 16. The isotopic composition of elements is different on different planets. a) True b) False 17. As a general rule, the fewer electrons in an atom’s valence shell, the ____ reactive it is. Lithium, sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outer shells. a) more b) less 18. Every atom is much more stable, or less reactive, with a ____ valence shell. a) partly full b) completely full 19. A positively-charged ion, which has fewer electrons than protons, is known as a: a) anion b) cation c) fermion d) bation 20. Bonds vary widely in their strength. Generally covalent and ionic bonds are often described as “strong”, whereas ______ bonds are generally considered to be “weak”. a) van der Waals b) Faradays c) van Neumans 21. This bonding involves sharing of electrons in which the positively charged nuclei of two or more atoms simultaneously attract the negatively charged electrons that are being shared a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 22. This bond results from electrostatic attraction between atoms: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 23. A sea of delocalized electrons causes this bonding: a) ionic b) covalent c) van der Waals d) metallic 24. The chemical composition of minerals may vary between end members of a mineral system. For example the ______ feldspars comprise a continuous series from sodiumrich albite to calcium-rich anorthite. a) plagioclase b) orthoclase c) alkaline d) acidic 25. Crystal structure is based on ____ internal atomic arrangement. a) irregular b) regular c) random d) curvilinear 26. Pyrite and marcasite are both _______, but their arrangement of atoms differs. a) iron sulfide b) lead sulfide c) copper silfide d) silver sulfide 27. The carbon atoms in ______ are arranged into sheets which can slide easily past each other, while the carbon atoms in diamond form a strong, interlocking three-dimensional network. a) sapphire b) graphite c) aluminum d) carbonate 28. TGCFAOQTCD a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale 29. Dull to metallic, submetallic, adamantine, vitreous, pearly, resinous, or silky. a) Crystal habit b) Hardness scale c) Luster scale d) Heft scale 30. The color of the powder a mineral leaves after rubbing it on unglazed porcelain. a) color b) streak c) lustre d) iridescense 31. Describes the way a mineral may split apart along various planes. a) fracture b) streak c) lustre d) cleavage 32. In modern physics, the position of electrons about a nucleus are defined in terms of: a) probabilities b) circles c) ellipses d) chromodomes 33. The symbol H+ suggests a: a) hydrogen atom b) hydrogen isotope c) hydrogen cation d) hydrogen anion 34. The tabulated atomic mass of natural carbon is not exactly 12 because carbon in nature always has multiple ________ present. a) electrons b) isotopes c) quarks d) protons 35. This type of bonding due to delocalized electrons leads to malleability, ductility, and high melting points: a) covalent b) ionic c) van der Waals d) metallic 36. The mineral ___________ is 3 on Mohs Scale whereas the mineral ___________ is 9. a) calcite, corundum b) corundum, calcite c) caliche, calcite d) chalcedony, quartz 37. In hand specimens, geologists identify most minerals based on: a) physical properties b) chemical analyses c) xray diffraction 38. This type of chemical bonding is the weakest but occurs in all substances. a) covalent b) ionic c) metallic d) none of the above 39. Quartz, feldspar, mica, chlorite, kaolin, calcite, epidote, olivine, augite, hornblende, magnetite, hematite, limonite: these minerals are: a) common in rocks b) occasionally found c) rare d) extremely rare 40. Characteristics of a mineral do NOT include: a) naturally occurring b) characteristic chemical formula c) crystalline d) organic e) all of the above 41. The chemical composition of a particular mineral may vary between end members. For example, the common mineral plagioclase feldspar varies from being _______-rich to being _________-rich. a) sodium, calcium b) potassium, sodium c) iron, magnesium d) carbon, oxygen 42. Sharing of electrons typifies the __________ bond whereas electrostatic attraction typifies the _______ bond. a) ionic, covalent b) ionic, triclinic c) covalent, ionic d) triclinic, covalent 43. If number of protons does not equal the number of electrons, the atom is a(n) : a) isotope b) ion c) quark d) simplex e) google 44. Atoms generally consist of: a) electrons b) protons c) neutrons d) all of the above 45. Not counting rare minerals, about how many mineral species are at least occasionally encountered in rocks? a) 20 b) 200 c) 2000 46. Carbon is atomic number 6. Carbon-13 has _______ protons and _______ neutrons. a) thirteen, six b) six, seven c) twelve, twenty-five d) twelve, twelve 47. Which of these particles are not nucleons? a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons 48. A mineral with visibly recognizable crystals is said to have good crystal habit; otherwise the mineral is said to be: a) massive b) granular c) compact d) any of the above 49. In chemical bonding, two atoms become linked by moving or sharing __________. a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons 50. The name of an element is determined by the number of ______ present in the ______ of an atom. a) electrons, nucleus b) neutrons, nucleus c) protons, nucleus d) protons, electron cloud e) neutrons, electron cloud 51. Generally ________ and ____________ bonds are strong whereas the ______________ bond is weak. a) covalent, ionic, van der Waals b) van der Waals, covalent, ionic c) ionic, van der Waals, covalent 52. Which of the following are held together by chemical bonds? a) molecules b) crystals c) diatomic gases 53. An ion with fewer electrons than protons is called an ______ and it carries a _________ electric charge. a) cation, positive b) anion, negative c) cation, negative d) anion, positive 54. Two or more minerals may have the same _________ composition but different _______ structure. These are called polymorphs. a) crystal, chemical b) chemical, crystal 55. Industrial minerals are: a) gem quality b) commercially valuable c) tailings d) worthless 56. All minerals are crystalline. If the crystals are too small to see, they can be detected by: a) x-ray diffraction b) cosmic rays c) sound waves d) odor 57. If two atomes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, the atoms are _______ of the same _________. a) elements, mineral b) atoms, isotope c) elements, isotope d) isotopes, element 58. Modern physics recognizes that electrons show both particle and ______ behavior. a) wave b) emotional c) thermal d) revolting 59. Sodium and potassium have one ______ electron in their outer shells and are extremely ________. a) valence, stable b) inverted, reactive c) valence, reactive d) contaminated, inactive 60. The luster of _______ would be described as ________. a) glass, vitreous b) diamond, dull c) pyrite, silky d) graphite, resinous 61. The minerals ________ and __________ are polymorphs of carbon. a) diamond, graphite b) calcite, silicate c) bonite, bronzite 62. In the ______ atom based on _______ physics, electrons were restricted to circular orbits of fixed energy levels. a) Bohr , quantum b) Rutherford, classical c) Bohr, classical d) Rutherford, quantum 63. Virtually all elements other than ______ and _______ were formed in stars and supernovae long after the Big Bang. a) hydrogen, helium b) carbon, phosphorus c) carbon, oxygen d) silica, carbon 64. Physicist Werner _________ developed the ___________ principle which means that it is impossible to know exactly the position and momentum of a particle. a) Heisenberg, certainty b) Heisenberg, uncertainty c) Bohr, uncertainty d) Bohr, certainty

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ELEC 2000 Semiconductor Devices Homework #1 Choose the answer that best completes the statement or answers the question. (1) Assume the valence electron is removed from a copper atom. The net charge of the atom becomes a. 0 b. +1 c. -1 d. +4 (2) The valence electron of a copper atom experiences what kind of attraction toward the nucleus? a. None b. Weak c. Strong d. Impossible to say (3) How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 (4) Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a a. Covalent bond b. Crystal c. Semiconductor d. Valence orbit (5) An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these holes? a. Doping b. Free electrons c. Thermal energy d. Valence electrons (6) The merging of a free electron and a hole is called a. Covalent bonding b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Thermal energy (7) At room temperature an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately a. A Battery b. A conductor c. An insulator d. Copper wire (8) The amount of time between the creation of a hole and its disappearance is called a. Doping b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Valence (9) A conductor has how many type of flow? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 (10) A semiconductor has how many types of flow? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 (11) For semiconductor material, its valence orbit is saturated when it contains a. 1 electron b. Equal (+) and (-) ions c. 4 electrons d. 8 electrons (12) In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of holes a. Equal the number of free electrons b. Is greater than the number of free electrons c. Is less than the number of free electrons d. None of the above (13) The number of free electrons and holes in an intrinsic semiconductor decreases when the temperature a. Decreases b. Increases c. Stays the same d. None of the above (14) The flow of valence electrons to the right means that holes are flowing to the a. Left b. Right c. Either way d. None of the above (15) Holes act like a. Atoms b. Crystals c. Negative charges d. Positive charges (16) An donor atom has how many valence electrons? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 (17) If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor, which of these would you use? a. Acceptor atoms b. Donor atoms c. Pentavalent impurity d. Silicon (18) Electrons are the minority carriers in which type of semiconductor? a. Extrinsic b. Intrinsic c. n-Type d. p-type (19) Silver is the best conductor. How many valence electrons do you think it has? a. 1 b. 4 c. 18 d. 29 (20) Which of the following describes an n-type semiconductor? a. Neutral b. Positively charged c. Negatively charged d. has many holes (21) What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode a room temperature? a. 0.3 V b. 0.7 V c. 1 V d. 2 mV per degree Celsius

ELEC 2000 Semiconductor Devices Homework #1 Choose the answer that best completes the statement or answers the question. (1) Assume the valence electron is removed from a copper atom. The net charge of the atom becomes a. 0 b. +1 c. -1 d. +4 (2) The valence electron of a copper atom experiences what kind of attraction toward the nucleus? a. None b. Weak c. Strong d. Impossible to say (3) How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 (4) Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a a. Covalent bond b. Crystal c. Semiconductor d. Valence orbit (5) An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these holes? a. Doping b. Free electrons c. Thermal energy d. Valence electrons (6) The merging of a free electron and a hole is called a. Covalent bonding b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Thermal energy (7) At room temperature an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately a. A Battery b. A conductor c. An insulator d. Copper wire (8) The amount of time between the creation of a hole and its disappearance is called a. Doping b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Valence (9) A conductor has how many type of flow? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 (10) A semiconductor has how many types of flow? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 (11) For semiconductor material, its valence orbit is saturated when it contains a. 1 electron b. Equal (+) and (-) ions c. 4 electrons d. 8 electrons (12) In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of holes a. Equal the number of free electrons b. Is greater than the number of free electrons c. Is less than the number of free electrons d. None of the above (13) The number of free electrons and holes in an intrinsic semiconductor decreases when the temperature a. Decreases b. Increases c. Stays the same d. None of the above (14) The flow of valence electrons to the right means that holes are flowing to the a. Left b. Right c. Either way d. None of the above (15) Holes act like a. Atoms b. Crystals c. Negative charges d. Positive charges (16) An donor atom has how many valence electrons? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 (17) If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor, which of these would you use? a. Acceptor atoms b. Donor atoms c. Pentavalent impurity d. Silicon (18) Electrons are the minority carriers in which type of semiconductor? a. Extrinsic b. Intrinsic c. n-Type d. p-type (19) Silver is the best conductor. How many valence electrons do you think it has? a. 1 b. 4 c. 18 d. 29 (20) Which of the following describes an n-type semiconductor? a. Neutral b. Positively charged c. Negatively charged d. has many holes (21) What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode a room temperature? a. 0.3 V b. 0.7 V c. 1 V d. 2 mV per degree Celsius

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Que 1: studies have shown that healthy menstruating women : a) Should not participate in sports b) often feel ill or weak when exercising c) are able to safely engage in athletic activities d) can contaminate others and should not engage in contact sports

Que 1: studies have shown that healthy menstruating women : a) Should not participate in sports b) often feel ill or weak when exercising c) are able to safely engage in athletic activities d) can contaminate others and should not engage in contact sports

Que 1: studies have shown that healthy menstruating women : … Read More...
Module Overview Summary of Module Description For full details, go to Module Descriptor. Aims The aim of this module is to: • Develop individuals for a career in business and management • Enhance and develop employability , professional and lifelong learning skills and personal development Learning Outcomes Learners will be able to critically evaluate the acquisition of a range of academic and professional skills using a number of theoretical frameworks. Assessment – Summary Category Assessment Description Duration Word Count Weight (%) Written Assignment Essay 1 Reflective Essay N/A 3000 45 For full details, go to Assessment. Additional Information Remember that a variety of Resources is available to support your learning materials.Skills and character audit This document provides an initial picture of your skills and character. It will also provide the basis of further documents that make up the first assignment on the module. It is based on the skills statements that form a fundamental part of your Masters programme which were approved by a validation panel that consisted of members of staff in the Business School, academic staff from other higher education institutions and employers. The statements in the form are there for you and you will not be judged on whether your responses are positive or negative. The responses should enable you to identify what you are good or bad at from which you can create a personal SLOT analysis (Strengths, Limitations, Opportunities, Threats). From this SLOT analysis you can then concentrate on developing certain areas that will enhance your academic and professional development. We would very much like to” get to know” you through this document and would encourage you to also complete the notes section. In this you could give us a rationale for your responses to the questions. As a guide to how you should gauge your response consider the following: Strongly agree – I have a wide range of experience in this area and have been commended by a tutor or employer for my efforts in this area Agree – I am comfortable with this aspect and have been able to demonstrate my ability Disagree – I am Ok with this but realise that I do need to improve Strongly disagree – I know I am weak in this area and need to focus on this as I could fine this weakness to be detrimental to my progression Explain why – please take the room to consider the reasons for your answer as this is the reflection that is of most value. Do not worry if your section spills onto the next page.   Intellectual (thinking) skills Strongly Agree Agree Disagree Strongly Disagree I am a creative person who can adapt my thinking to circumstances I am able to organise my thoughts, analyse, synthesise and critically appraise situations I can identify assumptions, evaluate statements in terms of evidence, detect false logic or reasoning, identify implicit values, define terms adequately and generalise appropriately Explain why: Professional/Vocational skills Strongly Agree Agree Disagree Strongly Disagree I use a wide range of techniques in approaching and solving problems. I am comfortable with a range of research techniques I am able to analyse and interpret quantitative data I am able to analyse and interpret qualitative data My leadership skills are well developed and I can adapt them to different situations I am able to manage people effectively Motivating myself and others comes easy to me I am aware of my responsibilities to myself, the organisation and other people I treat people with respect and consideration Explain why:   Key/Common skills Strongly Agree Agree Disagree Strongly Disagree I am able to use mathematical techniques to analyse data I can effectively interpret numerical data including tables and charts I am able to use a wide range of software on a PC I use a range Information Technology devices to communicate and access information I am a good listener I am able to communicate my ideas well in a face-to-face situation I can adapt my written style to suit an audiences needs I am comfortable presenting my ideas to an audience Whenever I have completed a task I always reflect on the experience with a view to seeking continuous improvement I manage my time effectively I am always prompt when asked to complete a task I am aware of the need to be sensitive to the cultural differences to which I have been exposed I am keen to learn about other people and their country and culture I enjoy working with others to complete a task I know my own character and am sensitive of this in a group situation I understand that a group is made of individuals and I am sensitive to the needs and preferences of others I will always ensure that I get my views across in a meeting I am willing to accept the viewpoint of others I always give 100% in a group task Explain why: SLOT Analysis Having responded to the statements above you should now be in a position to look forward and recognise those areas on which your development will be based. The SLOT analysis can help you to arrange this. Strengths – can be those skills and characteristics to which you have responded positively to in the previous section. It is worth noting that whilst you may be strong in these areas that does not mean you ignore their development. Indeed you may be able to utilise these strengths in the development of areas identified as weaknesses or to overcome strengths, this will enhance those skills and characteristics. Limitations – All of us can identify some sort of limitation to our skills. None of us should be afraid of doing this as this is the first stage on the improvement and development of these weaknesses. Opportunities – These arise or can be created. When thinking of this look ahead at opportunities that will arise in a professional, academic or social context within which your development can take place. Threats – Many threats from your development can come from within – your own characteristics e.g. poor time management can lead to missing deadlines. However we could equally identify a busy lifestyle as a threat to our development. Once again think widely in terms of where the threat will come from. Do not worry if you find that a strength can also be a limitation. This is often true as a characteristic you have may be strength in one situation but a limitation in another. E.g. you may be an assertive person, which is positive, but this could be negative in a group situation. Please try and elaborate this in the notes section at the foot of the table. SLOT Analysis (you may need to use two pages to set out this analysis) Strengths Limitations Opportunities Threats Analysis of the Bullet points in the SLOT table Objectives Having undertaken some analysis of your skills and characteristics the aim of this next section is to identify various aspects of your development during the course of this module, other modules on your course, and extra-curricular activities. Make sure the objectives are SMART:- S – Specific. Clearly identified from the exercises undertaken M – Measurable. The outcomes can be easily demonstrated (to yourself, and where possible others) A – Achievable. They can be done given the opportunities available to you R – Relevant. They form part of your development either on this award, in your employability prospects or in your current job role T – Timebound. They can be achieved within a given timescale Whilst there are 5 rows in the table below, please feel free to add more. However be sure that you need to do this development and that they fit within the scope of the above criteria. Area What I am going to do. How I am going to do it When I am going to do it by Force Field Analysis This technique was designed by Kurt Lewin (1947 and 1953). In the business world it is used for decision making, looking at forces that need to be considered when implementing change – it can be said to be a specialised method of weighing up the pros and cons of a decision. Having looked at your personal strengths and weaknesses we would like you to use this technique to become aware of those factors that will help/hinder, give you motivation for or may act against, your personal development. Whilst you could do this for each of your objectives we want you to think in terms of where you would like to be at the end of your Masters programme. In the central pillar, put in a statement of where you want to be at the end of the course. Then in the arrows either side look at those factors/forces that may work in your favour. Be realistic and please add as many arrows that you think may be necessary; use a separate page for the module if it makes it easier to structure your thoughts. Forces or factors working for achieving your desired outcome Where I want to be Forces or factors against working against you achieving your desired outcome

Module Overview Summary of Module Description For full details, go to Module Descriptor. Aims The aim of this module is to: • Develop individuals for a career in business and management • Enhance and develop employability , professional and lifelong learning skills and personal development Learning Outcomes Learners will be able to critically evaluate the acquisition of a range of academic and professional skills using a number of theoretical frameworks. Assessment – Summary Category Assessment Description Duration Word Count Weight (%) Written Assignment Essay 1 Reflective Essay N/A 3000 45 For full details, go to Assessment. Additional Information Remember that a variety of Resources is available to support your learning materials.Skills and character audit This document provides an initial picture of your skills and character. It will also provide the basis of further documents that make up the first assignment on the module. It is based on the skills statements that form a fundamental part of your Masters programme which were approved by a validation panel that consisted of members of staff in the Business School, academic staff from other higher education institutions and employers. The statements in the form are there for you and you will not be judged on whether your responses are positive or negative. The responses should enable you to identify what you are good or bad at from which you can create a personal SLOT analysis (Strengths, Limitations, Opportunities, Threats). From this SLOT analysis you can then concentrate on developing certain areas that will enhance your academic and professional development. We would very much like to” get to know” you through this document and would encourage you to also complete the notes section. In this you could give us a rationale for your responses to the questions. As a guide to how you should gauge your response consider the following: Strongly agree – I have a wide range of experience in this area and have been commended by a tutor or employer for my efforts in this area Agree – I am comfortable with this aspect and have been able to demonstrate my ability Disagree – I am Ok with this but realise that I do need to improve Strongly disagree – I know I am weak in this area and need to focus on this as I could fine this weakness to be detrimental to my progression Explain why – please take the room to consider the reasons for your answer as this is the reflection that is of most value. Do not worry if your section spills onto the next page.   Intellectual (thinking) skills Strongly Agree Agree Disagree Strongly Disagree I am a creative person who can adapt my thinking to circumstances I am able to organise my thoughts, analyse, synthesise and critically appraise situations I can identify assumptions, evaluate statements in terms of evidence, detect false logic or reasoning, identify implicit values, define terms adequately and generalise appropriately Explain why: Professional/Vocational skills Strongly Agree Agree Disagree Strongly Disagree I use a wide range of techniques in approaching and solving problems. I am comfortable with a range of research techniques I am able to analyse and interpret quantitative data I am able to analyse and interpret qualitative data My leadership skills are well developed and I can adapt them to different situations I am able to manage people effectively Motivating myself and others comes easy to me I am aware of my responsibilities to myself, the organisation and other people I treat people with respect and consideration Explain why:   Key/Common skills Strongly Agree Agree Disagree Strongly Disagree I am able to use mathematical techniques to analyse data I can effectively interpret numerical data including tables and charts I am able to use a wide range of software on a PC I use a range Information Technology devices to communicate and access information I am a good listener I am able to communicate my ideas well in a face-to-face situation I can adapt my written style to suit an audiences needs I am comfortable presenting my ideas to an audience Whenever I have completed a task I always reflect on the experience with a view to seeking continuous improvement I manage my time effectively I am always prompt when asked to complete a task I am aware of the need to be sensitive to the cultural differences to which I have been exposed I am keen to learn about other people and their country and culture I enjoy working with others to complete a task I know my own character and am sensitive of this in a group situation I understand that a group is made of individuals and I am sensitive to the needs and preferences of others I will always ensure that I get my views across in a meeting I am willing to accept the viewpoint of others I always give 100% in a group task Explain why: SLOT Analysis Having responded to the statements above you should now be in a position to look forward and recognise those areas on which your development will be based. The SLOT analysis can help you to arrange this. Strengths – can be those skills and characteristics to which you have responded positively to in the previous section. It is worth noting that whilst you may be strong in these areas that does not mean you ignore their development. Indeed you may be able to utilise these strengths in the development of areas identified as weaknesses or to overcome strengths, this will enhance those skills and characteristics. Limitations – All of us can identify some sort of limitation to our skills. None of us should be afraid of doing this as this is the first stage on the improvement and development of these weaknesses. Opportunities – These arise or can be created. When thinking of this look ahead at opportunities that will arise in a professional, academic or social context within which your development can take place. Threats – Many threats from your development can come from within – your own characteristics e.g. poor time management can lead to missing deadlines. However we could equally identify a busy lifestyle as a threat to our development. Once again think widely in terms of where the threat will come from. Do not worry if you find that a strength can also be a limitation. This is often true as a characteristic you have may be strength in one situation but a limitation in another. E.g. you may be an assertive person, which is positive, but this could be negative in a group situation. Please try and elaborate this in the notes section at the foot of the table. SLOT Analysis (you may need to use two pages to set out this analysis) Strengths Limitations Opportunities Threats Analysis of the Bullet points in the SLOT table Objectives Having undertaken some analysis of your skills and characteristics the aim of this next section is to identify various aspects of your development during the course of this module, other modules on your course, and extra-curricular activities. Make sure the objectives are SMART:- S – Specific. Clearly identified from the exercises undertaken M – Measurable. The outcomes can be easily demonstrated (to yourself, and where possible others) A – Achievable. They can be done given the opportunities available to you R – Relevant. They form part of your development either on this award, in your employability prospects or in your current job role T – Timebound. They can be achieved within a given timescale Whilst there are 5 rows in the table below, please feel free to add more. However be sure that you need to do this development and that they fit within the scope of the above criteria. Area What I am going to do. How I am going to do it When I am going to do it by Force Field Analysis This technique was designed by Kurt Lewin (1947 and 1953). In the business world it is used for decision making, looking at forces that need to be considered when implementing change – it can be said to be a specialised method of weighing up the pros and cons of a decision. Having looked at your personal strengths and weaknesses we would like you to use this technique to become aware of those factors that will help/hinder, give you motivation for or may act against, your personal development. Whilst you could do this for each of your objectives we want you to think in terms of where you would like to be at the end of your Masters programme. In the central pillar, put in a statement of where you want to be at the end of the course. Then in the arrows either side look at those factors/forces that may work in your favour. Be realistic and please add as many arrows that you think may be necessary; use a separate page for the module if it makes it easier to structure your thoughts. Forces or factors working for achieving your desired outcome Where I want to be Forces or factors against working against you achieving your desired outcome

  Intellectual (thinking) skills   Strongly Agree Agree Disagree Strongly … Read More...
ENG 100 – Critique Assignment Sheet Rough Draft Due for Peer Response: Tuesday, September 29 First Draft Due (submit for feedback): Thursday, October 1 Final Draft with Outline Due: Thursday, October 8 Highlighting, Labeling, and Reflection: Thursday, October 8 Submit hard copies in class and upload to turnitin.com (Password: English, Class ID: 10423941) What is a Critique? A critique is a “formal evaluation [that offers your] judgment of a text—whether the reading was effective, ineffective, valuable, or trivial.” In a critique, “your goal is to convince readers to accept your judgments concerning the quality of the reading” based on specific criteria you have established (Wilhoit 87). Additionally, a critique is comprised of many integrated parts: introduction to the text, introduction to and brief background on the general topic, brief summary properly placed in the essay, a discussion of the criteria chosen for evaluation, a discussion of the criteria using specific examples/information from the text (this discussion should be the largest section of your essay by far!!), instances of personal response, and a conclusion. All of these items should relate to your overall evaluation/thesis of the text. The Assignment: Instead of a written essay, your “text” will be either a movie or a documentary. You will follow the same standards that you would use for a critique based off of an essay but you will adapt the integrated parts to fit a film critique. In order to effectively address this assignment, complete the following steps: STEP I: Choose either a movie or documentary • Base your choice on the strength of your feelings, whether hate, love, respect, etc., because you do not have to like the film in order to write a solid and coherent critique. You might have more to say about a film you dislike. Also choose a genre of film that you understand (i.e. romantic comedy, drama, indie-film, comedy, documentary). • Think about the important components for this specific genre. STEP II: Watch and Annotate the film • Note the major points within the film, how you felt while watching it, and what made you feel that way. • Keep in mind the film’s genre and whether or not your chosen film fits any of those criteria. STEP III: Analyze (break the film into parts) • Break the film down into your genre-driven criteria. • Choose 4-5 criteria and then determine what sections/components of the film either represent effectiveness or ineffectiveness. STEP IV: Evaluate the film (using the criteria and your personal standards) • Evaluate the film according to the criteria list we will generate in class. • To help create your thesis claim, determine whether the film, based on your criteria and standards, is an excellent, mediocre, terrible, etc. representation of your chosen genre. • For example: While the costume and design are fantastic and interesting, the film 300 is a mediocre example of historical drama because the history of Greece and Asia is inaccurate and the female characters are weak. STEP V: Find outside sources—one should agree with you and one should disagree • Check out a review website, such as imdb.com, and locate a few reviews of your film. In your critique, you will be expected to reference other film reviewers to develop and support your own arguments. Please note that those reviews must be cited properly, both in-text citations and the Works Cited page entries. The basic structure of the critique is as follows: • An introduction that o Introduces the film and provides an adequate amount of background information, including the intended audience, to give the reader context (i.e. a cartoon might not be meant for college-age viewers) o Includes a thesis statement that presents the film as either an excellent, mediocre, or terrible representation of your chosen genre o Explains at least three-four different criteria as the basis for your thesis/argument • A summary that is o Brief, neutral and comprehensive o No more than one paragraph in length • Body Paragraphs including o Support of your thesis using specific examples from the film o More than one example to support your argument o Either direct quotes or paraphrased information from the source text, reviews, outside information (websites, blogs, credible sources) or a combination of all three to support your argument • A counter-claim o Based on an outside review/blog/article disagreeing with your opinion or one criteria o Includes either a refutation or concession of the reviewer’s opinion • A conclusion including o A restatement of your main points and thesis o A final recommendation • A Work Cited page that o Includes all referenced materials including the source text The bulk of your critique should consist of your qualified opinion of the film – unlike the summary, your opinion matters here. In the body of your paper, you will need about three to five main points to support your thesis statement. You will develop each of these points in a section of your essay, each section consisting of about three paragraphs. You will make claims in your topic sentences, provide examples from the text, and then explain your reasons, using source support where possible. Evaluation A successful critique will contain all of the following: • Creative and clearly stated criteria • A debatable thesis statement • A brief background and summary of the film • 80% of the essay is located within the body paragraphs • Topic sentences that transition from one criteria to the next • Body paragraphs clearly and accurately reflecting your criteria and opinion • Body paragraphs that include more than one example as support • Conclusion including a summation and thoughtful recommendation • Correct MLA documentation including signal phrases and in-text citations • A Work Cited page including all sources referenced • Correct grammar and mechanics • Effective and meaningful transitions • Meaningful and descriptive word choices • Literary present tense and grammatical 3rd person • Length of 3-5 pages • Follows the basic structure for a critique Possible Points (25 % of final grade): • Outline 5 % • Peer Response Workshop with Rough Draft 5 % • Highlighted Revisions, & Reflection 10 % • Final Draft: 80 % Upload to Turnitin.com, using Password: English and Class ID: 10423941. Your grade will not be finalized until you have done this.

ENG 100 – Critique Assignment Sheet Rough Draft Due for Peer Response: Tuesday, September 29 First Draft Due (submit for feedback): Thursday, October 1 Final Draft with Outline Due: Thursday, October 8 Highlighting, Labeling, and Reflection: Thursday, October 8 Submit hard copies in class and upload to turnitin.com (Password: English, Class ID: 10423941) What is a Critique? A critique is a “formal evaluation [that offers your] judgment of a text—whether the reading was effective, ineffective, valuable, or trivial.” In a critique, “your goal is to convince readers to accept your judgments concerning the quality of the reading” based on specific criteria you have established (Wilhoit 87). Additionally, a critique is comprised of many integrated parts: introduction to the text, introduction to and brief background on the general topic, brief summary properly placed in the essay, a discussion of the criteria chosen for evaluation, a discussion of the criteria using specific examples/information from the text (this discussion should be the largest section of your essay by far!!), instances of personal response, and a conclusion. All of these items should relate to your overall evaluation/thesis of the text. The Assignment: Instead of a written essay, your “text” will be either a movie or a documentary. You will follow the same standards that you would use for a critique based off of an essay but you will adapt the integrated parts to fit a film critique. In order to effectively address this assignment, complete the following steps: STEP I: Choose either a movie or documentary • Base your choice on the strength of your feelings, whether hate, love, respect, etc., because you do not have to like the film in order to write a solid and coherent critique. You might have more to say about a film you dislike. Also choose a genre of film that you understand (i.e. romantic comedy, drama, indie-film, comedy, documentary). • Think about the important components for this specific genre. STEP II: Watch and Annotate the film • Note the major points within the film, how you felt while watching it, and what made you feel that way. • Keep in mind the film’s genre and whether or not your chosen film fits any of those criteria. STEP III: Analyze (break the film into parts) • Break the film down into your genre-driven criteria. • Choose 4-5 criteria and then determine what sections/components of the film either represent effectiveness or ineffectiveness. STEP IV: Evaluate the film (using the criteria and your personal standards) • Evaluate the film according to the criteria list we will generate in class. • To help create your thesis claim, determine whether the film, based on your criteria and standards, is an excellent, mediocre, terrible, etc. representation of your chosen genre. • For example: While the costume and design are fantastic and interesting, the film 300 is a mediocre example of historical drama because the history of Greece and Asia is inaccurate and the female characters are weak. STEP V: Find outside sources—one should agree with you and one should disagree • Check out a review website, such as imdb.com, and locate a few reviews of your film. In your critique, you will be expected to reference other film reviewers to develop and support your own arguments. Please note that those reviews must be cited properly, both in-text citations and the Works Cited page entries. The basic structure of the critique is as follows: • An introduction that o Introduces the film and provides an adequate amount of background information, including the intended audience, to give the reader context (i.e. a cartoon might not be meant for college-age viewers) o Includes a thesis statement that presents the film as either an excellent, mediocre, or terrible representation of your chosen genre o Explains at least three-four different criteria as the basis for your thesis/argument • A summary that is o Brief, neutral and comprehensive o No more than one paragraph in length • Body Paragraphs including o Support of your thesis using specific examples from the film o More than one example to support your argument o Either direct quotes or paraphrased information from the source text, reviews, outside information (websites, blogs, credible sources) or a combination of all three to support your argument • A counter-claim o Based on an outside review/blog/article disagreeing with your opinion or one criteria o Includes either a refutation or concession of the reviewer’s opinion • A conclusion including o A restatement of your main points and thesis o A final recommendation • A Work Cited page that o Includes all referenced materials including the source text The bulk of your critique should consist of your qualified opinion of the film – unlike the summary, your opinion matters here. In the body of your paper, you will need about three to five main points to support your thesis statement. You will develop each of these points in a section of your essay, each section consisting of about three paragraphs. You will make claims in your topic sentences, provide examples from the text, and then explain your reasons, using source support where possible. Evaluation A successful critique will contain all of the following: • Creative and clearly stated criteria • A debatable thesis statement • A brief background and summary of the film • 80% of the essay is located within the body paragraphs • Topic sentences that transition from one criteria to the next • Body paragraphs clearly and accurately reflecting your criteria and opinion • Body paragraphs that include more than one example as support • Conclusion including a summation and thoughtful recommendation • Correct MLA documentation including signal phrases and in-text citations • A Work Cited page including all sources referenced • Correct grammar and mechanics • Effective and meaningful transitions • Meaningful and descriptive word choices • Literary present tense and grammatical 3rd person • Length of 3-5 pages • Follows the basic structure for a critique Possible Points (25 % of final grade): • Outline 5 % • Peer Response Workshop with Rough Draft 5 % • Highlighted Revisions, & Reflection 10 % • Final Draft: 80 % Upload to Turnitin.com, using Password: English and Class ID: 10423941. Your grade will not be finalized until you have done this.

info@checkyourstudy.com
Use the links provided to answer the questions below. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9tt6BQDVKu0 http://assets.soomopublishing.com/courses/AG/Fragile_Superpower.pdf NIE Report Why does the report suggest that China and India may or may not become dominant powers in the near future? A. Both countries have high economic and social hurdles to overcome. B. Both countries are only somewhat democratic. C. Both countries lack the military strength and nuclear weaponry to challenge even smaller states. D. Neither country is a member of the UN Security Council. E. Neither country is concerned about global warming and is therefore unfit to become a great power player. According to the U.S. intelligence report discussed in the video, why will the use of nuclear weapons grow more likely? A. Irresponsible powerful countries will want to strike the United States to take over its dominant role in the world. B. There will be a tendency to forget just how dangerous they are as we over-emphasize the importance of international trade. C. Rogue states and terrorist groups may be able to gain greater access to these weapons. D. Since the United States and the Soviet Union are rapidly increasing their weapons building programs, the chances of a nuclear incident becomes higher. E. China is likely to produce nuclear weapons to use against the United States and the Soviet Union. According to the video, is the United States likely to lose its position in the world soon? A. Yes, given the rapid rise of China, we will be seeing a challenge from China in the next 5-10 years. B. Yes, China, in conjunction with India, will rise up against the United States. C. Yes, the Russians are working to undermine the U.S. position actively. D. No, although there appears to be decline, the replacement of the United States as the world leader is not likely to come in the next 10 years. E. No, the United States will actually lose its position after its departure from Iraq in 2012. The Rise of a Fierce Yet Fragile Superpower Why does Susan Shirk say that China is fragile? A. China is fragile because it isn’t a democratic country and will have a difficult time managing relations with other states because of this. B. China is fragile because it has a shrinking economy, so despite its size, China is actually very weak. C. China is fragile because its leaders tend to exacerbate the tensions between states like the Soviet Union and the United States. D. China is fragile because it cannot develop a strong sense of human rights and so its people may try to revolt against it. E. China is fragile because its rate of expansion has created gaps between the wealthy and poor and it has a problem of control with decentralized local governing structures. According to scholars, is a war between the rising power and the current power leader inevitable? A. No, while some scholars believe this is true, others suggest that a “peaceful rise” is possible. B. No, history indicates that all great power transitions have been peaceful. C. Yes, scholars indicate that all of our historical examples of great power transition have been through war. D. Yes, although there are examples of peaceful rise, there is too much cultural difference for that to occur with China. E. Yes, since tension between the United States and China is so strong, scholars agree that a war is coming.

Use the links provided to answer the questions below. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9tt6BQDVKu0 http://assets.soomopublishing.com/courses/AG/Fragile_Superpower.pdf NIE Report Why does the report suggest that China and India may or may not become dominant powers in the near future? A. Both countries have high economic and social hurdles to overcome. B. Both countries are only somewhat democratic. C. Both countries lack the military strength and nuclear weaponry to challenge even smaller states. D. Neither country is a member of the UN Security Council. E. Neither country is concerned about global warming and is therefore unfit to become a great power player. According to the U.S. intelligence report discussed in the video, why will the use of nuclear weapons grow more likely? A. Irresponsible powerful countries will want to strike the United States to take over its dominant role in the world. B. There will be a tendency to forget just how dangerous they are as we over-emphasize the importance of international trade. C. Rogue states and terrorist groups may be able to gain greater access to these weapons. D. Since the United States and the Soviet Union are rapidly increasing their weapons building programs, the chances of a nuclear incident becomes higher. E. China is likely to produce nuclear weapons to use against the United States and the Soviet Union. According to the video, is the United States likely to lose its position in the world soon? A. Yes, given the rapid rise of China, we will be seeing a challenge from China in the next 5-10 years. B. Yes, China, in conjunction with India, will rise up against the United States. C. Yes, the Russians are working to undermine the U.S. position actively. D. No, although there appears to be decline, the replacement of the United States as the world leader is not likely to come in the next 10 years. E. No, the United States will actually lose its position after its departure from Iraq in 2012. The Rise of a Fierce Yet Fragile Superpower Why does Susan Shirk say that China is fragile? A. China is fragile because it isn’t a democratic country and will have a difficult time managing relations with other states because of this. B. China is fragile because it has a shrinking economy, so despite its size, China is actually very weak. C. China is fragile because its leaders tend to exacerbate the tensions between states like the Soviet Union and the United States. D. China is fragile because it cannot develop a strong sense of human rights and so its people may try to revolt against it. E. China is fragile because its rate of expansion has created gaps between the wealthy and poor and it has a problem of control with decentralized local governing structures. According to scholars, is a war between the rising power and the current power leader inevitable? A. No, while some scholars believe this is true, others suggest that a “peaceful rise” is possible. B. No, history indicates that all great power transitions have been peaceful. C. Yes, scholars indicate that all of our historical examples of great power transition have been through war. D. Yes, although there are examples of peaceful rise, there is too much cultural difference for that to occur with China. E. Yes, since tension between the United States and China is so strong, scholars agree that a war is coming.

Use the links provided to answer the questions below. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9tt6BQDVKu0 … Read More...
Who are the actors in the dialogue and who is more powerful? A. The Lacedaemons and the Melians. The Melians are more powerful. B. The Athenians and the Melians. The Athenians are more powerful. C. The Lacedaemons, the Melians, and the Athenians. The Melians are most powerful. D. The Athenians and the Melians. The Melians are more powerful. E. The Lacedaemons and the Melians. They are equally powerful. The Athenian envoy was dispatched to address the Melians. Who did they end up talking to? A. The people of Lacedaemon. B. A group of Melian magistrates. C. The Melian magistrates and the population. D. Just the general Melian population. The magistrates did not show out of protest. E. The Lacedaemon population and the Melian population. What is the main point in question upon which both parties seem to agree? A. Whether to go to war against Athenian enemies. B. Whether to form an equal alliance with the Athenians. C. Whether there will be war between the Melians and the Athenians or whether the Melians will submit to Athenian power. D. How many ships and soldiers the Melians will give to the Athenian campaign. E. How many ships and soldiers the Athenians will give to the Melian movement for independence. What do the Athenians suggest about right and justice in terms of power? A. Questions about what is “right” only happen among equals in power. B. Justice and right come about when the powerful are wise. C. Power has no relation to right and justice. D. Questions about what is “right” only happen among equals in power AND justice and right come about when the powerful are wise. E. Justice and right come about when the powerful are wise AND power has no relation to right and justice. What is the necessary “law of their nature” that the Athenians are referring to? A. That states, both weak and strong, will seek peace. B. The law of chance and luck operates universally among men. C. The belief that, given the opportunity, men will seek to rule whenever they can. D. Whenever a treaty is created, states will settle those treaties with due consideration to the weaker side. E. That the nature of men is towards justice rather than power.

Who are the actors in the dialogue and who is more powerful? A. The Lacedaemons and the Melians. The Melians are more powerful. B. The Athenians and the Melians. The Athenians are more powerful. C. The Lacedaemons, the Melians, and the Athenians. The Melians are most powerful. D. The Athenians and the Melians. The Melians are more powerful. E. The Lacedaemons and the Melians. They are equally powerful. The Athenian envoy was dispatched to address the Melians. Who did they end up talking to? A. The people of Lacedaemon. B. A group of Melian magistrates. C. The Melian magistrates and the population. D. Just the general Melian population. The magistrates did not show out of protest. E. The Lacedaemon population and the Melian population. What is the main point in question upon which both parties seem to agree? A. Whether to go to war against Athenian enemies. B. Whether to form an equal alliance with the Athenians. C. Whether there will be war between the Melians and the Athenians or whether the Melians will submit to Athenian power. D. How many ships and soldiers the Melians will give to the Athenian campaign. E. How many ships and soldiers the Athenians will give to the Melian movement for independence. What do the Athenians suggest about right and justice in terms of power? A. Questions about what is “right” only happen among equals in power. B. Justice and right come about when the powerful are wise. C. Power has no relation to right and justice. D. Questions about what is “right” only happen among equals in power AND justice and right come about when the powerful are wise. E. Justice and right come about when the powerful are wise AND power has no relation to right and justice. What is the necessary “law of their nature” that the Athenians are referring to? A. That states, both weak and strong, will seek peace. B. The law of chance and luck operates universally among men. C. The belief that, given the opportunity, men will seek to rule whenever they can. D. Whenever a treaty is created, states will settle those treaties with due consideration to the weaker side. E. That the nature of men is towards justice rather than power.

Who are the actors in the dialogue and who is … Read More...